Question for UKPSC Assistant Prosecution Officer 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest UKPSC APO Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Studies, Law

Question Bank UKPSC Assistant Prosecution Officer Prelims Exam - English

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General Studies

Question 1Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 2Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 3Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 4Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 5Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 6Single Answer

What is Net National Product

A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy

Question 7Single Answer

National income is the

A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost

Question 8Single Answer

Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our

A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings

Question 9Single Answer

During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest

A
2^nd plan
B
3^rd plan
C
5^th plan
D
6^th plan

Question 10Single Answer

Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax

A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax

Question 11Single Answer

Which of the following estimates the National Income in India

A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation

Question 12Single Answer

India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in

A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978

Question 13Single Answer

11^th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year

A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012

Question 14Single Answer

Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11^th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct

A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points

Question 15Single Answer

Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council

A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister

Question 16Single Answer

Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather

A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages

Question 17Single Answer

Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India

A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee

Question 18Single Answer

In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles

A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000

Question 19Single Answer

Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct

A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4

Question 20Single Answer

When was first human development report of India issued

A
April 2001
B
March 2000
C
June 2002
D
April 2002

Question 21Single Answer

In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from

A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state

Question 22Single Answer

A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is

A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge

Question 23Single Answer

convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is

A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m

Question 24Single Answer

Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves

A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront

Question 25Single Answer

Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -

A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A

Question 26Single Answer

In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across

A
anywhere
B
emitter-collector
C
collector-base
D
base-emitter

Question 27Single Answer

Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules

A
2 and 4
B
1 only
C
3 and 4
D
4 only

Question 28Single Answer

Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.

A
S1,S2 and S4
B
S2 and S4
C
S4 only
D
S3 only

Question 29Single Answer

Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have

A
low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B
high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C
high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D
low permeability and low hysterisis loss

Question 30Single Answer

According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is

A
same in all the medium
B
lesser in rarer medium
C
lesser in denser medium
D
independent of the medium

Question 31Single Answer

10^-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is

A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11

Question 32Single Answer

In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is

A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A

Question 33Single Answer

The one which decreases with dilution is

A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance

Question 34Single Answer

Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25^oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25^oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25^oC is

A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm

Question 35Single Answer

A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with

A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose

Question 36Single Answer

In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl₂. This is

A
to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B
to minimise the snow fall
C
to minimise pollution
D
to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road

Question 37Single Answer

A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is

A
AB₂
B
A₂B
C
AB
D
AB₃

Question 38Single Answer

In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it

A
decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B
decreases electron density at meta position
C
increases electron density at meta position
D
increases electron density at ortho and para position

Question 39Single Answer

The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with

A
PCI₅
B
PCI₃
C
SOCl₂ in presence of pyridine
D
dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl₂

Question 40Single Answer

The carbon bond length in benzene is

A
in between C₂H₆ and C₂H₄
B
same as in C₂H₄
C
in between C₂H₆ and C₂H₂
D
in between C₂H₄ and C₂H₂

Question 41Single Answer

The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on

A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised

Question 42Single Answer

Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?

A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen

Question 43Single Answer

Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is

A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%

Question 44Single Answer

An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a

A
fresh-water mussel
B
tortoise
C
frog
D
jelly fish

Question 45Single Answer

Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?

A
Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B
Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C
shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D
Lion, whale, ostrich, bat

Question 46Single Answer

Compare the statement A and B.
Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy.
Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.

A
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A

Question 47Single Answer

What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.

A
B,C and D
B
A and D
C
B and D
D
A, B and C

Question 48Single Answer

Compare the statements A and B.
Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds.
Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.

A
Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B
Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C
Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D
Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B

Question 49Single Answer

Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects

A
Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B
Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C
Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D
Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition

Question 50Single Answer

Stoma opens, when

A
guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B
guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C
guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D
guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential

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General Studies

Question 51Single Answer

Consider the following with reference to the East India Association organised in London:
1. It was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
2. The organisation aimed to present correct information about India to the British public and voice Indian grievances.
3. The East India Association incorporated the National Indian Association before the Komagata Maru incident.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 52Single Answer

The aim of the Indian Association found by Surendranath Banerjee was to

A
Represent the views of the educated middle class and take united community action.
B
Give shape to and establish the Indian National Congress.
C
Advocate constitutional reforms through legislative action.
D
Organise seditious movements to dethrone the British empire.

Question 53Single Answer

The Unionist Party was a powerful political party during the period 1923–1947. Consider the following about this party:
1. The party represented the interests of land holders-Hindus, Muslims and also the Sikhs.
2. The party was particularly powerful in the Punjab region and it did not favour the creation of Pakistan as a separate state.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None

Question 54Single Answer

The Ilbert Bill controversy is said to be a high watermark in the history of Indian National Movement.
This is because it invoked issues of
1. Racial discrimination between Indian and Europeans.
2. Security lapse on the Indian borders, especially the North-West Frontier Province.
3. Suppression of Indian media houses and their nationalisation by the government.
Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only

Question 55Single Answer

The Vernacular Press Act in British India was concerned with

A
Promoting local language new for generating local employment
B
Providing for licensing and rep of newspapers published by indigenous tribes
C
Banning all vernacular la publications in India
D
None of the above

Question 56Single Answer

The Cripps mission was an attempt by the British government to

A
Extend communal representation in the Imperial legislature
B
Convince the Congress to join the Central legislature
C
Secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II
D
Conclude the Round Table Conferences Successfully

Question 57Single Answer

The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. India would be a dominion associated with the United Kingdom
2. An elected body charged with the task of making the constitution would be setup immediately after the World War Il is stopped.
Which of the above is/are correct?

A
I only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
None

Question 58Single Answer

The proposal of the Cripps mission was that
1. An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up and it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth
2. After the end of the World War I, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution
3. Any province not willing to join the Indian Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union
Which of the above is/are correct?

A
1 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3

Question 59Single Answer

Why Indian National Congress (INC) leaders were not satisfied with the Cripps Mission (1942) proposals?

A
Cripps Mission did not address the issue of separate electorates.
B
Cripps Mission did not deliberate any matter with the Indian leaders and proposed unilateral measures.
C
Leaders wanted full independence rather than a dominion status.
D
Cripps Mission agreed for post-war real transfer of power but maintained that the Viceroy and Secretary of State shall be appointed by the crown.

Question 60Single Answer

Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch 'Individual Satyagraha' due to dissatisfaction With

A
Government of India Act, 1935 which eroded autonomy of local bodies
B
Religious intolerance in the countryside
C
August offer made by the British during the course of the Second World War
D
State of untouchables in the country

Question 61Single Answer

When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?

A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950

Question 62Single Answer

Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 63Single Answer

The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:

A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Question 64Single Answer

The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:

A
1942
B
1945
C
1946
D
1947

Question 65Single Answer

The Constitution of India was adopted on:

A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948

Question 66Single Answer

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Constitution of:

A
USA
B
UK
C
Canada
D
Australia

Question 67Single Answer

The Indian Constitution was enforced on:

A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948

Question 68Single Answer

The concept of the 'Rule of Law' in the Indian Constitution is derived from:

A
USA
B
UK
C
Germany
D
Canada

Question 69Single Answer

The term 'Secular' was added to the Preamble by the:

A
42nd Amendment
B
44th Amendment
C
52nd Amendment
D
62nd Amendment

Question 70Single Answer

The 'Directive Principles of State Policy' in the Indian Constitution were inspired by:

A
The Constitution of Canada
B
The Constitution of Ireland
C
The Constitution of Australia
D
The Constitution of USA

Question 71Single Answer

Uttarakhand is also known as the “Devbhoomi” because of what reason?

A
Presence of many temples and pilgrimage sites
B
Industrial growth
C
High literacy rate
D
Military presence

Question 72Single Answer

Uttarakhand was formed as a separate state in which year?

A
1998
B
2000
C
2001
D
2002

Question 73Single Answer

Uttarakhand was carved out from which state?

A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Madhya Pradesh
D
Bihar

Question 74Single Answer

What is the capital of Uttarakhand?

A
Almora
B
Nainital
C
Haridwar
D
Dehradun

Question 75Single Answer

Which city is the judicial capital of Uttarakhand?

A
Haridwar
B
Nainital
C
Dehradun
D
Rishikesh

Question 76Single Answer

Uttarakhand is located in which region of India?

A
Western India
B
Eastern India
C
Southern India
D
Northern India

Question 77Single Answer

Which mountain range largely covers Uttarakhand?

A
Aravalli Range
B
Vindhya Range
C
Himalayas
D
Satpura Range

Question 78Single Answer

How many divisions does Uttarakhand have?

Question 79Single Answer

What are the main administrative divisions of Uttarakhand?

A
North and South
B
Terai and Doon
C
Hills and Plains
D
Kumaon and Garhwal

Question 80Single Answer

How many districts are there in Uttarakhand?

A
10
B
11
C
14
D
13

Question 81Single Answer

Which is the largest district of Uttarakhand by area?

A
Nainital
B
Pithoragarh
C
Chamoli
D
Almora

Question 82Single Answer

Which is the smallest district of Uttarakhand by area?

A
Champawat
B
Haridwar
C
Bageshwar
D
Rudraprayag

Question 83Single Answer

What is the official language of Uttarakhand?

A
Hindi
B
English
C
Sanskrit
D
Urdu

Question 84Single Answer

Which language has special status in Uttarakhand?

A
Bhojpuri
B
Nepali
C
Punjabi
D
Sanskrit

Question 85Single Answer

Uttarakhand shares international boundary with which country?

A
Nepal
B
China
C
Bhutan
D
Bangladesh

Question 86Single Answer

Uttarakhand also shares border with which country besides Nepal?

A
Pakistan
B
China
C
Myanmar
D
Afghanistan

Question 87Single Answer

Uttarakhand shares its largest border with which Indian state?

A
Punjab
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Haryana
D
Uttar Pradesh

Question 88Single Answer

Which river is considered most sacred in Uttarakhand?

A
Yamuna
B
Godavari
C
Ganga
D
Narmada

Question 89Single Answer

Which two main rivers originate in Uttarakhand?

A
Godavari and Krishna
B
Narmada and Tapi
C
Ganga and Yamuna
D
Brahmaputra and Teesta

Question 90Single Answer

Uttarakhand is known for which type of geography?

A
Mountainous terrain
B
Coastal plains
C
Desert
D
Island region

Question 91Single Answer

What is the name of the next phase of India’s semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?

A
Chip India 3.0
B
India Chip Mission
C
Semicon 2.0
D
Semiconductor Bharat

Question 92Single Answer

Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the ‘Oliy Darajali Do‘stlik Order’, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?

A
Kazakhstan
B
Kyrgyzstan
C
Uzbekistan
D
Tajikistan

Question 93Single Answer

Where was the 2026 SCO Leaders’ Summit held?

A
Tashkent
B
Bishkek
C
Dushanbe
D
Astana

Question 94Single Answer

India and Uzbekistan recently upgraded their bilateral relationship to which level?

A
Strategic Partnership
B
Economic Partnership
C
Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
D
Defence Partnership

Question 95Single Answer

Which two organisations signed an MoU to promote smart domestic PNG meters?

A
ONGC and IOCL
B
GAIL and NTPC
C
PNGRB and EESL
D
HPCL and BPCL

Question 96Single Answer

In which state was a National Centre of Excellence for Swimming established by the Sports Authority of India?

A
Kerala
B
Manipur
C
Assam
D
Odisha

Question 97Single Answer

What is the proposed special feature of Bihar’s new Mahila Vishwavidyalaya?

A
Only online education
B
All students and staff will be women
C
Only foreign students
D
It will focus only on engineering

Question 98Single Answer

How many PM Jan Dhan Yojana accounts had been opened as of 28 August 2026?

A
39.09 crore
B
59.09 crore
C
49.09 crore
D
69.09 crore

Question 99Single Answer

How much did India’s coconut product exports rise to in FY 2025–26?

A
₹4,349 crore
B
₹5,038 crore
C
₹7,038 crore
D
₹6,038 crore

Question 100Single Answer

Which company announced an investment of up to ₹18,268 crore in Jio Credit Limited?

A
Bank of America
B
Goldman Sachs
C
HSBC
D
Morgan Stanley

Law

Question 101Single Answer

The Draft of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was prepared by .

A
Lord Macaulay
B
Sir James F. Stephen
C
Huxley
D
Sir Henery Maine

Question 102Single Answer

Who drafted the Indian Evidence Act

A
Lord Denning
B
A.V. Dicey
C
Lord Macaulay
D
J. F. Stephen

Question 103Single Answer

Which of the following statements is correct in relation to Evidence Act ?

A
Sir Henry Maine prepared the draft Bill of the Act
B
Sir James Stephen prepared the draft Bill of the Act
C
The draft Bill of the Act was prepared by II Law
D
None of the above

Question 104Single Answer

The law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is

A
Substantive Law
B
Procedural Law
C
Substantive and Procedural Law
D
None of the above

Question 105Single Answer

Law of evidence is

A
A substantive law
B
an adjective law
C
Both (A) and (B)
D
Neither (A) nor (B)

Question 106Single Answer

Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to

A
Only civil proceedings
B
Only criminal proceedings
C
Civil and criminal Proceeding both
D
None of the above

Question 107Single Answer

Indian Evidence Act, applies to both Civil and Criminal Proceedings before a Court is the statement :

A
Not correct
B
Correct
C
Partly correct
D
None of the above

Question 108Single Answer

Law of Evidence :

A
Retrospective
B
Effect the fundamental right of person
C
Always have prospective effect
D
Not a procedural law

Question 109Single Answer

Point out the correct answer
Law of Evidence is

A
Lex Talionis
B
Lex Fori
C
Lex Loci
D
Lex Situ

Question 110Single Answer

The meaning of 'Lex Loci' is :

A
Law of the Land is Supreme
B
Law of Land
C
Local Laws
D
Law of England

Question 111Single Answer

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been divided into………Parts and ........... Chapters .

A
2, 10
B
3, 11
C
4, 12 3, 12
D
3, 12

Question 112Single Answer

How many Sections and Chapters are there in Indian Evidence Act ?

A
164 Sections and 10 Chapters
B
167 Sections and 10 Chapters
C
167 Sections and 11 Chapters
D
167 Sections and 9 Chapters

Question 113Single Answer

As per preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this Act is

A
to provide, define and amend the law of evidence
B
to provide, consolidate the law of evidence
C
to define and amend the law of evidence
D
to consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence

Question 114Single Answer

Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was enacted on the of

A
6th October, 1860
B
1st March, 1874
C
15th March, 1872
D
1st September, 1872

Question 115Single Answer

Which one of of the following dates enforcement of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is correct ?

A
15th March, 1872
B
1st September, 1872
C
1st July, 1872
D
1st February, 1872

Question 116Single Answer

Indian evidence act was enforced

A
1 Sep. 1862
B
1 Oct. 1872
C
1 July 1872
D
None of the above

Question 117Single Answer

The Indian Evidence Act applies to -

A
proceedings before tribunals
B
affidavits presented to any court or
C
proceedings before an arbitrator
D
None of the above

Question 118Single Answer

The affidavit given to the Court is

A
not an evidence
B
an evidence
C
merely a written statement
D
a proof

Question 119Single Answer

Indian Evidence Act 1872 does not apply to

A
Affidavits produced before the court
B
proceedings before the arbitrator
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
On Judicial proceedings before the courtv

Question 120Single Answer

The Indian Evidence Act applies to

A
Affidavits
B
Judicial proceedings
C
Arbitration proceedings
D
All of these

Question 121Single Answer

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to

A
administrative tribunal's proceedings
B
arbitrator's proceedings
C
contempt's proceedins
D
none of the above

Question 122Single Answer

Which evidence is not admissible ?

A
Evidence on affidavit
B
Oral evidence
C
Documentary evidence
D
Expert evidence

Question 123Single Answer

To which of the following does the Evidence Act apply ?

A
Non-judicial proceedingsf
B
Affidavits
C
Judicial proceedings
D
Arbitration proceedings

Question 124Single Answer

The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to :-

A
All judicial proceedings in or before any Court
B
affidavits presented to any Court or officer
C
proceedings before an Arbitrator
D
All the above

Question 125Single Answer

The Indian Evidence Act :

A
applies to proceedings before an arbitrator
B
does not apply to proceedings before an arbitrator
C
does not apply to appeals
D
is basically a substantive law

Question 126Single Answer

1. Which of the following is correct answer ?
i. Provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir
ii. All provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Nagaland
Choose the correct answer

A
Only (i) is correct
B
Only (ii) is correct
C
Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
D
Both (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 127Single Answer

Which among the following chapters of the Cr.P.C., 1973 does not apply to the State of Nagaland and the tribal areas ?

A
Chapter VIII
B
Chapter IX
C
Chapter X
D
Chapter XI

Question 128Single Answer

The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following -

A
State of Tripura
B
State of Assam
C
State of Meghalya
D
State of Nagaland

Question 129Single Answer

Reason for non-applicability of some of the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code to the State of Nagaland have been stated by the Supreme Court in -

A
State of Nagaland v. Ratan Singh
B
Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura v. Province of Assam
C
Zarzoliana v. Government of Mizoram
D
State of Nagaland v. Chung

Question 130Single Answer

What is the meaning of 'tribal areas' for the purpose of Section 1 of the Criminal Procedure Code ?

A
Municipal area of Shilong
B
Municipal area of Mizoram
C
Assam as prescribed in Para 20 of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
D
Arunachal Pradesh as prescribed by the Constitution

Question 131Single Answer

Assertion (A) : Subject to some exceptions the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure are not applicable to tribal areas in undivided Assam.
Reason (R) : These areas enjoy special status like the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Code

A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true

Question 132Single Answer

When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 came into force ?

A
On April 1, 1973
B
On April 1, 1974
C
On January 1, 1974
D
On March 1, 1974

Question 133Single Answer

When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 received the assent of the President of India ?

A
25-12-1973
B
25-01-1974
C
25-02-1974
D
25-05-1974

Question 134Single Answer

The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2005 (No. 25 of 2005) received the assent of the President on :

A
21^st July, 2005
B
23^rd June, 2005
C
22^nd August, 2005
D
20^th September, 2005

Question 135Single Answer

Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, came into effect on

A
6^th April, 2013
B
3^rd February, 2013
C
7^th January, 2013
D
5^th March, 2013

Question 136Single Answer

Consider the following statements -
1. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
2. The provisions relating to Chapters VIII, X, XI under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 shall not apply to the State of Nagaland and to the Tribal Areas
3. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 shall came into force on 25^th January, 1974
4. Chapter II of Cr.P.C. deals with Constitution of Criminal Courts and Offices
Which of the statements given below is correct ?

A
(1), (2), (3) and (4)
B
(2), (3) and (4)
C
(2) and (3) only
D
(1) and (4) only

Question 137Single Answer

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

A
Police report : Section 2(r)
B
Cognizable offence : Section 2(c)
C
Bailable offence : Section 2(b)
D
Investigation : Section 2(h)

Question 138Single Answer

'Bailable offence' means and offence which is shown as bailable in

A
the First Schedule of Cr.P.C
B
the Second Schedule of Cr.P.C
C
Section 425 Cr.P.C
D
Section 426 Cr.P.C.

Question 139Single Answer

What offence is bailable ?

A
Mentioned as bailable offence in I Schedule of Cr.P.C
B
All cases of summon's trial
C
All non-cognizable offences
D
All cases which are not triable by session

Question 140Single Answer

Non-bailable offence means -

A
Only those offence which are shown non bailable in the first schedule
B
All those offence which are not shown as bailable under first schedule or any other laws for the time being inforce
C
Such kind of offence for which police may arrest any person without warrant
D
Such kind of offence for which police cannot arrest any person without warrant

Question 141Single Answer

Who can frame the 'charge' according to the Criminal Procedure Code ?

A
Court
B
Public Prosecutor
C
Office-in-charge of the concerned police station
D
All of the above

Question 142Single Answer

A precise formulation of a specific accusation is called

A
Bailable offence
B
Cognizable offence
C
Charge
D
Non-compoundable offence

Question 143Single Answer

Under which Section of Cr.P.C. cognizable offence has been defined ?

A
Section 2(a)
B
Section 2(c)
C
Section 2(i)
D
Section 2(1)

Question 144Single Answer

Section 2(c) of the code of Criminal Procedure defines -

A
Bailable offence
B
Non- Bailable offence
C
Cognizable offence
D
Non-cognizable offence

Question 145Single Answer

In a cognizable offence a police officer :

A
Cannot arrest an accused without warrant
B
May arrest an accused without warrant
C
Can keep the accused in police custody without a remand order
D
Is not required to produce the accused before a Magistrate

Question 146Single Answer

Cognizable offence means an offence

A
For which a police officer may arrest without warrant
B
For which a police officer may arrest if warrant of arrest is issued
C
For which a police officer above the rank of Sub-Inspector may arrest
D
None of the above

Question 147Single Answer

In a cognizable case the police will have powers to :

A
investigate except the power to arrest without warrant
B
investigate and power to arrest without warrant only after seeking permission from the Magistrate
C
investigate including the power the arrest without warrant
D
investigate and arrest without warrant, only afer informing the Magistrate having jurisdiction to inquire into or try the offence

Question 148Single Answer

In a cognizable case, the police has authority

A
to arrest without warrant
B
to investigate the offence without the permission of the magistrate
C
Both (A) and (B)
D
either (A) or (B)

Question 149Single Answer

Point out the incorrect statement -

A
In cognizable offence any police officer may without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant arrest any person
B
A private person may arrest or cause to be arrested any person committing a cognizable offence
C
An Executive Magistrate may arrest the offender when any offence is committed in his presence and within his jurisdiction
D
None of the above is correct

Question 150Single Answer

Section 2(d) of Cr. P.C., 1973 defines

A
Charge
B
Cognizable offence
C
Complaint
D
Inquiry

Question 151Single Answer

What is the official name of the legislation that replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

A
Bharatiya Penal Code, 2023
B
Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
C
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023
D
Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023

Question 152Single Answer

When did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 receive presidential assent?

A
August 11, 2023
B
December 12, 2023
C
December 25, 2023
D
July 1, 2024

Question 153Single Answer

On which date did the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 come into force?

A
December 25, 2023
B
January 1, 2024
C
July 1, 2024
D
August 15, 2024

Question 154Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A
To regulate civil disputes
B
To consolidate and amend laws relating to offences
C
To reform tax laws
D
To update family laws

Question 155Single Answer

How many sections does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 contain?

A
511
B
358
C
400
D
300

Question 156Single Answer

How many chapters are there in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A
23
B
20
C
25
D
18

Question 157Single Answer

Which of the following offences was removed from the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A
Theft
B
Sedition
C
Robbery
D
Murder

Question 158Single Answer

What new offence was introduced in the BNS to address acts endangering India’s sovereignty?

A
Treason
B
Subversive activities
C
Sedition
D
Rebellion

Question 159Single Answer

Under the BNS, what is the punishment for murder by a group of five or more persons based on identity markers like caste or language?

A
Fine only
B
3 years imprisonment
C
7 years to life imprisonment or death
D
10 years imprisonment

Question 160Single Answer

What new form of punishment was introduced in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A
Community service
B
Public shaming
C
Exile
D
Corporal punishment

Question 161Single Answer

Which offence was newly added to the BNS to address terrorism?

A
Cybercrime
B
Terrorism
C
Forgery
D
Defamation

Question 162Single Answer

What does the BNS include in the definition of terrorism?

A
Acts of theft and robbery
B
Acts intended to threaten unity, integrity, or security of the country
C
Acts of civil disobedience
D
Acts of defamation

Question 163Single Answer

What is the punishment for gang rape under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A
7 years imprisonment
B
10 years to life imprisonment
C
Death penalty as maximum punishment
D
Both b and c

Question 164Single Answer

What is the age threshold for a victim to be classified as a major in gang rape cases under the BNS?

A
16 years
B
18 years
C
21 years
D
14 years

Question 165Single Answer

Which new offence addresses organized crime in the BNS?

A
Theft
B
Organized crime
C
Cheating
D
Breach of trust

Question 166Single Answer

What does the BNS include as part of organized crime?

A
Petty theft
B
Kidnapping and extortion by crime syndicates
C
Traffic violations
D
Civil disputes

Question 167Single Answer

Which section of the BNS distinguishes snatching from theft?

A
Section 302
B
Section 304
C
Section 310
D
Section 320

Question 168Single Answer

How does the BNS treat snatching differently from the IPC?

A
It does not recognize snatching
B
It treats snatching as theft
C
It distinguishes snatching from theft with specific provisions
D
It reduces punishment for snatching

Question 169Single Answer

What is the maximum punishment for mob lynching resulting in death under the BNS?

A
7 years imprisonment
B
Life imprisonment or death penalty
C
10 years imprisonment
D
Fine only

Question 170Single Answer

Which of the following is a new offence in the BNS related to negligent acts?

A
Causing death by negligence
B
Negligent acts causing catastrophe
C
Public nuisance
D
Trespass

Question 171Single Answer

What change has been made to the definition of 'night' in the BNS?

A
It remains the same as in the IPC
B
Defined as 'after sunset and before sunrise'
C
Defined as 'midnight to 5 AM'
D
Removed entirely

Question 172Single Answer

How has the definition of 'fire' been expanded in the BNS?

A
Includes only natural fire
B
Includes mischief by fire or explosive substance
C
Excludes explosives
D
Limited to accidental fires

Question 173Single Answer

Which colonial-era offence was removed from the BNS?

A
Murder
B
Adultery
C
Robbery
D
Assault

Question 174Single Answer

What new provision addresses sexual intercourse by deceitful means in the BNS?

A
Criminalizes false promises of marriage
B
Criminalizes all sexual intercourse
C
Removes punishment for deceit
D
Limits punishment to fines

Question 175Single Answer

Which section of the IPC dealing with sedition was removed in the BNS?

A
Section 120B
B
Section 124A
C
Section 302
D
Section 420

Question 176Single Answer

The Uttarakhand Police Act was enacted in which year?

A
2005
B
2006
C
2007
D
2008

Question 177Single Answer

The Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007 primarily deals with which subject?

A
Forest conservation
B
Land revenue
C
Civil procedure
D
Administration and functioning of police

Question 178Single Answer

One of the principal objectives of the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007 is to make the police responsive to what?

A
Commercial interests only
B
Contemporary democratic requirements
C
Private corporations
D
Revenue collection only

Question 179Single Answer

The concept of police accountability under the Act is primarily intended to promote what?

A
Unlimited police discretion
B
Responsible exercise of police powers
C
Judicial legislation
D
Private policing

Question 180Single Answer

Maintenance of public order under the Uttarakhand Police Act is primarily a responsibility of whom?

A
Police
B
Civil courts alone
C
Private companies
D
Universities

Question 181Single Answer

The Uttarakhand Police Act applies primarily to which state?

A
Uttarakhand
B
Uttar Pradesh
C
Himachal Pradesh
D
Haryana

Question 182Single Answer

The Act seeks to redefine which aspect of policing?

A
Role and functions of police
B
Powers of Parliament
C
Functions of High Courts
D
Election procedure

Question 183Single Answer

Democratic policing requires the police to function primarily in accordance with what?

A
Political convenience
B
Personal preferences
C
Law
D
Private instructions

Question 184Single Answer

Protection of life and property is primarily associated with which function?

A
Police function
B
Legislative function
C
Audit function
D
Taxation function

Question 185Single Answer

Prevention of crime is one of the principal responsibilities of which institution?

A
Legislature alone
B
Police
C
Universities
D
Municipal schools

Question 186Single Answer

Detection and investigation of offences constitute which type of police responsibility?

A
Law-enforcement responsibility
B
Legislative responsibility
C
Fiscal responsibility
D
Diplomatic responsibility

Question 187Single Answer

The police are expected to maintain which condition in society?

A
Political uniformity
B
Commercial monopoly
C
Public peace and order
D
Judicial supremacy

Question 188Single Answer

Which principle is central to responsible policing?

A
Arbitrary power
B
Accountability
C
Secrecy in every matter
D
Political partisanship

Question 189Single Answer

The police under a democratic system are ultimately subject to what?

A
Rule of law
B
Personal commands
C
Private contracts
D
Commercial customs

Question 190Single Answer

Which of the following is an important focus of the Uttarakhand Police Act, 2007?

A
Company incorporation
B
Income tax assessment
C
Police administration
D
Patent registration

Question 191Single Answer

The Act provides a legal framework for the constitution of what?

A
Election Commission of India
B
State judiciary
C
Parliament
D
State police service

Question 192Single Answer

Police officers derive their statutory powers primarily from what?

A
Political membership
B
Personal status
C
Wealth
D
Law

Question 193Single Answer

Police powers must generally be exercised for what purpose?

A
Commercial gain
B
Personal benefit
C
Lawful discharge of duties
D
Political campaigning

Question 194Single Answer

Which concept requires police officers to answer for misconduct or abuse of authority?

A
Sovereignty
B
Immunity from all proceedings
C
Accountability
D
Privilege

Question 195Single Answer

Public peace is closely connected with which concept?

A
Corporate governance
B
Private contract
C
Intellectual property
D
Public order

Question 196Single Answer

The Uttarakhand Police Act contains provisions relating to which officers appointed for particular situations?

A
Patent Officers
B
Income Tax Officers
C
Forest Settlement Officers
D
Special Police Officers

Question 197Single Answer

A Special Police Officer is generally appointed to assist in what?

A
Policing functions
B
Judicial review
C
Legislative drafting
D
Tax auditing

Question 198Single Answer

Special Police Officers may be appointed particularly when what occurs?

A
Additional police assistance is required
B
Parliament is dissolved
C
A civil suit is filed
D
A university examination begins

Question 199Single Answer

The authority of a Special Police Officer arises from what?

A
Ownership of property
B
Private employment
C
Family status
D
Lawful appointment

Question 200Single Answer

A Special Police Officer is expected to perform duties connected with what?

A
Corporate auditing
B
Income-tax collection
C
Parliamentary proceedings
D
Maintenance of law and order

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