In anemophylous plants, pollen are disseminated by means of_______
A
Insects
B
Water
C
Wind
D
Gravity
Question 2Single Answer
Production of seeds without fertilization is termed as______
A
Parthenocarpy
B
Parthenogenesis
C
Gametogenesis
D
All of the above
Question 3Single Answer
Removal of off type plants from a seed field is termed as_________
A
Weeding
B
Rouging
C
Hoeing
D
Clearing
Question 4Single Answer
Hormones which control apical dominance are______
A
Auxins
B
Cytokinins
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
Gibberellins
Question 5Single Answer
Turmeric is propagated by _____
A
Corms
B
Seed
C
Rhizome
D
Bulbs
Question 6Single Answer
Maturation of anthers and stigma at the same time is called as_______
A
Homogamy
B
Chasmogamy
C
Cleistogamy
D
Dichogamy
Question 7Single Answer
The cause of pungency in chillies is______
A
Cucurbitacin
B
Capsaicin
C
Allicin
D
Solanin
Question 8Single Answer
Regular consumption of garlic will reduce the level of_____
in human beings.
A
Cholesterol
B
Sugar
C
Uric acid
D
None of above
Question 9Single Answer
Which of the flower type cannot produce seed and/or
fruit ?
A
Pistillate
B
Perfect
C
Hermaphrodite
D
Staminate
Question 10Single Answer
Truck gardening means vegetable production for________
A
Home consumption
B
Distant markets
C
For local market
D
At commercial level
Question 11Single Answer
The true fruits develop from_______
A
Ovary
B
Thalamus
C
Pericarp
D
All of above
Question 12Single Answer
Fertigation refers to the application of fertilizers with_________
A
Water
B
Rain
C
Both of (a) and (b)
D
None of (a) and (b)
Question 13Single Answer
Early blight and late blight diseases of potato are
A
Fungal
B
Viral
C
Bacterial
D
Physiological
Question 14Single Answer
Auxins have effective role in_____
A
Rooting
B
Cell division
C
Reduction in pre-harvest fruit drop
D
All of above
Question 15Single Answer
______is monocot dioecious fruit tree.
A
Banana
B
Pomegranate
C
Date palm
D
Pineapple
Question 16Single Answer
Both mango and pistachio belong to one family __
A
Anacardiaceae
B
Mangiferae
C
Sapotaceae
D
None of above
Question 17Single Answer
Guava is a rich source of_______
A
Vitamin C
B
Pectin
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Vitamin A and Vitamin B
Question 18Single Answer
Bearing habit of mango is_______
A
Terminal
B
Lateral
C
Axillary
D
Basal
Question 19Single Answer
Edible part of pomegranate is
A
Seed
B
Vesicles
C
Mesocarp
D
Arils
Question 20Single Answer
Apples and pears are classified as_______
A
Drupe
B
Pome
C
Berry
D
Hesperidium
Question 21Single Answer
Mushroom seed is called________
A
Button
B
Seed
C
Spawn
D
None of above
Question 22Single Answer
Jamun has medicinal value against______
A
Diabetes
B
Cancer
C
Blindness
D
All of above
Question 23Single Answer
Physiological activity in which plants tissue degenerate
and ultimately die is called as_______
A
Senescence
B
Juvenility
C
Climacteric
D
Degeneration
Question 24Single Answer
Plant response to the relative length of daylight or
darkness is known as_______
A
Long day
B
Short day
C
Geotropism
D
Phototropism
Question 25Single Answer
Spongy tissue in mango is due to_______
A
Fungus
B
Virus
C
Bacteria
D
Physiological disorder
Question 26Single Answer
The PH of normal, fresh cow milk usually varies in the range of
A
6.8-7.0
B
6.4-6.6
C
6.2-6.4
D
6.0-6.2
Question 27Single Answer
The specific gravity of milk fat is
A
0.93
B
0.09
C
1.00
D
0.97
Question 28Single Answer
The specific gravity of milk protein is
A
1.346
B
0.93
C
4.12
D
1.666.
Question 29Single Answer
The maximum lactose content of cow milk is
A
5.0%
B
3.4%
C
4.6%
D
2.7%
Question 30Single Answer
Milk is deficient in
A
Iron
B
Copper
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Calcium
Question 31Single Answer
Milk is an
A
Oil in water type emulsion
B
Water in oil type emulsion
C
Oil in protein emulsion
D
Oil in carbohydrate emulsion
Question 32Single Answer
Milk spoilage results in
A
Increase in PH
B
Decrease in PH
C
PH remain constant
D
All the above
Question 33Single Answer
The amount of energy obtained from fat, protein and sugar is respectively
A
(9.3, 4.1, 4.1) cal/g
B
(4.1, 9.3, 4.1) cal/g
C
(4.1, 4.1, 9.3) cal/g
D
(4.1, 7.3, 4.1) cal/g
Question 34Single Answer
The fat percentage of whale milk is
A
19.6
B
17.1
C
4.6
D
45.8
Question 35Single Answer
Carotene acts as
A
An antioxidant
B
A precursor of vitamin A
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
An oxidizing agent
Question 36Single Answer
Which acid content increases as the lactation progresses?
A
Oleic acid
B
Lactic acid
C
Acetic acid
D
All the above
Question 37Single Answer
Lactose breakdown gives to the formation of
A
Glucose and galactose
B
Fructose and glucose
C
Glucose and maltose
D
Fructose and galactose
Question 38Single Answer
Which of the following pigments is water-soluble?
A
Carotene
B
Riboflavin
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Annatto
Question 39Single Answer
In Milk, each fat globule is surrounded by a thin layer of
A
Protein
B
Phospholipids
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Carbohydrates
Question 40Single Answer
The nature of freshly drawn milk is
A
Acidic
B
Basic
C
Amphoteric
D
Neutral
Question 41Single Answer
Buffer value for the cow and buffalo milk are
A
0.0259 and 0.0317 respectively
B
0.0159 and 0.0217 respectively
C
0.0059 and 0.0017 respectively
D
0.0359 and 0.0417 respectively
Question 42Single Answer
Viscosity for the cow and buffalo milk are
A
0.86 and 1.04 respectively
B
2.86 and 3.04 respectively
C
1.86 and 2.04 respectively
D
3.86 and 4.50 respectively
Question 43Single Answer
The process of reducing fat droplet size in milk to prevent cream separation is known
A
Pasteurization
B
Crystallization
C
Interesterification
D
Homogenization
Question 44Single Answer
In efficiently homogenized milk, the fat globules are subdivided to less than or equal to
A
4 micron
B
0.5 micron
C
1 micron
D
2 micron
Question 45Single Answer
Fat globules clusters, agglomerates which contribute to the faster fat separation is prevented in the range of
A
0.2-1 μm diameters
B
0.2-0.7 μm diameters
C
1-2 μm diameters
D
0.5-0.2 μm diameters
Question 46Single Answer
A particle size reduction can only be possible if viscosity ratio of the fat to the water is
A
Less than 1
B
Less than 2
C
Less than 3
D
Less than 4
Question 47Single Answer
Cavitation occurs when the kinetic energy
A
Increases during flow through the slit
B
Decreases during flow through the slit
C
Is constant during flow through the slit
D
None of these
Question 48Single Answer
Single stage homogenization
A
Increases viscosity considerably
B
Decreases viscosity considerably
C
Does not affect viscosity
D
Decreases viscosity with respect to time
Question 49Single Answer
Homogenization increases the whitening power of milk because of
A
Larger surface area of the fat
B
Lesser surface area of the fat
C
Higher degree of clustering
D
Both (b) and (c)
Question 50Single Answer
In the process of homogenization
A
Mechanical energy is converted into heat
B
Kinetic energy is converted into heat
C
Potential energy is converted into heat
D
None of these
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Agriculture
Question 51Single Answer
What is the difference between stock and supply
A
Stock is a flow concept whereas supply is no
B
Supply is a flow concept and stock is not a flow.com
C
Both supply and stock are flow concepts
D
None of the above
Question 52Single Answer
What is the shape of supply curve
A
Convex to x axis or upward sloping
B
Downward sloping
C
Concave
D
Can be any of the
Question 53Single Answer
What is the relation between individual and market supply curve
A
Market supply curve is the horizontal summation of individual supply curve
B
Market demand curve is the vertical summation of individual supply curve
C
Individual supply curve is the horizontal summation of market demand curve
D
Individual supply curve is the vertical summation of market demand curve
Question 54Single Answer
Contraction and extension of supply means
A
Increase in supply due to increased price and decrease in supply due
decreased price
B
Decrease in supply due to increased price increase in supply due to decreased
price
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 55Single Answer
More supply at same price and same supply at lower price means
A
Increased supply
B
Decreased supply
C
Constant supply
D
None of the above
Question 56Single Answer
Decrease in supply means
A
Less supply at same price and same supply at higher price
B
Higher supply at same price and same supply at decreased price
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 57Single Answer
Elasticity of supply is given by
A
% A quantity supplied / %A in demand
B
% A quantity demanded / % A in supply
C
% 4 in supply / % 4 in price
D
None of the above
Question 58Single Answer
Pick the incorrect one out in terms of (es= elasticity of supply)
A) Perfectly inelastic - es = 0
B) Perfectly elastic - es = 0
C) Inelastic - es <1
D) Elastic - es = 1
E) Unitary elastic - es = 1
A
Only A
B
Only B
C
Only C
D
None of the above
Question 59Single Answer
Market is in equilibrium when
A
Quantity demanded = quantity supplied
B
Quantity demanded > quantity supplied
C
Quantity demanded < quantity supplied
D
All of the above
Question 60Single Answer
Which one of the following is not correctly matched
A
Surplus when quantity supplied > quantity demanded
B
Deficit when quantity supplied < quantity demanded
C
Elastic supply curve has elasticity > 1
D
None of the above
Question 61Single Answer
Supply curve shift towards right side if
A
Prices are expected to increase in future
B
Prices are expected to decrease in future
C
Prices of relative products decrease
D
All of the above
Question 62Single Answer
Reduction in input prices leads to
A
Increase in supply
B
Decrease in supply
C
Constant supply
D
Can be any of the above
Question 63Single Answer
Shift in supply curve can also be written as
A
Increase or decrease in supply
B
Extension or contraction of supply
C
Increase or decrease in supply due to factors other
D
Both a and c
Question 64Single Answer
Cardinal utility analysis was given by
A
Alfred Marshall
B
Adam Smith
C
Lionel Robbins
D
None of the above
Question 65Single Answer
Cardinal utility analysis comprises of
A
Law of diminishing marginal utility or law of life
B
Law of equi marginal utility
C
Indifference curve approach
D
Both a and b
Question 66Single Answer
Law of life states
A
Marginal utility of a product decreases when the consumer has more and more of it
B
Each successive unit of a commodity brings in lesser and lesser utility
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 67Single Answer
Which among the following are the assumptions of law of life
A
Cardinal measurability of utility meaning utility can be quantified an
Introspective method
B
Utilities are independent and marginal utility of money is constant
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 68Single Answer
Total utility is
A
Sum of marginal utilities
B
Maximum when marginal utility is zero
C
Summation of satisfaction gained from consuming various units
D
All of the above
Question 69Single Answer
Marginal utility and price is
A
Directly related
B
Inversely related
C
Unrelated
D
Both a and b
Question 70Single Answer
Area under marginal utility curve represents
A
Total utility
B
Total disutility
C
Average utility
D
None of the above
Question 71Single Answer
Condition for equilibrium under diminishing marginal utility
A
Total utility maximum and marginal utility is zero
B
Total utility zero and marginal utility maximum
C
Both total and marginal utility is maximum
D
Both total and marginal utility zero
Question 72Single Answer
Law of equi marginal utility is also called as
A
Principle of proportion and law of maximum satisfaction
B
Law of opportunity cost and law of substitution and Gossen's second law
C
Both a and b
D
None of the above
Question 73Single Answer
Which among the following is not correctly matched
A) Limited resource -law of equi marginal utility
B) Unlimited or given resource -law of diminishing marginal utility
C) Utility - measured in terms of degrees
D) Utility -measured in terms of utils
A
Both A and C
B
Both B and D
C
Only C
D
Only D
Question 74Single Answer
Equilibrium under many commodities and same price for law of equi marginal utility is given by
A
Marginal utility of last unit consumed is nearly equal to first
B
Marginal utility of last unit consumed is exactly equal to first
C
Marginal utility of last unit consumed is greater than first
D
None of the above
Question 75Single Answer
Equilibrium under two or more than two commodities under law of substitution is given by
A
MUx/Px= MUY/PY
B
MUX/Py= MUY/Px
C
MUX/Px= MUY.Py
D
MUX.Px= MUY/Py
Question 76Single Answer
According to UPOV Act 1978, the period of protection for field crops is:
A
10 Years
B
12 Years
C
15 Years
D
18 Years
Question 77Single Answer
Plant variety Protection Act was initially signed into law in the country
A
Russia
B
USA
C
Japan
D
Canada
Question 78Single Answer
The genetic purity of seed is examined by:
A
Viability test
B
Seed health test
C
Grow out test
D
Moisture test
Question 79Single Answer
Cuscuta is an objectionable weed in:
A
Lettuce
B
Cucurbits
C
Lucerne
D
Mustard
Question 80Single Answer
In sunflower, production of foundation seed requires an isolation distance of:
A
200 metres
B
100 metres
C
400 metres
D
800 metres
Question 81Single Answer
Froduction of breeder seed in cotton requires an isolation distance of:
A
20 metres
B
30 metres
C
50 metres
D
75 metres
Question 82Single Answer
Certification is not required for:
A
Breeder seed
B
Foundation seed
C
Certified seed
D
All of these
Question 83Single Answer
Which of the following are water soluble proteins ?
A
Albumins
B
Globulins
C
Prolamins
D
Glutenins
Question 84Single Answer
PPB is known as:
A
Collaborative Plant Breeding (CPB)
B
Farmers Participatory Breeding (FPB)
C
Participatory Crop Improvement
D
All of these
Question 85Single Answer
Which of the following species of Brassicn is tetraploid?
A
B. nigra
B
B. oleracea
C
B. juncea
D
B. campestris
Question 86Single Answer
Quasidiploid is represented as:
A
2n-1-1
B
2n+1+1
C
2n 1
D
2n+2+2
Question 87Single Answer
Monoploids are represented by:
A
X
B
2x
C
n
D
2n A
Question 88Single Answer
A mutation which kills more than 50% of the individuals which carry the mutation is called
A
Lethal
B
Sub- Lethal
C
Sub- vital
D
Vital
Question 89Single Answer
Which of the following mutagens is neutral ?
A
Alpha particles
B
Beta particles
C
Fast & thermal neutrons
D
All of these
Question 90Single Answer
The term mutation was coined by:
A
Morgan
B
De Vries
C
Muller
D
Stadler
Question 91Single Answer
An inbred-variety cross is known as:
A
Three way cross
B
Double cross
C
Top cross
D
Polycross
Question 92Single Answer
Which of the following types of epistasis contributes to heterosis?
A
Additive x additive
B
Additive x dominance
C
Dominance x dominance
D
All of these
Question 93Single Answer
Recurrent selection for GCA is used when a character is governed by:
A
Additive genes
B
Non additive genes
C
(A) and (B) both
D
Cytoplasmic genes
Question 94Single Answer
Undesirable linkage can be broken by:
A
Pedigree method
B
Bulk method
C
Backcross method
D
All of these
Question 95Single Answer
Backcross method is useful for transfer of:
A
Oligogenic characters
B
Disease resistance
C
Male sterility
D
All of these
Question 96Single Answer
Clonal selection is practiced in
A
Sugarcane
B
Potato
C
Sweet potato
D
All of these
Question 97Single Answer
Gardner suggested the grid method of mass selection in
A
1942
B
1952
C
1962
D
1972
Question 98Single Answer
Mass selected varieties have
A
Broad genetic base
B
Wide adaptation
C
Heritable variation
D
All of these
Question 99Single Answer
Pure lines are
A
Homozygous
B
Homogeneous
C
Highly uniform
D
All of these
Question 100Single Answer
The concept of pure line theory was developed with
A
Maize
B
Common bean
C
Garden pea
D
Wheat
Question 101Single Answer
Adaptation of introduced variety to the new environment is called:
A
Domestication
B
Acclimatization
C
Nobilization
D
Introduction
Question 102Single Answer
Genetic assortative mating is useful in developing
A
Inbreds
B
Hybrids
C
Synthetic
D
Composites
Question 103Single Answer
CGMS system includes
A
A-line
B
B-line
C
R-line
D
All of these
Question 104Single Answer
Which of the following Crosses would be partianlly fertile in gametophytic SI:
A
S1 S2 x S1 S2
B
S1 S2 x S1 S3
C
S1 S2 x S3 S4
D
S1 S3 x S1 S3
Question 105Single Answer
Self incompatibility promotes:
A
Autogamy
B
Allogamy
C
Apogamy
D
Homogamy
Question 106Single Answer
The breeding value is measured in terms of:
A
Prepotency
B
Heritability
C
Combining ability
D
All of these
Question 107Single Answer
Cross pollination is associated with:
A
Cleistogamy
B
Chasmogamy
C
Dichogamy
D
All of these
Question 108Single Answer
Continued selfing of an Fl individual for five generations results in
A
90% homozygosity
B
98.4 % homozygosity
C
99.9 % homozygosity
D
87% homozygosity
Question 109Single Answer
Chromosome number of fenugreek is
A
12
B
14
C
16
D
18
Question 110Single Answer
Least serious factor causing deterioration of a crop variety is
A
Developmental variation
B
Mechanical mixtures
C
Mutation
D
Natural crossing
Question 111Single Answer
Argemone maxicana is an objectionable weed of
A
Groundnut
B
Pearl Millet
C
Cowpea
D
Mustard
Question 112Single Answer
In food grains for storage life of four years the available moisture in seeds should be
A
9-11%
B
8-10%
C
10-12%
D
11-13%
Question 113Single Answer
Most important use of apomixis is in
A
Fixing heterosis
B
Producing genetically pure seed
C
Producing larger sized seed
D
Producing large number of seeds
Question 114Single Answer
Malic hydrazide is effective gametocide for
A
Rice
B
Wheat
C
Maize
D
Cotton
Question 115Single Answer
In a triploid crop which bear seedless fruits are produced by crossing
A
Tetraploid seed parent with diploid pollinator
B
Diploid seed parent with tetraploid pollinator
C
Selfing a hexaploid
D
Both “B” and “C”
Question 116Single Answer
Chemical not used for determining seed coat damage in a lot is
A
Indoxyl acetate
B
Fast green stain
C
Ferric chloride
D
Congored stain D
Question 117Single Answer
Serious efforts to set up an agency like Central Seed Corporation were made during
A
First Five Year Plan
B
Second Five Year Plan
C
Third Five Year Plan
D
Fourth Five Year Plan
Question 118Single Answer
What is true about Methyl Bromide used for insect management during storage
A
It is colorless
B
It is heavier than air
C
It is hazardous to skin
D
None of the above
Question 119Single Answer
The Indian Society of Seed Technology was founded in the year
A
1968
B
1971
C
1975
D
1978
Question 120Single Answer
Between any two genes double crossover do not occur if they are separated by a maximum genetic distance of
A
1 CM
B
5 CM
C
10 CM
D
20 CM
Question 121Single Answer
In a cell, the stability of DNA double helix is achieved by
A
Hydrogen bonds between bases
B
Hydrophobic interactions
C
Van der Waal forces
D
All of the above
Question 122Single Answer
Which one of these is hexaploid
A
Triticum aestivum
B
Triticum durum
C
Triticum monococcum
D
Triticum tauschii
Question 123Single Answer
What is not true about clonally propagated crops
A
These are highly heterozygous
B
Majority of these are perennials
C
Seed set via sexual reproduction is usually low
D
These are largely self pollinated
Question 124Single Answer
Recommended size of submitted sample for Grow out Test in wheat is
A
100 g
B
250 g
C
500 g
D
1000 g
Question 125Single Answer
Convolvulus arvensis is an objectionable weed of
A
Wheat crop
B
Paddy crop
C
Lucerne crop
D
Pearl Millet crop
Question 126Single Answer
First Forest Policy in Independent India was enacted in
A
1952
B
1954
C
1955
D
1960
Question 127Single Answer
Kashmir state is placed in which schedule?
A
Schedule I
B
Schedule II
C
Schedule III
D
Schedule IV
Question 128Single Answer
Project elephant came into existence in the year
A
1990
B
1992
C
1994
D
1996
Question 129Single Answer
The Project Tiger was initiated in the year:
A
1971
B
1972
C
1973
D
1974
Question 130Single Answer
The Indian Board of Wildlife was constituted in the year:
A
1950
B
1952
C
1954
D
1956
Question 131Single Answer
In which amendment forest was included in Concurrent List?
A
40
B
41
C
42
D
43
Question 132Single Answer
Declaration of national park and wildlife sanctuary is under which act?
A
Indian Forest Act, 1927
B
Wildlife Protection Act, 1971
C
Forest Conservation Act, 1990
D
Environment Act, 2006
Question 133Single Answer
National Tiger conservation authority is defined under which chapter of Wildlife Protection Act?
A
IVA
B
IV B
C
IV C
D
IV D
Question 134Single Answer
Central zoo authority and recognition of zoos comes under which chapter of Wildlife Protection Act?
A
IV A
B
IV B
C
IV C
D
IV D
Question 135Single Answer
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 has:
A
7 Chapters and 6 Schedules
B
8 Chapters and 7 Schedules
C
5 Chapters and 8 Schedules
D
8 Chapters and 4 Schedules
Question 136Single Answer
Indian Forest Act 1927 is divided into:
A
13 Chapters and 86 Sections
B
10 Chapters and 86 Sections
C
13 Chapters and 66 Sections
D
10 Chapters and 66 Sections
Question 137Single Answer
How much percentage forest area is owned by government?
A
95%
B
90%
C
85%
D
80%
Question 138Single Answer
Environment Protection Act was passed by Parliament in the year:
A
1980
B
1986
C
1990
D
1992
Question 139Single Answer
Biological Diversity Act was passed by Parliament in the year:
A
2000
B
2001
C
2002
D
2003
Question 140Single Answer
Second independent Indian's National Forest Policy was issued in the year:
A
1980
B
1988
C
1990
D
1991
Question 141Single Answer
World Forest Day is celebrated on:
A
5th June
B
21 March
C
22nd March
D
1 March
Question 142Single Answer
World Environment Day is celebrated on
A
5th June
B
21" March
C
22nd March
D
15 March
Question 143Single Answer
The main plank of the revised forest policy of 1988 is/are:
A
Protection of Forests
B
Conservation of Forests
C
Development of Forests
D
All of the above
Question 144Single Answer
The first National Forest Policy was enunciated in the year:
A
1988
B
1952
C
1891
D
1894
Question 145Single Answer
Tarai' soils are deficient in ?
A
P
B
N
C
Zn
D
S
Question 146Single Answer
India passed the Forest Conservation Act in the year:
A
1980
B
1990
C
2000
D
2001
Question 147Single Answer
Majority of the forest under forest department in India are termed as:
A
Reserve forest
B
Minor forest
C
Protected forest
D
All of the above
Question 148Single Answer
National Forest Policy 1988, prescribed________ area under forest in hill regions.
A
33%
B
50%
C
60%
D
66%
Question 149Single Answer
Wildlife Protection Act 1972 is amended in the year:
A
2001
B
2003
C
2006
D
2009
E
2009
Question 150Single Answer
Trespass in reserved forest would be punished under:
A
IFA 26(1)
B
IFA 25(1)
C
IFA 40 A
D
NIFA 36(1)
Question 151Single Answer
Fat contain
A
3.9 Kcal. of energy per gm
B
9.3 Kcal. of energy per gm
C
9.3 Kcal. of energy per molecule
D
7.3 Kcal. of energy per gm
Question 152Single Answer
The proteins found only in animal body are
A
Glutelins
B
Albumins
C
Scleroproteins
D
All of the above
Question 153Single Answer
The sulphur containing amino acids are
A
Lysine
B
Alanine & valine
C
Arginine
D
Cysteine & methionine
Question 154Single Answer
Zwitter ion contain
A
+ve charge
B
-ve charge
C
Little or no net charge
D
More +ve charge and less -ve charge
Question 155Single Answer
The water soluble vitamins are
A
Vitamin A and D
B
Vitamin B - complex and Vitamin C
C
Vitamin E and K
D
All of the above
Question 156Single Answer
Gallic acid is chief components of
A
Condensed tannins
B
Hydrolysable tannins
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 157Single Answer
The flavonoids synthesized in plants are by
A
Mevaloni acid pathway
B
Malonic acid pathway
C
Shikmic acid pathway
D
Both (a) & (b)
Question 158Single Answer
The correct general formula of the carbohydrate is
A
Cn (H2O)n
B
C2n (H2,O)n
C
Cn (H2,O)2n
D
None of the above
Question 159Single Answer
Raffinose and gentianose are the example of
A
Disaccharides
B
Trisaccharides
C
Polysaccharides
D
Monosaccharides
Question 160Single Answer
If the optically active compound rotates the plane polarised light to right side, it is called as.........................and is denote by...............
A
Dextrorotary and is denoted by small italic letter d or + sigh
B
Levorotary and is denoted by small italic letter l or - sigh
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 161Single Answer
If the optically active compound rotates the plane polarised light to left side, it is called as................................and is denote by..................
A
Dextrorotary and is denoted by small italic letter d or + sigh
B
Levorotary and is denoted by small italic letter 1 or - sigh
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 162Single Answer
If the highest numbered asymmetric carbon atom of the sugar molecule contains -OH group on right-hand side in open chain structure, the sugar is known as
A
L-sugar
B
D-sugar
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 163Single Answer
If the highest numbered asymmetric carbon atom of the sugar molecule contains -OH group on left-hand side in open chain structure, the sugar is known as
A
L-sugar
B
D-sugar
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 164Single Answer
Starch, insulin and glycogen are the
A
Oligosaccharide
B
Storage polysaccharide
C
Structural polysaccharide
D
None of the above
Question 165Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a reducing sugar
A
Glucose
B
Ribose
C
Maltose
D
Sucrose
Question 166Single Answer
Term protein was first coined by
A
Berzelius in 1838
B
Bloor in 1943
C
W. Kuhne in 1929
D
None of the above
Question 167Single Answer
The size of protein is depends upon the
A
Nature of solubility
B
No. of amino acids taking part in the synthesis
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 168Single Answer
Which of the following is the smallest protein
A
Insulin
B
Globulin
C
Prolamins
D
None of the above
Question 169Single Answer
Plant proteins differ from animal proteins in shortage of
A
Nitrogen
B
Oxygen
C
Carbon
D
Sulphur
Question 170Single Answer
Ricin in castor & Leucosin in cereals are the water soluble ........ protein
A
Globulins
B
Albumins
C
Glutelins
D
Prolamins
Question 171Single Answer
Which of the following proteins are soluble in 80% alcohol (ethanol) and not soluble in water or salt solutions
A
Prolamins
B
Gliadin in wheat & Zein in maize
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 172Single Answer
Which of the following proteins are not soluble in water but soluble in salt solution
A
Tuberin & legumin
B
Globulins
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 173Single Answer
The protein leucosin is found in
A
Most of the cereals
B
Mustard
C
Spices
D
None of the above
Question 174Single Answer
Term lipid was coined by
A
Berzelius in 1838
B
Kuhne in 1929
C
German biochemist Bloor (1943)
D
None of the above
Question 175Single Answer
Lipoprotein is the important gradient of
A
Cell membrane
B
Mitochondria
C
Golgi bodies
D
None of the above
Question 176Single Answer
Fatty acids are
A
Saturated
B
Unsaturated
C
Either saturated or unsaturated
D
None of the above
Question 177Single Answer
Majority of the fatty acids are synthesized by...........except linoleic acid, linolenic acid & arachidonic acid
A
Plant cell
B
Human body cell
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 178Single Answer
Lauric acid found in laurel kennel oil having the.......... number of carbon atom in the their chemical formula
A
12
B
16
C
18
D
20
Question 179Single Answer
Number of carbon atoms in Palmitic acid are
A
12
B
16
C
18
D
20
Question 180Single Answer
Number of carbon atoms in stearic acid are
A
12
B
16
C
18
D
20
Question 181Single Answer
Number of carbon atom in arachidic acid are
A
12
B
16
C
18
D
20
Question 182Single Answer
Which of the following is the source of arachidic acid
A
Peanut oil
B
Cocoa & butter
C
Animal fat & palm oil
D
Laurel kenel oil
Question 183Single Answer
Which of the following is the source of stearic acid
A
Peanut oil
B
Cocoa & butter
C
Animal fat & palm oil
D
Laurel kenel oil
Question 184Single Answer
Which of the following is the source of palmitic acid
A
Peanut oil
B
Cocoa & butter
C
Animal fat & palm oil
D
Laurel kennel oil
Question 185Single Answer
Which of the following is the source of lauric acid
A
Peanut oil
B
Cocoa & butter
C
Animal fat & palm oil
D
Laurel kennel oil
Question 186Single Answer
Pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) is also known as
A
Warburg-Dickens pathway
B
Direct oxidation pathway
C
Hexose monophosphate shunt
D
All of the above
Question 187Single Answer
Glycolysis is a
A
Greek word
B
Latin word
C
German world
D
None of the above
Question 188Single Answer
Pyruvate is a
A
Triose sugar
B
Tetrose sugar
C
Pentose sugar
D
None of the above
Question 189Single Answer
In the mechanism of glycolysis, the formation of glucose-6-phosphate is also known as
A
Robinson's ester
B
Newberg's ester
C
Harden & Young's ester
D
None of the above
Question 190Single Answer
In the mechanism of glycolysis, the formation of fructose-6-phosphate is also known as
A
Robinson's ester
B
Newberg's ester
C
Harden & Young's ester
D
None of the above
Question 191Single Answer
In the mechanism of glycolysis, the formation of fructose 1, 6-bi-phosphate is also known as
A
Robinson's ester
B
Newberg's ester
C
Harden & Young's ester
D
None of the above
Question 192Single Answer
Which one is not a reducing sugar
A
Glucose
B
Fructose
C
Maltose
D
Sucrose
Question 193Single Answer
Which one is not an oligosaccharide
A
Insulin
B
Raffinose
C
Lactose
D
Sucrose
Question 194Single Answer
Which one is a polysaccharide
A
Raffinose
B
Lactose
C
Sucrose
D
Insulin
Question 195Single Answer
The aldose sugar (glucose) is optically active and
A
Dextrorotatory
B
Laevorotatory
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 196Single Answer
The ketose sugar (Fructose) is optically active and
A
Dextrorotatory
B
Laevorotatory
C
Both (a) & (b)
D
None of the above
Question 197Single Answer
Which one of the following is mucopolysaccharide
A
Chitin
B
Pectin
C
Lecithin
D
Cellulose
Question 198Single Answer
The enzyme cellulose synthase are found in which part of the cell
A
Nucleoplasm
B
Cytoplasm
C
Golgi body
D
Plasma membrane
Question 199Single Answer
In plants callose are found in
A
Sieve tubes of phloem
B
Parenchyma
C
Cambium ring
D
Xylem
Question 200Single Answer
Water (H2O) is oxide of hydrogen in which the two hydrogen atoms are jointed to oxygen atom by covalent bond forming an angle of