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Latest UJVNL AE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Awareness, Aptitude, Reasoning, Civil Engineering
Question Bank UJVNL Assistant Engineer Exam (Civil) - English
General Awareness
Q 1 :
RBI projected Indiaโs GDP growth for the ongoing period at what rate (April 2026 update)?
A.7.4%
B.6.8%
C.7.0%
D.8.0%
Q 2 :
Which state topped the medal tally in Khelo India Tribal Games 2026?
A.Karnataka
B.Odisha
C.Maharashtra
D.Jharkhand
Q 3 :
Kar Saathi AI-enabled taxpayer assistance platform was launched by which body?
A.CBIC
B.RBI
C.Income Tax Department
D.NITI Aayog
Q 4 :
INS Taragiri was commissioned at which location in April 2026?
A.Chennai
B.Mumbai
C.Kochi
D.Visakhapatnam
Q 5 :
Which state hosted the National Level Advanced Agriculture Festival 2026?
A.Madhya Pradesh
B.Rajasthan
C.Gujarat
D.Karnataka
Q 6 :
The SAMPANN platform is a flagship initiative of which department?
A.Department of Pension
B.Ministry of Finance
C.Ministry of Labour
D.Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
Q 7 :
Newcastle Disease recently in news is caused by which agent?
A.Bacteria
B.Virus
C.Fungus
D.Protozoa
Q 8 :
Which organisation developed the Multi-Hazard Early Warning Decision Support System (MH-EWDSS)?
A.ISRO
B.India Meteorological Department
C.NDMA
D.DRDO
Q 9 :
What repo rate did the RBI MPC maintain in its latest review (April 2026 context)?
A.5.25% (neutral stance)
B.6.00%
C.5.50%
D.4.75%
Q 10 :
RBI extended the inflation targeting framework with 4% CPI target (ยฑ2% band) for which period?
A.2026-27 only
B.2025-26 only
C.1 April 2026 to 31 March 2031
D.2027-32
Q 11 :
What is the theme for the International Day for Mine Awareness 2026 observed on 4 April?
A.Peace Through Action
B.Global Safety First
C.Invest in Peace; Invest in Mine Action
D.Landmine-Free World
Q 12 :
India completed its first Iranian oil purchase in how many years without payment issues (April 2026)?
A.Three years
B.Five years
C.Ten years
D.Seven years
Q 13 :
What was Indiaโs CASA ratio in the December 2025 quarter according to RBI data released in April 2026?
A.35.0%
B.40.1%
C.42.5%
D.37.9% (2-year low)
Q 14 :
RBI released the indicative borrowing calendar for Q1 FY27 (AprilโJune 2026). What is the total amount states/UTs will raise?
A.โน2.00 lakh crore
B.โน1.50 lakh crore
C.โน3.00 lakh crore
D.โน2.54 lakh crore
Q 15 :
Union MoS Dr. Jitendra Singh launched the BIRAC-BioNEST Incubation Centre at which institute in April 2026?
A.CSIR-IICT, Hyderabad
B.CSIR-CFTRI, Mysuru
C.IIT Delhi
D.NIFTEM
Q 16 :
Which two entities recently adopted DoTโs SAMPANN platform for pension management?
A.Government of Kerala and Chennai Port
B.Government of Karnataka and Mumbai Port
C.Government of Goa and Cochin Port Authority
D.Government of Maharashtra and Paradip Port
Q 17 :
A Rs 5 commemorative postage stamp was released in April 2026 to mark 75 years of which institution?
A.Speed Post
B.India Post Payments Bank
C.Postal Training Centre (PTc), Saharanpur
D.India Post Gramin Dak Sevak
Q 18 :
India and South Korea signed a Plan of Implementation (PoI) in April 2026 for skill development in which sector?
A.Shipbuilding and maritime
B.IT and software
C.Renewable energy
D.Automobile manufacturing
Q 19 :
The Ministry of Education recently declared NCERT as a โDeemed to be Universityโ under which Act?
A.UGC Act, 1956 (Section 3)
B.NEP 2020
C.AICTE Act
D.National Education Policy Act
Q 20 :
INS Aridhaman, recently commissioned by the Indian Navy, belongs to which class of submarines?
A.Arihant class
B.Scorpene class
C.Chakra class
D.Kalvari class
Aptitude
Q 21 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A.2 hours
B.3 hours
C.4 hours
D.5 hours
Q 22 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A.69
B.96
C.78
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 23 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.None of these
Q 24 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
Q 25 :
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A.42
B.38
C.32
D.72
E.None of these
Q 26 :
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A.18
B.16
C.19
D.17
E.None of these
Q 27 :
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A.45
B.35
C.40
D.30
E.None of these
Q 28 :
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A.2024
B.2104
C.2004
D.2014
E.None of these
Q 29 :
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A.38
B.42
C.44
D.34
E.None of these
Q 30 :
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A.20
B.22
C.21
D.23
E.None of these
Q 31 :
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A.50
B.75
C.57
D.60
E.None of these
Q 32 :
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A.52
B.54
C.56
D.48
E.None of these
Q 33 :
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
Q 34 :
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A.118
B.95
C.110
D.100
E.None of these
Q 35 :
What is 234 time 167 ?
A.48768
B.41184
C.40581
D.39078
E.None of these
Reasoning
Q 36 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 37 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 38 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 39 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 40 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 41 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 42 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 43 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 44 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 45 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 46 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 47 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 48 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 49 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 50 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Important Questions Package
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UJVNL Assistant Engineer Exam (Civil) Question Bank Book - English
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A.30 l
B.35 l
C.40 l
D.45 l
Q 52 :
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A.1 : 1 : 1
B.1 : 2 : 3
C.1 : 2 : 4
D.1 : 3 : 4
Q 53 :
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 3 and 5
C.2, 3 and 4
D.2, 4 and 5
Q 54 :
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A.10
B.20
C.25
D.30
Q 55 :
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A.11.8
B.12.4
C.14.2
D.14.8
Q 56 :
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 4
C.2, 3 and 4
D.1, 3 and 4
Q 57 :
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.3 and 4
Q 58 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
Q 59 :
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.1, 2 and 5 only
C.1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Q 60 :
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
A.165 l
B.205 l
C.245 l
D.285 l
Q 61 :
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
A.IS : 4970-1973
B.IS : 1708-1969
C.IS : 1141-1958
D.IS : 399-1963
Q 62 :
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.2 and 4 only
C.1 and 4 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 63 :
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
A.Parallel to each other
B.At right angle to one another
C.45° oblique to adjacent grain
D.Not constrained by any consideration
Q 64 :
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
A.It must be free from lumps of lime
B.It should not be mixed with salty water
C.It must be non-homogeneous
D.It should not contain vegetable and organic matter
Q 65 :
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
A.440 kg/cm2
B.175 kg/cm2
C.100kg/cm2
D.75kg/cm2
Q 66 :
Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.3 and 4
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 4
Q 67 :
Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3
C.1, 2 and 4
D.2, 3 and 4
Q 68 :
Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
A.Magnesium oxide
B.Silica
C.Alumina
D.Calcium sulphate
Q 69 :
Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
A.Ordinary Portland
B.High Alumina
C.Low-heat Portland
D.Portland Cement
Q 70 :
Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2, 3 and 4
C.3, 4 and 5
D.2, 3 and 5
Q 71 :
Consider the following statements regarding ‘strength of cement’:
1.Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement-sand mix.
2.Water to be used for the paste is 0.25 P, where P is the water needed for normal consistency.
3.The normal consistency is determined on Le Chatelier’s principle.
4.Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each layer by vibration on a machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 4
D.3 and 4
Q 72 :
Which of the following ingredients refer to binding material of mortar?
1.Cement
2.Lime
3.Sand
4.Ashes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A.1 and 4
B.3 and 4
C.1 and 2
D.2 and 3
Q 73 :
Consider the following statements:
1.Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
2.Mortars make brick damp-proof.
3.Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
4.Addition of lime improves workability.
5.Marine construction needs sulphate-resistant cement mortar.
Which of the above statements are relevant for ‘cement mortar’?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2, 3 and 4
C.1, 4 and 5
D.3, 4 and 5
Q 74 :
Consider the following parameters of concrete:
1.Impermeability
2.Compactness
3.Durability
4.Desired consistency
5.Workability
Which of the above parameters are relevant for ‘water-cement ratio’?
A.4 and 5
B.1 and 2
C.2 and 4
D.3 and 5
Q 75 :
Consider the following statements:Presence of Na2O and K2O in concrete leads to
1.Expansive reaction in concrete
2.Cracking of concrete
3.Disruption of concrete
4.Shrinkage of concrete
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 3
D.3 and 4
Q 76 :
The maximum total quantity of dry aggregate by mass per 50 kg of cement, to be taken as the sum of the individual masses of fine and coarse aggregates (kg), for M20 grade of concrete is
A.625
B.480
C.330
D.250
Q 77 :
Absorption capacity of an aggregate refers to the difference expresses in appropriate proportion in water content between
A.A wet aggregate and a dry aggregate
B.A dry aggregate and a wet aggregate
C.A saturated surface-dry aggregate and a dry aggregate
D.A saturated surface-dry aggregate and an over dry aggregate
Q 78 :
Consider the following statements concerning ‘elasticity of concrete’:
1.Stress-strain behavior of concrete is a straight line up to 10% ultimate stress.
2.Strain determination is obtained from tangent modulus.
3.Modulus of elasticity of concrete is also called as secant modulus.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 79 :
Consider the following statements :The addition of CaCl2 in concrete results in
1.Increased shrinkage
2.Decreased setting time
3.Decreased shrinkage
4.Increased setting time
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.1 and 2
Q 80 :
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.Knots in a tree affect the continuity of fibres.
2.Nail knots do not influence the strength of timber.
3.Druxiness of wood is not a defect.
4.Tall trees with twisted fibers give good timber for poles.
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 3 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 81 :
Excrescences in wood are
1.Defects found in trees
2.Formed due to injuries inflicted on trees when they are growing
3.Defects which render wood suitable as firewood only
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 82 :
What treatment is adopted for making timber fire-resistant?
A.ASCU treatment
B.Abel’s process
C.Creosoting
D.Tarring
Q 83 :
Deterioration of structure of timber due to dry rot is:
1.Caused by fungi
2.Due to dry-spell after heavy rains
3.Due to attack of termites
4.ndicated by surface stripes on scantlings
A.1 and 2
B.3 and 4
C.2 and 3
D.1 and 4
Q 84 :
Alternate wetting and drying of timber :
1.Results in shrinkage and swelling
2.Brings about wet rot onset
3.Increases the durability
4.Causes transmission of spores from germination
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 2 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 3 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 85 :
As per I.S. classification, the minimum compressive strength of a first class brick should be
A.75 kg/cm3
B.100kg/cm3
C.125 kg/cm3
D.150 kg/cm3
Q 86 :
When provided with alternating courses of (a) all headers and (b) all stretchers, the front elevation of such brick masonry is designated as
A.English bond
B.Single Flemish bond
C.Double Flemish bond
D.Rat-trap bond
Q 87 :
I.S. code specifies that the compressive strength of brick shall be determined by keeping the brick:
1.On edge
2.On bed
3.After soaking in water for 2 hrs
4.After soaking in water for 24 hrs
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.2 and 4
Q 88 :
Soundness test of cement is carried out to determine its
A.Alumina content
B.Iron oxide content
C.Free lime content
D.Durability under sea water
Q 89 :
The objectives of producing cement include:
1.Incorporating industrial wastes
2.Increasing free lime
3.Increasing fineness
4.Saving energy needed in the process
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1, 3 and 4 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Q 90 :
A mild steel rod tapers uniformly from 24 mm mm dia. over its length of 400 mm. The rod when held vertical is subjected to an axial tensile load of 12 kN. E = 2 × 105 N/mm2. The extension of the rod in mm would be:
A.3
2
B.2
3
C.3
D.1
3
Q 91 :
Two different liquids are flowing through different pipes of the same diameter. In the first pipe, the flow is laminar with centerline velocity,Vmax.1,Whereas in the second pipe, the flow is turbulent. For turbulent flow, the average velocity is 0.82 times the centerline velocity,vmax.2 . For equal volumetric flow rates in both the pipes, the ratio Vmax.1/Vmax.2(up to two decimal place) is_____.
A.1.64
B.2.45
C.0.25
D.1.44
Q 92 :
Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.3. Then the ratio of Young’s modulus to bulk modulus is
A.0.6
B.0.8
C.1.2
D.1.4
Q 93 :
For a gas phase cracking reaction A→B+C at 300รขโฦ , the Gibbs free energy of the reaction at this temperature is รขหโ G°= -2750J/mol . The pressure is 1 bar and the gas phase can be assumed to be ideal. The universal gas constant =8.314J/mol. K. The fractional molar conversion of A at equilibrium is________.
A.0.44
B.0.50
C.0.64
D.0.80
Q 94 :
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.In a ductile material elastic deformation is more predominant than plastic one.
2.Brittleness is not an absolute property of a metal.
3.Rate of loading has no influence in changing the behavior of a metal from ‘ductile’ to ‘brittle’ at low temperatures
4.Under hydrostatic compression, a brittle metal may change into a ductile one.
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.2 and 4
Q 95 :
The total deflection of a structure when subjected simultaneously to different sets of loading is equal to the sum of the deflections under each such set of loads as if acting separately on the structure. Which one the following justifies this statement?
A.Elastic limit is not exceeded
B.Elastic limit including buckling is not exceeded
C.Limit state is not exceeded
D.Proportional limit without buckling is not exceeded
Q 96 :
A rectangular bar of cross-sectional area a is subjected to an axial tensile load P. The maximum shear stress will occur on a plane at X° to any normal cross-section where X° is
A.90°
B.27°
C.180°
D.45°
Q 97 :
A solid circular shaft has been subjected to a pure torsion moment. The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum normal stress at any point would be
A.1 : 2
B.1 : 1
C.2 : 3
D.2 : 1
Q 98 :
Which of the following statements are correct?
1.All load carrying members transmit load through basic modes of tension, compression, torsion and shear only.
2.Beams carry transverse loads.
3.Combined loading is a complicated loading.
4.Nature of internal forces decides the aspect of combines loading.
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.2 and 4
Q 99 :
Identify the WRONG statement amongst the following:
A.steam distillation is used for mixtures that re immiscible with water.
B.Vacuum distillation is used for mixtures that are miscible with water.
C.Steam distillation is used for mixtures that are miscible with water.
D.vacuum distillation columns have larger diameter as compared to atmospheric columns for the same throughout
Q 100 :
Which of the following statements are correct?
1.Experimental results on thin-walled tubes show that maximum normal stress theory is valid.
2.Normal-stress theory is valid in case of brittle materials.
3.In case of pure shear, St. Venant’s theory is more valid than other theories.
4.Tresca’s theory is very closely substantiated by experimental results.
5.In maximum stress theory, the yield locus is a hexagon.
A.1, 2 and 3
B.2, 4 and 5
C.1, 2 and 4
D.2, 3 and 4
Q 101 :
A thin cylindrical shell made of mild steel plate is 1000 mm in diameter. It is to be subjected to an internal pressure of 2 N/mm2. If the material yields at 200N/mm2, the thickness of the plate in mm on the basis of Rankine’s theory of failure with assuming a factor of safety of 3 would be
A.10
B.12
C.15
D.18
Q 102 :
Which of the following can change if only the catalyst is changed for a reaction system?
A.Enthalpy of reaction
B.Activation energy
C.Free Energy of the reaction
D.Equilibrium constant
Q 103 :
Which of the following loads should be applied on a simply supported beam, so that the shear force is constant throughout its span?
A.U.D.L. over the entire span.
B.Two concentrated loads equally spaced in the span.
C.A central concentrated load and a U.D.L. over the entires pan.
D.A couple anywhere in the span.
Q 104 :
A simply supported rolled steel joist of I-section has flange width 250 mm and overall depth 600 mm. Its moment of inertia IXX = 12 × 106 mm4. The steel joist is used as a beam over a simply supported span of 6m. It carries a load of 40 kN/m including its self weight throughout the span. The maximum stress induced in the beam in N/mm2 due to bending would be
A.30
B.90
C.45
D.60
Q 105 :
Which of the following terms represents the torque that produces a twist of one radian in a shaft of unit length?
A.Torsional stress
B.Torsional rigidity
C.Flexural rigidity
D.Moment of resistance
Q 106 :
A 60 mm dia. shaft is subjected to a torque of 6 kN-m. C = 8 × 104 N/mm2. The maximum shear stress induced in the shaft in N/mm2will be
A.8000
92
B.4000
9
C.12000
9
D.16000
9
Q 107 :
A water main 160 cm dia. contains water at a pressure head of 200m. Take weight of water to be 1000 kg/m3. The thickness of the metal shell required for the water main, given that the maximum permissible stress in the metal is 400kg/cm2, will be
A.1 cm
B.2 cm
C.3 cm
D.4 cm
Q 108 :
The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are known as
A.Star shakes
B.Annular rings
C.Cup shakes
D.Hear shakes
Q 109 :
Consider the following distinguishing characteristics of hardwood:
1.They have distinct annular rings.
2.They are not resinous.
Which of these characteristics of hardwood is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 110 :
Consider the following statements on the specific gravity of wood:
1.It is always greater than 2.
2.It is less than 1.
3.It is not dependent upon temperature and equilibrium moisture content.
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.2 and 4 only
Q 111 :
The age of a log of timber can be estimated by
A.Diameter of pith
B.Thickness of bark
C.Number of annular rings
D.Number of medullary rays
Q 112 :
Consider the following statements:Seasoning of timber results in
1.Increased strength
2.Increased durability
3.Reduced resilience
4.Increased dimensional stability
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3
C.1, 3 and 4
D.2, 3 and 4
Q 113 :
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I List-II
Plywood 1. Furniture
Fiberboard 2. Cantilever arches
Laminated lumber 3. Insulation
Commercial blockboard 4. Lining of form-work in concrete Codes:
A.A B C D
1 2 3 4
B. 4 3 2 1
C.4 2 3 1
D.4 2 3 1
Q 114 :
Consider the following statements:Perforated bricks are preferred in construction since
1.They are lighter
2.They are stronger than class 1 bricks
3.They have heat-insulating properties
4.They are cheaper and need less mortar
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.3 and 4 only
Q 115 :
The standard size of a brick is
A.20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
B.19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
C.18 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
D.18 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
Q 116 :
Consider the following statements:More than 6% magnesium oxide by weight in cement results in
1.High early strength and high heat generation
2.Less tendency towards volume change and formation of cracks
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Neither 1 nor 2
D.Both 1 and 2
Q 117 :
Fineness if cement is measured in the units of
A.Volume/mass
B.Mass/volume
C.Area/mass
D.Mass/area
Q 118 :
The initial setting time of cement depends most on
A.Tricalcium aluminate
B.Tricalciumaluminoferrite
C.Dicalcium silicate
D.Dicalcium silicate
Q 119 :
Consider the following statements:Sand in cement mortar is used for
1.Increasing the strength
2.Reducing the shrinkage
3.Decreasing the surface area of the binding material
4.Decreasing the quantity of cement
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 2 and 3
C.1, 3 and 4
D.2, 3 and 4
Q 120 :
Consider the following statements:
1.The compressive strength of concrete decreases with increase in water-cement ratio of the concrete mixture.
2.Water is added to the concrete mix for hydration of cement and workability.
3.Creep and shrinkage of concrete are independent of the water-cement ratio in the concrete mix.
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1 and 4 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 121 :
According to the Indian Standard Specifications, concrete should be cured under a humidity of
A.90%
B.80%
C.60%
D.70%
Q 122 :
Consider the following statements:In a typical compression test with a cylindrical concrete specimen, failure is initiated by
1.Crushing in compression
2.Inclined shear failure
3.Longitudinal tensile cracks
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 123 :
If one intends to obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of aggregate is
A.Round
B.Annular
C.Triangular
D.Flinty
Q 124 :
Consider the following statements as regards rheology of concrete:
1.It deals with strength of concrete.
2.It deals with deformation in concrete.
3.It is the study of deformation and flow of concrete.
4.It deals with rate of shear and shear stress in concrete.
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
B.3 and 4 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 2 only
Q 125 :
Consider the following for durability of well-graded concrete:
1.The environment
2.Cover to embedded reinforcement
3.Shape and size of concrete member
Which of these are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 126 :
Consider the common methods related to testing of concrete:
1.Consistency
2.Compacting factor
3.Vee-Bee
4.Setting time
5.Slump
Which of these methods refer to measuring workability ofconcrete?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 5
C.2, 3 and 4
D.2, 3 and 5
Q 127 :
Gypsum is added into the raw materials during manufacture of cement so that the final product exhibits
A.Retarded initial setting time
B.Improved mouldability for cornices, etc
C.Increases compressive strength
D.Augmented bond strength
Q 128 :
Consider the following constituents of a high performance concrete (HPC):
1.Cement
2.Fine aggregate
3.Coarse aggregate
4.Water
5.Mineral admixture
6.Chemical admixture
Which of these constituentsare relevant for HPC?
A.1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
B.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
C.2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
D.1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
Q 129 :
A specimen is subjected to a pure shear stress regime of intensity.The resulting tensile and compressive stresses, which occur on planes inclined at 45° to the direction of the shear stresses, would be
A.T
B.T
2
C.T2
D.T3
Q 130 :
For a given elastic material, the Elastic modulus E is 210 GPa and its Poisson’s ratio is 0.27. What is the approximate value if its modulus of Rigidity ?
A.105 GPa
B.83 GPa
C.159 GPa
D.165 GPa
Q 131 :
Which of the following is not a basic type of strain ?
A.Compressive strain
B.Shear strain
C.Area strain
D.Volume strain
Q 132 :
Young's Modulus of elasticity is
A.Tensile stress / Tensile strain
B.Shear stress / Shear strain
C.Tensile stress / Shear strain
D.Shear stress / Tensile strain
Q 133 :
Which of the following stresses is measured on inclined surface in Mohr’s Circle Method ?
A.Principal stress
B.Normal stress
C.Tangential stress
D.Maximum stress
Q 134 :
Hooke's law is applicable within
A.Elastic limit
B.Plastic limit
C.Fracture point
D.Ultimate strength
Q 135 :
Lead, as a material used in construction, has E = 15 GPa and K = 50 GPa. What is its Poisson’s ratio?
A.0.225
B.0.30
C.0.40
D.0.45
Q 136 :
Crushing strength of good building stone should be more than:
A.500 kg/cm2
B.1000 kg/cm2
C.1400 kg/cm2
D.2000 kg/cm2
Q 137 :
Two planks each of 50 mm × 50 mm section are glued together along the length to form as section 50 mm × 100 mm; and used as a beam. If the shear force at the section is 1000 N, what is the maximum shear stress on the glue?
A.0.15 MPa
B.0.3MPa
C.0.6MPa
D.2.4MPa
Q 138 :
The probability distribution taken to represent the completion time in PERT analysis is
A.Gamma distribution
B.Normal distribution
C.Beta distribution
D.Log-normal distribution
Q 139 :
The state of stress at a point in 2-D stress system is characterized by direct stresses of 40 MPa compressive and 80 MPa tensile, on mutually perpendicular planes. Shear stress is absent on these planes. The maximum shear stress sat this point (along a duly identified plane) is
A.20 MPa
B.40MPa
C.60MPa
D.80MPa
Q 140 :
An electrical resistance strain rosette indicates strain of -400, +800 and +500 along the x,y and 45° axes. What is the shearing ratio yxy?
A.100
B.800
C.600
D.-200
Q 141 :
In a diagonal scale only
A.Units can be shown
B.Units, tenths can be shown
C.Units, tenths, hundredths can be shown
D.Units, tenths, hundredths and thousandths can be shown
Q 142 :
A cylindrical pressure vessel is 1200 mm in diameter. It is made of rolled mild steel plate. The vessel is subjected to an internal pressure of 2 N/mm2. If the material yields at 200 N/mm2, what should be the minimum safe thickness of the plate, based on Maximum Principle Stress Theory?
A.18 mm
B.15 mm
C.12 mm
D.9 mm
Q 143 :
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A.Tricalcium silicate
B.Dicalcium silicate
C. Tricalcium aluminate
D. Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Q 144 :
A simply subjected beam of length 4 m is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 2 kN/m. What is the maximum shear stress is the cross-section is rectangular, 100 mm wide and 200 mm deep?
A.0.2 N/mm2
B.0.1 N/mm2
C.0.4 N/mm2
D.0.3 N/mm2
Q 145 :
A mild steel structural section is an unsymmetrical I-section, with the greater width at the top and the smaller width at the bottom. The overall depth of the beam is 300 mm, and the flange stresses at the top and the bottom of the beam are 150 N/mm2and 50 N/mm2 respectively. What is the height of the neutral axis of the beam from its bottom?
A.125 mm
B.100 mm
C.75 mm
D.50 mm
Q 146 :
The surveying used to determine additional details such as boundaries of fields, is called
A.City surveying
B.Location surveying
C.Cadastral surveying
D.Topographical surveying
Q 147 :
A circular shaft of diameter ‘D’ is made of a material for which the Young’s modulus of elasticity is ‘E’ and Poisson’s ratio is ‘v’. the ratio of flexural rigidity to torsional rigidity for the shaft is
A.4(1+v)
B.1.5(1-2v)
C.(1+v)
D.0.25(1+v)
Q 148 :
A closely coiled helical spring of round steel wire 5mm in diameter having 12 complete coils of 50 mm mean diameter is subjected to an axial load of 100 N. Modulus of rigidity of the spring is 80kn/mm2. What is the deflection of the spring?
A.12 mm
B.24 mm
C.36 mm
D.48 mm
Q 149 :
What is the shear stress at the neutral axis in a beam of isosceles triangular section with a base of 40 mm and height 20 mm subjected to a shear force of 2 kN?
A.3 MPa
B.6MPa
C.10MPa
D.20MPa
Q 150 :
A beam of square cross-section is placed such that its neutral axis coincides with its diagonal, and it is subjected to a shear force F. What is the ratio of the maximum shear stress to the shear stress at the neutral axis?
A.9
8
B.8
9
C.7
8
D.8
7
Q 151 :
The intensity of u.d.l. which , when it acts over the entire span of 1 m of a cantilever beam of rectangular cross-section of width 100 mm and depth 200 mm, would produce a maximum shear stress of 1.5N/mm2, is
A.20 kN/m
B.30kN/m
C.26.6 kN/m
D.36.6 kN/m
Q 152 :
In a simply supported beam AB with a concentrated load W at a distance 'a' from support A and 'b' from support B, the deflection under the load is
A.wa^2 b^2 / 3EIL
B.wa^2 / 3EI
C.wa^2 b^2 /3EI
D.wa^2 b + 2/EIL
Q 153 :
Two closely coiled helical springs A and B are equal in all respects but for the number of turns, with A having just half the number of turns of that of B. What is the ratio of deflections in terms of spring A to spring B?
A.1/8
B.1/4
C.1/2
D.2/1
Q 154 :
A rigid prop provided for a beam
A.brings the bending for a beam
B.brings the deflection at the prop to zero
C.brings the slopes at the section to zero
D.brings the shear force at the section to zero
Q 155 :
What is the diameter d of a solid circular shaft when subjected to a Torque T with a corresponding maximum shear stress of magnitude fS?
Q 156 :
A metal shaft of solid circular section rotates at 160 rpm and is subjected to a torque of 1500 Nm. What is the power, in kW, transmitted by the shaft?
Q 157 :
The limits of percentage of the longitudinal reinforcement in a column is given by
A.0.15% to 2%
B.0.8% to 4%
C.0.8% to 6%
D.0.8% to 8%
Q 158 :
In the beam shown in the figure, if the displacement at C due to load W at B is 5mm, the displacement at B due to a load of 0.2 W at C will be
A.1 mm
B.2 mm
C.5 mm
D.25 mm
Q 159 :
Two simply supported beams are made up of the same material and are of the same cross-section. Both beams carry uniformly distributed loads of equal intensities. One beam is 2 m long and other is 4 m long. The 2
m long beam shows a central deflection of 1 mm. What is the central deflection of the 4 m long beam?
A.16 mm
B.2 mm
C.8 mm
D.1 mm
Q 160 :
A simply supported beam is subjected to a couple at a section within its span. It will produce
1.SF diagram of zero magnitude
2.Uniformly varying triangular diagram
3.Sudden change in sign of BM at the point of application of the couple.
4.Equal and supports opposite reactions at
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 4
D.1 and 4
Q 161 :
If the deflection at the free hand of a uniformly loaded cantilever beam is 15 mm and the slope of the deflection curve at the free end is 0.02 radian, then the length of the beam is
A.0.8 m
B.1.0 m
C.1.2 m
D.1.5 m
Q 162 :
A beam of overall length l, with equal overhangs on both sides, carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. To have numerically equal bending moments at the center of the beam and at its supports, the distance between the supports should be
A.0.277 l
B.0.403 l
C.0.586 l
D.0.707 l
Q 163 :
The value of the ordinates, at the quarter span of the influence line diagram for the midspan bending moment of a simply supported beam, is 0.5 m. If the span of the beam is doubled, what will be the ordinates at the midspan of the influence line ?
A.2.0 m
B.1.0 m
C.0.5 m
D.None of the above
Q 164 :
In considering Plastic Analysis which of the following is a valid comprehensive statement?
A.Shape factor is the ratio of Plastic section modulus to the Elastic section modulus
B.Shape factor is the ratio of Elastic section modulus to the Plastic section modulus
C.Shape factor is the ratio of Plastic section modulus to the Elastic section modulus and its value is always greater than 1.0
D.Shape factor is the ratio of Elastic section modulus to the Plastic section modulus and its value is always less than 1.0
Q 165 :
The cat and the dog have a ……. enemy in the rat .
A.same
B.common
C.mutual
D.similar
Q 166 :
A solid shaft transmits 150 kW at a shear stress of 70 MPa running at a frequency of 3 Hz. What will be the shear stress when the frequency is 1.5 Hz?
A.35 MPa
B.50MPa
C.57MPa
D.140MPa
Q 167 :
Which one of the following Mohr’s circles represents the state of pure shear?
Q 168 :
Consider the following statements:The design depth of the footing for an isolated column is governed by
1.Maximum bending moment
2.Maximum shear force
3.Punching shear
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 3
D.2 and 3 only
Q 169 :
Spalling stresses are produced in post-tensioned pre-stresses concrete members at
A.Locations of maximum bending moment only
B.Locations of maximum shear zone
C.Anchorage zone
D.Bond-developing zone
Q 170 :
In a pre-stresses member, it is advisable to use
A.Low-strength concrete
B.High-strength concrete
C.High-strength concrete and high-tension steel
D.High-strength concrete and low-tension steel
Q 171 :
If aggregate size of 50-40 mm is to be tested for determining the proportion of elongated aggregates, the slot length of the gauge should be
A.45 mm
B.53 mm
C.81 mm
D.90 mm
Q 172 :
If the Poisson’s ratio for a material is 0.5, then the elastic modulus for the material is
A.Three times its shear modulus
B.Four times its shear modulus
C.Equal to its shear modulus
D.Not determinable
Q 173 :
A metal bar of 10mm diameter when subjected to a pull of 23.5 kN gave as elongation of 0.3 mm on a gauge length of 200 mm. The Young’s modulus of elasticity of the metal will nearly be
A.200 kN/mm2
B.300kN/mm2
C.360kN/mm2
D.400kN/mm2
Q 174 :
In a two hinged parabolic arch
A.An increase in temperature will decrease the horizontal thrust
B.An increase in temperature will increase the bending moment
C.An increase in temperature will increase the horizontal thrust
D.If the UDL is placed over the entire span of arch, it will give zero bending anywhere on the span
Q 175 :
At what depth and rate is a hypabyssal rock formed ?
A.Slow cooling of magma at considerable depth
B.Quick cooling of magma at a shallow depth
C.Rapid cooling of magma at Earth’s surface
D.Rapid cooling of magma at a shallow depth
Q 176 :
Consider the following statements:If the plane at right angles carry only shear stress of magnitude q in a certain instance, then the
1.Diameter of Mohr’s circle would be equal to 2q
2.Centre of Mohr’s circle would lie at the origin
3.Principle stresses are unlike and are of magnitude q each
4.Angle between the principle plane and the plane of maximum shear would be 45°
Which of the above statements are correct?
th of 
th of a number and 
of 
th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
is subtracted from 
and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?