Question for UDHD Jharkhand Junior Engineer 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest UDHD Jharkhand JE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Electrical, Mechanical, Civil, Reasoning, Aptitude, English, GK, General Studies

Question Bank UDHD Jharkhand JE Exam - English

Electrical

Question 1Single Answer

Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is

A
0.8 Ω
B
1.4 Ω
C
2 Ω
D
2.8 Ω

Question 2Single Answer

For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10^-6 (ohm-m)^-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m²/V-s and 0.04 m²/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?

A
7.0 × 10¹² m^-3
B
7.0 × 10^-12 m^-3
C
7.0 × 10^-12 m³
D
7.0 × 10¹² m³

Question 3Single Answer

The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m²/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m²/V-s?

A
9.2 × 10⁵/m³
B
2.77 × 10³/m³
C
2.43 × 10¹⁹/m³
D
8.9 × 10¹²/m³

Question 4Single Answer

Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place

A
By the mobility of the carriers
B
Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
C
By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
D
By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms

Question 5Single Answer

Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is

A
Parallel polarized
B
Perpendicularly polarized
C
Normally polarized
D
None of the above

Question 6Single Answer

An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if

A
Forward voltage increases up to the rating
B
Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
C
Forward voltage decreases below the rating
D
Reverse voltage decreases below the rating

Question 7Single Answer

The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is

A
Very difficult to form, machine or case
B
The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
C
The poor strength-to-weight ratio
D
The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures

Question 8Single Answer

Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?

A
High stiffness and strengths
B
Low densities
C
Unusual electrical property
D
Non-ductile

Question 9Single Answer

The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from

A
Meissner effect
B
Josephson effect
C
Isotope effect
D
x quantization experiments

Question 10Single Answer

Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?

A
Phenol formaldehyde
B
Polytetrafluoroethylene
C
Polyvinyl chloride
D
Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene

Question 11Single Answer

For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is

A
Ferrite
B
Piezoelectric
C
Pyroelectric
D
Ferromagnetic above 768°C

Question 12Single Answer

The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called

A
Peak temperature
B
Neel temperatur
C
Critical temperature
D
Weiss temperature

Question 13Single Answer

Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?

A
Seeback effect
B
Thomson effect
C
Hall effect
D
Joule effect

Question 14Single Answer

Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are

A
Soft magnetic materials
B
Hard magnetic materials
C
High eddy current loss materials
D
High hysteresis loss materials

Question 15Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
Both 1 and 2
B
Neither 1 nor 2
C
1 only
D
2 only

Question 16Single Answer

The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of

A
Radiative recombination
B
Auger recombination
C
Surface recombination
D
Shockley-Read-Hall recombination

Question 17Single Answer

Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of

A
GeO₂
B
B₂O₃
C
P₂O_5x
D
Al₂O₃

Question 18Single Answer

If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will

A
Become twice
B
Become half
C
ecome four times
D
Remain unchanged

Question 19Single Answer

In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux.
Which of the above are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 20Single Answer

If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?

A
MCHTX
B
MXHTC
C
XMHCT
D
XMHTC

Question 21Single Answer

Consider the following statements associated with the basic electrostatic properties of ideal conductors:
1.The resultant field inside is zero.
2.The net charge density in the interior is zero.
3.Any net charges reside on the surface.
4.The surface is always equipotential.
5.The field just outside is zero.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
3, 4 and 5 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 22Single Answer

A semiconductor device made out of a material having very high temperature coefficient of resistance is

A
Transistor
B
Varistor
C
Thyristor
D
Thermistor

Question 23Single Answer

The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature because

A
The carrier concentration increases
B
The mobility of carrier increases
C
Both carrier concentration and mobility increases
D
The band gap decreases

Question 24Single Answer

Which of the following are associated with soft superconductors?
1.Silsbee’s rule
2.Meissner effect
3.Faraday rotation
4.Curie-Weiss law

A
2, 3 and 4
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 25Single Answer

In a two-channel oscilloscope operating in x-y mode, two in-phase 50 Hz sinusoidal waveforms of equal amplitude are fed to the two channels. What will be the resultant pattern on the screen?

A
An ellipse
B
A parabola
C
Straight line inclined at 45 with respect to x-axis
D
A circle

Mechanical

Question 26Single Answer

A fin will be more effective when Bio number is

A
Greater than 1
B
Equal to 1
C
Between 1 and 3
4 4
D
Less than 1

Question 27Single Answer

A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is

Question 28Single Answer

Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?

A
Newtonian fluid
B
Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C
Pseudo-plastic fluids
D
Dilatent fluids

Question 29Single Answer

What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s²)

Question 30Single Answer

What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?

A
0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B
4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C
0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D
4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg

Question 31Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
Both 1 and 2
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
Neither 1 nor 2

Question 32Single Answer

State whether following flow field is physically possible?

A
Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B
Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C
Possible for steady, compressible flow
D
Not Possible

Question 33Single Answer

In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is

A
0.25
B
0.26
C
2
D
4

Question 34Single Answer

A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is

A
10 kW
B
20 kW
C
30 kW
D
50 kW

Question 35Single Answer

On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?

A
man power
B
profit
C
inventory
D
manufacturing

Question 36Single Answer

In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?

A
3 m/s²
B
6 m/s²
C
9 m/s²
D
15 m/s²

Question 37Single Answer

The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is

A
9
B
-6
C
117
D
10.8

Question 38Single Answer

The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is

A
More for lighter fluid
B
More for denser fluid
C
Less for denser fluid
D
Less for lighter fluid

Question 39Single Answer

In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies

A
Linearly with fluid density
B
Inversely with pressure drop
C
Directly as square of pipe radius
D
Inversely with fluid velocity

Question 40Single Answer

A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is

A
1.5mm
B
2.5mm
C
4.0mm
D
5.0mm

Question 41Single Answer

Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10^-6m²/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is

A
0.05m
B
0.07m
C
0.08m
D
0.09m

Question 42Single Answer

In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is

A
8 kW
B
4 kW
C
2 kW
D
1 kW

Question 43Single Answer

In a hydraulic coupling

A
The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B
The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C
The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D
The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque

Question 44Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?

A
1,2 and 3 only
B
1,2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1,2, 3 and 4

Question 45Single Answer

A water jet 0.0015m²in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is

A
150 N
B
1470 N
C
340 N
D
900 N

Question 46Single Answer

Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n².
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 47Single Answer

Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?

A
Energy
B
Mass
C
Momentum
D
Angle

Question 48Single Answer

Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in

A
Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
B
Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
C
Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
D
Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid

Question 49Single Answer

Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 10⁵. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be

A
2Q
B
A little more than 2Q
C
A little less than 2Q
D
4Q

Question 50Single Answer

Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be

A
7.5 W/m²K
B
15 W/m²K
C
25 W/m²K
D
35 W/m²K

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Civil

Question 51Single Answer

One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of

A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l

Question 52Single Answer

AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:

A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4

Question 53Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?

A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 4 and 5

Question 54Single Answer

The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is

A
10
B
20
C
25
D
30

Question 55Single Answer

If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as

A
11.8
B
12.4
C
14.2
D
14.8

Question 56Single Answer

Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4

Question 57Single Answer

Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Question 58Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 59Single Answer

Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 5 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Question 60Single Answer

What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m³?

A
165 l
B
205 l
C
245 l
D
285 l

Question 61Single Answer

Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?

A
IS : 4970-1973
B
IS : 1708-1969
C
IS : 1141-1958
D
IS : 399-1963

Question 62Single Answer

Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?

A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 63Single Answer

The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are

A
Parallel to each other
B
At right angle to one another
C
45° oblique to adjacent grain
D
Not constrained by any consideration

Question 64Single Answer

Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?

A
It must be free from lumps of lime
B
It should not be mixed with salty water
C
It must be non-homogeneous
D
It should not contain vegetable and organic matter

Question 65Single Answer

The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than

A
440 kg/cm²
B
175 kg/cm²
C
100kg/cm²
D
75kg/cm²

Question 66Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4

Question 67Single Answer

Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4

Question 68Single Answer

Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?

A
Magnesium oxide
B
Silica
C
Alumina
D
Calcium sulphate

Question 69Single Answer

Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?

A
Ordinary Portland
B
High Alumina
C
Low-heat Portland
D
Portland Cement

Question 70Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3, 4 and 5
D
2, 3 and 5

Question 71Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding ‘strength of cement’:
1.Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement-sand mix.
2.Water to be used for the paste is 0.25 P, where P is the water needed for normal consistency.
3.The normal consistency is determined on Le Chatelier’s principle.
4.Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each layer by vibration on a machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 4
D
3 and 4

Question 72Single Answer

Which of the following ingredients refer to binding material of mortar?
1.Cement
2.Lime
3.Sand
4.Ashes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A
1 and 4
B
3 and 4
C
1 and 2
D
2 and 3

Question 73Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1.Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
2.Mortars make brick damp-proof.
3.Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
4.Addition of lime improves workability.
5.Marine construction needs sulphate-resistant cement mortar.
Which of the above statements are relevant for ‘cement mortar’?

A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 4 and 5
D
3, 4 and 5

Question 74Single Answer

Consider the following parameters of concrete:
1.Impermeability
2.Compactness
3.Durability
4.Desired consistency
5.Workability
Which of the above parameters are relevant for ‘water-cement ratio’?

A
4 and 5
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 4
D
3 and 5

Question 75Single Answer

Consider the following statements:Presence of Na₂O and K₂O in concrete leads to
1.Expansive reaction in concrete
2.Cracking of concrete
3.Disruption of concrete
4.Shrinkage of concrete
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 and 4

Reasoning

Question 76Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 77Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 78Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 79Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 80Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 81Single Answer

How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 82Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.

Question 83Single Answer

If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 84Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 85Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.

Question 86Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 87Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 88Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 89Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Question 90Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Aptitude

Question 91Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 92Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 93Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 94Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 95Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 96Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 97Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 98Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 99Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 100Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 101Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 102Single Answer

If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.

Question 103Single Answer

Write the 44000 in Roman numerals

A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC

Question 104Single Answer

Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?

A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10

Question 105Single Answer

What is (98 times 102) ?

A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196

English

Question 106Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 107Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 108Single Answer

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Question 109Single Answer

I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Question 110Single Answer

They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Question 111Single Answer

The online shopping site lowered the prices.

A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site

Question 112Single Answer

Who taught you to drive a truck ?

A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?

Question 113Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 114Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 115Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

General Studies

Question 116Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 117Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 118Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 119Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 120Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

GK

Question 121Single Answer

Which Indian Business person recently became the third-richest person in the world, as per the Bloomberg Billionaire Index ?

A
Mukesh Ambani
B
Gautam Adani
C
Cyrus Poonawala
D
Radhakishan Damani

Question 122Single Answer

Which Institution/council released the ‘Competitiveness Roadmap for India@100’Report ?

A
NITI Aayog
B
Economic Advisory Council
C
National Council of Applied Economic Research
D
Centre for Policy Research

Question 123Single Answer

Which Indian state/UT has inaugurated the ‘Rajiv Gandhi Rural Olympic Games’ ?

A
Assam
B
Rajasthan
C
Chhattisgarh
D
Telangana

Question 124Single Answer

Which city hosted the ‘UN’ session to save Biodiversity’ ?

A
New York
B
Paris
C
Rome
D
Tokyo

Question 125Single Answer

Which state/UT got its second railway station after a gap of 100 years ?

A
Arunachal Pradesh
B
Nagaland
C
Assam
D
Mizoram

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