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Subjects : Civil Engineering

Question Bank UKPSC JE Exam Paper 2 (Paper 1 - Civil) - English
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Civil Engineering

Question 1Single Answer
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
  1. A
    Maximum daily demand 
  2. B
    Maximum hourly demand and fire demand 
  3. C
    Average demand 
  4. D
    Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Question 2Single Answer
 A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
  1. A
    Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year 
  2. B
    Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year 
  3. C
    Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year 
  4. D
    Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days 
Question 3Single Answer
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
  1. A
    40.5m3
  2. B
    50m3
  3. C
    75m3
  4. D
    94.7m3
Question 4Single Answer
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
  1. A
    Flow rate through the tank 
  2. B
    Diameter of the particle intended to be removed 
  3. C
    Volume of the sedimentation tank 
  4. D
    Detention time in the tank
Question 5Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant : 
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
 Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D
    3 and 4 only   
Question 6Single Answer
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
  1. A
    3.6 mg/l
  2. B
    13.6 mg/l
  3. C
    33.6 mg/l
  4. D
    53.6 mg/l
Question 7Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.  
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B
    3 and 4 only 
  3. C
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 8Single Answer
Quick sand condition occurs when 
  1. A
    the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0  
  2. B
    the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero 
  3. C
    the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil 
  4. D
    the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil 
Question 9Single Answer
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
  1. A
    5 m2
  2. B
    25 m2
  3. C
    10 m2
  4. D
    20 m2 
Question 10Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C
    3 and 4 only 
  4. D
    1, 2 and 4 only
Question 11Single Answer
Consider the following statements as regards a Septic Tank 
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1 and 2
  2. B
    1 and 3
  3. C
    3 and 4
  4. D
    1 and 4
Question 12Single Answer
Sewage sickness relates to 
  1. A
    Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’ to treatment 
  2. B
    Destruction of aquatic flora and fauna due to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water by the sewage 
  3. C
    reduction in the waste purifying capacity of the soil 
  4. D
    Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive application of sewage leading to obstruction of land aeration thereby leading to septic conditions in the land
Question 13Single Answer
The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10–5.6 mmol of OH– ions at 25ºC. The pH of this sample is
  1. A
    8.6 
  2. B
    7.9 
  3. C
    5.4 
  4. D
    4.5 
Question 14Single Answer
Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog:
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  2. B
    3 and 4 only 
  3. C
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 15Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ecology:
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  3. C
    3 and 4 only 
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 16Single Answer
Consider the following laws of ecology suggested by Barry Commoner:
1. Everything is connected to everything else.
2. Everything must go somewhere.
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only 
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4 
Question 17Single Answer
For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel of bed width 5m, the hydraulic radius is
  1. A
    0.5m
  2. B
    1.25m
  3. C
    2.75m
  4. D
    4.25m
Question 18Single Answer
A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 6%, and the specific gravity of the soil grains is 2.6. The porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is
  1. A
    7.5% 
  2. B
    9.5% 
  3. C
    13.5% 
  4. D
    16.5% 
Question 19Single Answer
Local mean time of a place of longitude of 42036’ W is 8h 42m 15s AM. The corresponding Green which Mean Time is
  1. A
    10 h 32 m 40 s AM
  2. B
    11h 32 m 39s PM
  3. C
    0 h 32 m 39s PM 
  4. D
    11 h 32 m 39s AM
Question 20Single Answer
A vertical photograph of a flat area having an average elevation of 250m above mean sea level was taken with a camera of focal length 25 cm. A section line AB 300 m long in the area measures 15cm on the photograph; a tower BP in the area also appears on the photograph. The distance between images of top and bottom of the tower measures 0.5 cm on the photograph. The distance of the image of the top of the tower is 10 cm. The actual height of the tower is
  1. A
    10 m
  2. B
    15 m
  3. C
    20 m
  4. D
    25 m
Question 21Single Answer
A transportation trip survey was undertaken between private car, and public car transportation. The proportion of those using private cars is 0.45. While using the public transport, the further choices available are Metro Rail and Mono Rail, out of which commuting by a Mono Rail has a proportion of 0.55. In such a situation, the choice of interest in using a Metro Rail, Mono Rail and private car would be respectively.
  1. A
    0.25, 0.3 and 0.45 
  2. B
    0.45, 0.25 and 0.3
  3. C
    0.25, 0.45 and 0.3 
  4. D
    0.3, 0.25 and 0.45
Question 22Single Answer
An airfoil of surface area 0.1 m2 is tested for lift L in a wind tunnel. (Conditions can be considered as incompressible flow.) At an angle of attack of 5°, with standard air density 1.22 kg/m3, at a speed of 30m/sec, the lift is measured to be 3.2 kgf. What is the lift coefficient? For a prototype wing of area 10 m2, what is the approximate lift at an air speed of 160 kmph at the same angle of attack of 5°?
  1. A
    0.572 and 700 kgf
  2. B
    0.603 and 700 kfg
  3. C
    0.572 and 570 kgf 
  4. D
    0.603 and 570 kgf 
Question 23Single Answer
Two tanks A and B, of constant cross-sectional areas of 10 m2 and 2.5 m2, respectively, are connected by a 5cm pipe, 100 m long, with f = 0.03. If the initial difference of water levels is 3m, how long will it take for 2.5 m3 of water to flow from A to B? Considering entry and exit losses, it can be grossly assumed that the flow velocity, in m/s, through the pipe is 1.75 h, where h is in m, taking g = 10 m/sec2; also, may take area of pipe as 2 × 10–3 m2.
  1. A
    535 seconds
  2. B
    516 seconds
  3. C
    485 seconds
  4. D
    467 seconds
Question 24Single Answer
The consistency and flow resistance of a sample of bitumen can be determined through which of the following tests?
  1. A
    Viscosity test
  2. B
    Penetration test
  3. C
    Ductility test
  4. D
    Softening point test
Question 25Single Answer
A pipe of 324 mm diameter, having friction coefficient as 0.04, connects two reservoirs with 15 m difference in their water levels through a 1500 m long pipe. What will be the discharge through the pipe?
  1. A
    104 lps
  2. B
    134 lps
  3. C
    165 lps
  4. D
    196 lps
Question 26Single Answer
Flexible concrete is a mix comprising of
  1. A
    Gravel, filler and 30/40 bitumen
  2. B
    Sand, filler and 30/40 bitumen only
  3. C
    Gravel, sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen
  4. D
    Sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen only
Question 27Single Answer
Consider a soil sample, for which tests yield the following results:
Passing 75 micron sieve            62%
Liquid limit                                35%
Plasticity Index                          14%
As per the group index classification of soil, what is the soil condition of the above soil sample?
  1. A
    Poor 
  2. B
    Fair
  3. C
    Good
  4. D
    Excellent
Question 28Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding ductility of bitumen:
1. Ductility is the property which does not permit bitumen to undergo large deformation without breaking.
2. Bitumens with high ductility are generally adhesive but do not have good cementing properties.
3. Ductility must be ascertained at two different temperatures in order to pronounce on the suitability of the material.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A
    3 only
  2. B
    2 only
  3. C
    1 only
  4. D
    1, 2 and 3
Question 29Single Answer
What is the critical thickness of a prestressed concrete pavement (using Westergaard’s Corner Load Formula) to support a maximum wheel load of 4200 kg? Allow 10% for impact. Tyre pressure may be taken as 7 kg/cm2. Assume flexural strength of concrete as 50 kg/cm2, factor of safety as 2, subgrade reaction for plastic mix road as 6 kg/cm3, and modulus of elasticity as 3 × 105 kg/cm2.
  1. A
    19.6 cm
  2. B
    21.6 cm
  3. C
    23.6 cm
  4. D
    25.6 cm
Question 30Single Answer
At a hydraulic jump, the flow depths are 0.4 m and 5 m at the upstream and downstream, respectively. The channel is wide rectangular. The discharge per unit width is nearly
  1. A
    5.8 m2/s
  2. B
    6.4 m2/s
  3. C
     7.3 m2/s
  4. D
    8.3 m2/s
Question 31Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ? 
  1. A
    1 and 3 only
  2. B
    1 and 4 only
  3. C
    2 and 4 only
  4. D
    2 and 3 only
Question 32Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
 2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    2, 3 and 4 only
  3. C
    1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 33Single Answer
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
  1. A
    Methane and Hydrogen
  2. B
    Hydrogen Sulphide
  3. C
    Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
  4. D
    Ammonia
Question 34Single Answer
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
  1. A
    Excessive burning of bricks
  2. B
    High silt content in brick clay
  3. C
    High porosity of bricks
  4. D
    Soluble salts present in parent clay
Question 35Single Answer
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick  
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ? 
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 36Single Answer
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 37Single Answer
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
  1. A
    1 only
  2. B
    2 only
  3. C
    Both 1 and 2
  4. D
    Neither 1 nor 2
Question 38Single Answer
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
  1. A
    Tricalcium silicate
  2. B
    Dicalcium silicate
  3. C
    Tricalcium aluminate
  4. D
    Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Question 39Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
  1. A
    1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B
    1, 2 and 3 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2 and 4 only
Question 40Single Answer
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
  1. A
    3.00
  2. B
    3.45
  3. C
    4.50
  4. D
    6.00
Question 41Single Answer
Which method of curing of concrete is recommendable for rapid gain of strength of concrete ?
  1. A
    Sprinkling water
  2. B
    Membrane curing
  3. C
    High-pressure steam curing
  4. D
    Infrared radiation curing
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following is appropriate as  simple field method for assesing consistency of concrete ?
  1. A
    Compacting factor
  2. B
    Slump test
  3. C
    Vee-Bee test
  4. D
    Kelly Ball test
Question 43Single Answer
Which of the following are relatable to Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
1. Light weight
2. Strong
3 Inorganic
4. Nontoxic
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 44Single Answer
The workability of concrete becomes more reliable depending on
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit
3. Grading of the aggregate
  1. A
    1 only
  2. B
    2 only
  3. C
    3 only
  4. D
    1, 2 and 3
Question 45Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular faces of a plane element ?
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of the principal stresses.
2. The shearing stresses in two mutually perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the difference between principal stresses.
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1 and 2 only
  3. C
    2 and 3 only
  4. D
    1 and 3 only
Question 46Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Strain in the direction of applied stress is known as longitudinal strain.
2. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in linear and lateral directions.
3. Strains in all directions perpendicular to the applied stress are known as lateral strain. 4. Ratio of change in volume to original volume is known as volumetric strain.
  1. A
    1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B
    1, 3 and 4 only
  3. C
    3 and 4 only
  4. D
    1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 47Single Answer
In the cross-section of a timber, cambium layer can occur in
  1. A
    Inner Bark and Sap Wood
  2. B
    Pith and Heart Wood
  3. C
    Sap Wood and Heart Wood
  4. D
    Outer Bark and Sap Wood
Question 48Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. In the infinitesimal strain theory, dilatation is taken as an invariant.
2. Dilatation is not proportional to the algebraic sum of all normal stresses.
3. The shearing modulus is always less than the elastic modulus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
  1. A
    1 only
  2. B
    1 and 2 only
  3. C
    2 only
  4. D
    1, 2 and 3
Question 49Single Answer
Which one of the following represents constitutive relationship ?
  1. A
    Vertical displacements in a structure
  2. B
    Rotational displacements in a structure
  3. C
    System of forces in equilibrium
  4. D
    Stress-strain behavior of a material
Question 50Single Answer
Principal stresses at a point are 80 N/mm2 and 40 N/mm2, both tensile. The yield stress in simple tension for this material is 200 N/mm2. The values of factors of safety according to maximum principal stress theory and maximum shear stress theory, respectively, are
  1. A
    2.5 and 2.5
  2. B
    2.5 and 5
  3. C
    5 and 1.67
  4. D
    6 and 2.50
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