A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
A
Maximum daily demand
B
Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C
Average demand
D
Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Question 2Single Answer
A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
A
Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B
Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C
Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D
Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days
Question 3Single Answer
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
A
40.5m3
B
50m3
C
75m3
D
94.7m3
Question 4Single Answer
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
A
Flow rate through the tank
B
Diameter of the particle intended to be removed
C
Volume of the sedimentation tank
D
Detention time in the tank
Question 5Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant :
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 6Single Answer
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
A
3.6 mg/l
B
13.6 mg/l
C
33.6 mg/l
D
53.6 mg/l
Question 7Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 8Single Answer
Quick sand condition occurs when
A
the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
B
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero
C
the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil
D
the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil
Question 9Single Answer
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
A
5 m2
B
25 m2
C
10 m2
D
20 m2
Question 10Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 11Single Answer
Consider the following statements as regards a Septic Tank
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 4
Question 12Single Answer
Sewage sickness relates to
A
Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’ to treatment
B
Destruction of aquatic flora and fauna due to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water by the sewage
C
reduction in the waste purifying capacity of the soil
D
Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive application of sewage leading to obstruction of land aeration thereby leading to septic conditions in the land
Question 13Single Answer
The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10–5.6 mmol of OH– ions at 25ºC. The pH of this sample is
A
8.6
B
7.9
C
5.4
D
4.5
Question 14Single Answer
Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog:
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct?
A
1, 2 and 4 only
B
3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 15Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ecology:
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 16Single Answer
Consider the following laws of ecology suggested by Barry Commoner:
1. Everything is connected to everything else.
2. Everything must go somewhere.
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 17Single Answer
For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel of bed width 5m, the hydraulic radius is
A
0.5m
B
1.25m
C
2.75m
D
4.25m
Question 18Single Answer
A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 6%, and the specific gravity of the soil grains is 2.6. The porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is
A
7.5%
B
9.5%
C
13.5%
D
16.5%
Question 19Single Answer
Local mean time of a place of longitude of 42036’ W is 8h 42m 15s AM. The corresponding Green which Mean Time is
A
10 h 32 m 40 s AM
B
11h 32 m 39s PM
C
0 h 32 m 39s PM
D
11 h 32 m 39s AM
Question 20Single Answer
A vertical photograph of a flat area having an average elevation of 250m above mean sea level was taken with a camera of focal length 25 cm. A section line AB 300 m long in the area measures 15cm on the photograph; a tower BP in the area also appears on the photograph. The distance between images of top and bottom of the tower measures 0.5 cm on the photograph. The distance of the image of the top of the tower is 10 cm. The actual height of the tower is
A
10 m
B
15 m
C
20 m
D
25 m
Question 21Single Answer
A transportation trip survey was undertaken between private car, and public car transportation. The proportion of those using private cars is 0.45. While using the public transport, the further choices available are Metro Rail and Mono Rail, out of which commuting by a Mono Rail has a proportion of 0.55. In such a situation, the choice of interest in using a Metro Rail, Mono Rail and private car would be respectively.
A
0.25, 0.3 and 0.45
B
0.45, 0.25 and 0.3
C
0.25, 0.45 and 0.3
D
0.3, 0.25 and 0.45
Question 22Single Answer
An airfoil of surface area 0.1 m2 is tested for lift L in a wind tunnel. (Conditions can be considered as incompressible flow.) At an angle of attack of 5°, with standard air density 1.22 kg/m3, at a speed of 30m/sec, the lift is measured to be 3.2 kgf. What is the lift coefficient? For a prototype wing of area 10 m2, what is the approximate lift at an air speed of 160 kmph at the same angle of attack of 5°?
A
0.572 and 700 kgf
B
0.603 and 700 kfg
C
0.572 and 570 kgf
D
0.603 and 570 kgf
Question 23Single Answer
Two tanks A and B, of constant cross-sectional areas of 10 m2 and 2.5 m2, respectively, are connected by a 5cm pipe, 100 m long, with f = 0.03. If the initial difference of water levels is 3m, how long will it take for 2.5 m3 of water to flow from A to B? Considering entry and exit losses, it can be grossly assumed that the flow velocity, in m/s, through the pipe is 1.75 h, where h is in m, taking g = 10 m/sec2; also, may take area of pipe as 2 × 10–3 m2.
A
535 seconds
B
516 seconds
C
485 seconds
D
467 seconds
Question 24Single Answer
The consistency and flow resistance of a sample of bitumen can be determined through which of the following tests?
A
Viscosity test
B
Penetration test
C
Ductility test
D
Softening point test
Question 25Single Answer
A pipe of 324 mm diameter, having friction coefficient as 0.04, connects two reservoirs with 15 m difference in their water levels through a 1500 m long pipe. What will be the discharge through the pipe?
A
104 lps
B
134 lps
C
165 lps
D
196 lps
Question 26Single Answer
Flexible concrete is a mix comprising of
A
Gravel, filler and 30/40 bitumen
B
Sand, filler and 30/40 bitumen only
C
Gravel, sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen
D
Sand, filler and 60/70 bitumen only
Question 27Single Answer
Consider a soil sample, for which tests yield the following results:
Passing 75 micron sieve 62%
Liquid limit 35%
Plasticity Index 14%
As per the group index classification of soil, what is the soil condition of the above soil sample?
A
Poor
B
Fair
C
Good
D
Excellent
Question 28Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding ductility of bitumen:
1. Ductility is the property which does not permit bitumen to undergo large deformation without breaking.
2. Bitumens with high ductility are generally adhesive but do not have good cementing properties.
3. Ductility must be ascertained at two different temperatures in order to pronounce on the suitability of the material.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
3 only
B
2 only
C
1 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 29Single Answer
What is the critical thickness of a prestressed concrete pavement (using Westergaard’s Corner Load Formula) to support a maximum wheel load of 4200 kg? Allow 10% for impact. Tyre pressure may be taken as 7 kg/cm2. Assume flexural strength of concrete as 50 kg/cm2, factor of safety as 2, subgrade reaction for plastic mix road as 6 kg/cm3, and modulus of elasticity as 3 × 105 kg/cm2.
A
19.6 cm
B
21.6 cm
C
23.6 cm
D
25.6 cm
Question 30Single Answer
At a hydraulic jump, the flow depths are 0.4 m and 5 m at the upstream and downstream, respectively. The channel is wide rectangular. The discharge per unit width is nearly
A
5.8 m2/s
B
6.4 m2/s
C
7.3 m2/s
D
8.3 m2/s
Question 31Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 32Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 33Single Answer
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
A
Methane and Hydrogen
B
Hydrogen Sulphide
C
Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
D
Ammonia
Question 34Single Answer
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
A
Excessive burning of bricks
B
High silt content in brick clay
C
High porosity of bricks
D
Soluble salts present in parent clay
Question 35Single Answer
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 36Single Answer
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 37Single Answer
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 38Single Answer
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A
Tricalcium silicate
B
Dicalcium silicate
C
Tricalcium aluminate
D
Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Question 39Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2 and 4 only
Question 40Single Answer
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
A
3.00
B
3.45
C
4.50
D
6.00
Question 41Single Answer
Which method of curing of concrete is recommendable for rapid gain of strength of concrete ?
A
Sprinkling water
B
Membrane curing
C
High-pressure steam curing
D
Infrared radiation curing
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following is appropriate as simple field method for assesing consistency of concrete ?
A
Compacting factor
B
Slump test
C
Vee-Bee test
D
Kelly Ball test
Question 43Single Answer
Which of the following are relatable to Autoclaved Aerated Concrete ?
1. Light weight
2. Strong
3 Inorganic
4. Nontoxic
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 44Single Answer
The workability of concrete becomes more reliable depending on
1. Aggregate-cement ratio
2. Time of transit
3. Grading of the aggregate
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 45Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct for stresses acting on mutually perpendicular faces of a plane element ?
1. The sum of the normal stresses in mutually perpendicular planes is equal to the sum of the principal stresses.
2. The shearing stresses in two mutually perpendicular planes are equal in magnitude and direction.
3. Maximum shear stress is half of the difference between principal stresses.
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 46Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Strain in the direction of applied stress is known as longitudinal strain.
2. Tensile stress results in tensile strain in linear and lateral directions.
3. Strains in all directions perpendicular to the applied stress are known as lateral strain. 4. Ratio of change in volume to original volume is known as volumetric strain.
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 47Single Answer
In the cross-section of a timber, cambium layer can occur in
A
Inner Bark and Sap Wood
B
Pith and Heart Wood
C
Sap Wood and Heart Wood
D
Outer Bark and Sap Wood
Question 48Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. In the infinitesimal strain theory, dilatation is taken as an invariant.
2. Dilatation is not proportional to the algebraic sum of all normal stresses.
3. The shearing modulus is always less than the elastic modulus.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 49Single Answer
Which one of the following represents constitutive relationship ?
A
Vertical displacements in a structure
B
Rotational displacements in a structure
C
System of forces in equilibrium
D
Stress-strain behavior of a material
Question 50Single Answer
Principal stresses at a point are 80 N/mm2 and 40 N/mm2, both tensile. The yield stress in simple tension for this material is 200 N/mm2. The values of factors of safety according to maximum principal stress theory and maximum shear stress theory, respectively, are
A
2.5 and 2.5
B
2.5 and 5
C
5 and 1.67
D
6 and 2.50
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Civil Engineering
Question 51Single Answer
The principal stresses at a point are 2 (tensile) and (compressive), and the stress at elastic limit for the material in simple tension is 210 N/mm2. According to maximum shear strain theory, the value of at failure is
A
70 N/mm2
B
105 N/mm2
C
140 N/mm2
D
210 N/mm2
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Cranes are employable in moving and/or hoisting loads.
2. With the use of dipper and stick, power shovels can be used as hoes.
3. Ovedrive for higher speeds is a facility often used comfortably in the working of a tractor.
4. Clam shells are less desirable than draglines if the material is water-saturated.
A
1 and 4 only
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 53Single Answer
Two similar bars of Steel and Aluminium are heated to a same temperature. Forces are applied at the ends of the bars to maintain their lengths unaltered. If the ratio of Young’s moduli of Steel and Aluminium is 3, and the ratio of the coefficients of thermal expansion of Steel to that of aluminium is 0.5, what is the stress on the Aluminium bar if the stress on the Steel bar is 100 MPa ?
A
16.7 MPa
B
66.7 MPa
C
136.7 MPa
D
150.0 MPa
Question 54Single Answer
A structural steel beam has an unsymmetrical I-cross-section. The overall depth of the beam is 200 mm. The flange stresses at the top and bottom are 120 N/mm2 and 80 N/mm2, respectively. The depth of the natural axis from the top of the beam will be
A
120 mm
B
100 mm
C
80 mm
D
60 mm
Question 55Single Answer
In the analysis of beams subjected to loads, the point with Nil Bending Moment can be a
1. Point of Contraflexure
2. Point of Maximum Shear Force
3. Point of Inflection
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 56Single Answer
A tractor has a permissible loaded speed of 200 m/minute, which can increase by 25% when the load is removed/deposited. Generally, it is operated at 80% of the permissible speed (loaded unloaded). It works at a location where haul distance is 120 m. Rest allowance per round-trip is taken as 50 seconds on an average. Fixed time per trip, for loading and unloading and turnaround, etc., is 30 seconds. What is its effective cycle time?
A
157 seconds
B
161 seconds
C
173 seconds
D
182 seconds
Question 57Single Answer
The purpose of lateral ties in a short RC column is to
A
Avoid buckling of longitudinal bars
B
Facilitate compaction of concrete
C
Increase the load carrying capacity of the column
D
Facilitate construction
Question 58Single Answer
When a two-hinged parabolic arch is subjected to a rise in ambient temperature, the horizontal thrust at the support will
A
Increase
B
Decrease
C
Remain same
D
Increase or decrease depending on the span
Question 59Single Answer
In the slope-deflection equations, deformations are considered to be caused by
A
Shear forces and bending moments only
B
Axial forces, shear forces and bending moments
C
Axial forces and bending moments only
D
Bending moments only
Question 60Single Answer
The maximum bending moment caused by a set of concentrated moving loads is
A
Always at the midpoint of span
B
Between the midpoint and concentrated load next to the midpoint of the span
C
Not definable
D
Always under a load close to the centroid of the set of loads
Question 61Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 62Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
2 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 and 4 only
Question 63Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 64Single Answer
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 65Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 66Single Answer
Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 67Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 68Single Answer
A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is
A
100.6 N/mm2
B
120.4 N/mm2
C
140.2 N/mm2
D
160.0 N/mm2
Question 69Single Answer
In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called
A
Annealing effect
B
Bauschinger effect
C
Strain rate effect
D
Fatigue effect
Question 70Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only
Question 71Single Answer
The span of a cantilever beam is 2m. The cross-section of the beam is a hollow square with external sides 100 mm; and its 1 = 4 × 105 mm4. The safe bending stress for the beam material is 100 N/mm2. The safe concentrated load at the free end would be
A
100 N
B
200 N
C
300 N
D
400 N
Question 72Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of arched construction made of voussoirs:
1. The superimposed load is transferred to the sidewalls only by the strength of cohesion of the mortar between the voussoirs.
2. The arch may fail under crushing when the compressive stress or thrust in it exceeds the safe crushing strength of the voussoir material.
3. Every element in the arch is subjected to compression only.
4. Failure of the arch due to the sliding of any voussoir past the adjacent one due to transverse shear can be avoided by reducing the height of the voussoirs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 4 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 73Single Answer
Which of the following are examples of indeterminate structures?
1. Fixed beam
2. Continuous beam
3. Two-hinged arch
4. Beam overhanging on both sides
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 74Single Answer
A cantilever beam, 3m long, carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. If the slope at the free end is 1°, the deflection at the free end is
A
49.27 mm
B
39.27 mm
C
30.27 mm
D
20.27 mm
Question 75Single Answer
The maximum bending moment at a given section, in which a train of wheel loads moves occurs when the average load on the left segment is
1. Equal to the average load on the right segment.
2. More than the average load on the right segment.
3. Less than the average load on the right segment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 only
C
2 only
D
3 only
Question 76Single Answer
A single degree of freedom system of mass 22 kg and stiffness 17 kN/m vibrates freely. If damping in the system is 2%, the cyclic frequency and the damped circular frequency, respectively, are nearly
A
0.4 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
B
0.88 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
C
4.4 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
D
0.88 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
Question 77Single Answer
A cable of insignificant weight, 18 m long, is supported at its two ends, 16m apart, at the same level. The cable supports at its mid-reach a load of 120 N. The tension in the cable is nearly
A
136 N
B
131 N
C
131 N
D
121 N
Question 78Single Answer
The design strength of a tension member is governed by
1. Rupture at a critical section
2. Yielding of gross area
3. Block shear of end region
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 79Single Answer
A beam-column is alternately bent either (1) in single curvature, or (2) in double curvature. The secondary moments induced are to be compared. These are indicated SM1 and SM2 as per the conditions (1) and (2) respectively
A
SM1 > SM2
B
SM1 < SM2
C
SM1 = SM2
D
Cannot be ascertained
Question 80Single Answer
Gantry girders can be designed
1. As laterally supported beams.
2. As laterally unsupported beams.
3. By using channel sections.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A
1,2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 3 only
Question 81Single Answer
A three-hinged parabolic arch ABC has a span of 20 m and a central rise of 4·0 m. The arch has hinges at the ends and at the crown. A train of two point loads of 20 kN and 10 kN, 5 m apart, crosses this arch from left to right, with the 20 kN load leading. The maximum thrust induced at the supports is
A
25·0 kN
B
28·13 kN
C
31·25 kN
D
32·81 kN
Question 82Single Answer
According to IS : 875 Part 3, the design wind speed acting on industrial roof is estimated based on the basic wind speed by multiplying it by factors K1,K2 andK3, where K1 is called
A
Risk coefficient
B
Structure size factor
C
Topography factor
D
Risk coefficient
Question 83Single Answer
Consider the following two statements regarding Bearing stiffeners provided at the location of a concentrated load:
1. Bearing stiffeners have to resist bearing and buckling loads.
2. Bearing area and the area resisting buckling load are the same.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
2 only
B
1 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 84Single Answer
In a plate girder, the web plate is connected to the flange plates by fillet welding. The size of the fillet welds is designed to safely resist
A
The bending stresses in the flange
B
The vertical shear force at the section
C
The horizontal shear force between the flanges and the web plate
D
The forces causing buckling in the web
Question 85Single Answer
A certain R.C. short column with 300 mm square cross-section is made of M 20 grade concrete and has 4 numbers, 20 mm diameter, longitudinal bars of Fe 415 grade steel. It is under the action of a concentric axial compressive load. Ignoring the reduction in the area of concrete due to the steel bars, the ultimate axial load carrying capacity of the column as by the relevant code is
A
1069 kN
B
1198 kN
C
1548kN
D
1659 kN
Question 86Single Answer
A rectangular beam of size 230 mm × 350 mm beam is (effective depth). The factored shear force acting at a section is 80 kN. If the permissible shear stress in concrete is 0·25 MPa, the design shear force is nearly
A
100 kN
B
80 kN
C
60kN
D
20 kN
Question 87Single Answer
In a combined footing for two columns carrying unequal loads, the maximum hogging moment occurs at
A
The inside face of the heavier column
B
A section equidistant from both the columns
C
A section subjected to maximum shear force
D
A section subjected to zero shear force
Question 88Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum steel requirements of slabs are based on considerations of shrinkage and temperature effects alone, and not on strength.
2. Providing excessive reinforcement in beams can result in congestion, thereby adversely affecting the proper placement and compaction of concrete.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 89Single Answer
A T-beam becomes identical to a rectangular beam with width equal to its flange width when the neutral axis is
A
Through the geometrical centre of the beam
B
At the junction of the rib and the flange
C
Below the slab
D
Within the flange
Question 90Single Answer
Consider the following statements in the light of IS : 456 - 2000 :
1. There is an upper limit on the nominal shear stress in beams (even with shear reinforcement) due to the possibility of crushing of concrete in diagonal compression.
2. A rectangular concrete slab whose length is equal to its width may not be a two-way slab for certain definable support conditions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 91Single Answer
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l
Question 92Single Answer
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4
Question 93Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 4 and 5
Question 94Single Answer
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A
10
B
20
C
25
D
30
Question 95Single Answer
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A
11.8
B
12.4
C
14.2
D
14.8
Question 96Single Answer
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4
Question 97Single Answer
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
3 and 4
Question 98Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 99Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 5 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Question 100Single Answer
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
A
165 l
B
205 l
C
245 l
D
285 l
Question 101Single Answer
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
A
IS : 4970-1973
B
IS : 1708-1969
C
IS : 1141-1958
D
IS : 399-1963
Question 102Single Answer
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 103Single Answer
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
A
Parallel to each other
B
At right angle to one another
C
45° oblique to adjacent grain
D
Not constrained by any consideration
Question 104Single Answer
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
A
It must be free from lumps of lime
B
It should not be mixed with salty water
C
It must be non-homogeneous
D
It should not contain vegetable and organic matter
Question 105Single Answer
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
A
440 kg/cm2
B
175 kg/cm2
C
100kg/cm2
D
75kg/cm2
Question 106Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4
Question 107Single Answer
Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4
Question 108Single Answer
Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Silica
C
Alumina
D
Calcium sulphate
Question 109Single Answer
Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
A
Ordinary Portland
B
High Alumina
C
Low-heat Portland
D
Portland Cement
Question 110Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3, 4 and 5
D
2, 3 and 5
Question 111Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding ‘strength of cement’:
1.Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement-sand mix.
2.Water to be used for the paste is 0.25 P, where P is the water needed for normal consistency.
3.The normal consistency is determined on Le Chatelier’s principle.
4.Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each layer by vibration on a machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 4
D
3 and 4
Question 112Single Answer
Which of the following ingredients refer to binding material of mortar?
1.Cement
2.Lime
3.Sand
4.Ashes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A
1 and 4
B
3 and 4
C
1 and 2
D
2 and 3
Question 113Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
2.Mortars make brick damp-proof.
3.Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
4.Addition of lime improves workability.
5.Marine construction needs sulphate-resistant cement mortar.
Which of the above statements are relevant for ‘cement mortar’?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 4 and 5
D
3, 4 and 5
Question 114Single Answer
Consider the following parameters of concrete:
1.Impermeability
2.Compactness
3.Durability
4.Desired consistency
5.Workability
Which of the above parameters are relevant for ‘water-cement ratio’?
A
4 and 5
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 4
D
3 and 5
Question 115Single Answer
Consider the following statements:Presence of Na2O and K2O in concrete leads to
1.Expansive reaction in concrete
2.Cracking of concrete
3.Disruption of concrete
4.Shrinkage of concrete
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 and 4
Question 116Single Answer
The maximum total quantity of dry aggregate by mass per 50 kg of cement, to be taken as the sum of the individual masses of fine and coarse aggregates (kg), for M20 grade of concrete is
A
625
B
480
C
330
D
250
Question 117Single Answer
Absorption capacity of an aggregate refers to the difference expresses in appropriate proportion in water content between
A
A wet aggregate and a dry aggregate
B
A dry aggregate and a wet aggregate
C
A saturated surface-dry aggregate and a dry aggregate
D
A saturated surface-dry aggregate and an over dry aggregate
Question 118Single Answer
Consider the following statements concerning ‘elasticity of concrete’:
1.Stress-strain behavior of concrete is a straight line up to 10% ultimate stress.
2.Strain determination is obtained from tangent modulus.
3.Modulus of elasticity of concrete is also called as secant modulus.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 119Single Answer
Consider the following statements :The addition of CaCl2 in concrete results in
1.Increased shrinkage
2.Decreased setting time
3.Decreased shrinkage
4.Increased setting time
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 2
Question 120Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.Knots in a tree affect the continuity of fibres.
2.Nail knots do not influence the strength of timber.
3.Druxiness of wood is not a defect.
4.Tall trees with twisted fibers give good timber for poles.
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 121Single Answer
What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?
A
11 to 15 mm
B
8 to 10 mm
C
15 to 17 mm
D
5 to 7 mm
Question 122Single Answer
Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (QA to QB) .
A
B
C
1
D
Question 123Single Answer
Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .
A
The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B
Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C
The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D
The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
Question 124Single Answer
A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is
A
0.5 L
B
0.85 L
C
2 L
D
0.75 L
Question 125Single Answer
What is the principle of plane surveying ?
A
Working from part to whole
B
Working from point to area
C
Working from angle to volume
D
Working from whole to part
Question 126Single Answer
According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :
A
100 m
B
1000 m
C
600 m
D
150 m
Question 127Single Answer
A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :
A
20
B
25
C
15
D
10
Question 128Single Answer
What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?
A
Reduces the secondary hydration process
B
Increases the heat of hydration
C
Increases the amount of air entrainment
D
Reduces the heat of hydration
Question 129Single Answer
As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :
A
M 20 and M 30
B
M 20 and M 25
C
M 22 and M 40
D
M 15 and M 25
Question 130Single Answer
Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :
A
Mass density
B
Moment of inertia
C
Poission’s ratio
D
Modulus of elasticity
Question 131Single Answer
As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?
A
120
B
140
C
70
D
60
Question 132Single Answer
No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :
A
0.5 m2
B
1.0 m2
C
3 m2
D
0.75 m2
Question 133Single Answer
What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?
A
20 cm
B
10 cm
C
30 cm
D
25 cm
Question 134Single Answer
Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements
A
Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B
Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C
Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D
Both statements S1 and S2 are true
Question 135Single Answer
If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :
A
121o25'
B
148o25'
C
58o25'
D
211o25'
Question 136Single Answer
The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :
A
creek
B
crest
C
limp
D
nappe
Question 137Single Answer
According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?
A
10 - 25 mm
B
25 - 50 mm
C
0 - 10 mm
D
50 - 100 mm
Question 138Single Answer
Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?
A
March / April to June / July
B
December / January to April / May
C
May / June to October / November
D
October / November to April / May
Question 139Single Answer
The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :
A
market value
B
book value
C
scrap value
D
salvage value
Question 140Single Answer
The amount of cement required for 100 m2 area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :
A
2.5 m2
B
0.55 m2
C
1.10 m2
D
0.25 m2
Question 141Single Answer
Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .
A
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
B
Increasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
C
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
D
Increasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility
Question 142Single Answer
Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?
A
Newton's law
B
Pascal's law
C
Darcy's law
D
Hydrostatic law
Question 143Single Answer
The determination of plasticity index and the percentage by weight of clay mineral finer than 2 µ present in the soil were done for two soil samples A and B. The ratio of plasticity index to the percentage of clay size particle for the samples A and B are given in the table .
Soil sample Ratio of plasticity index to percentage of clay size particle
Sample A Less than 0.75
Sample B Greater than 1.25 The two soil sample A and B are classified as
A
Sample A : Inactive; Sample B : Active
B
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Normal
C
Sample A : Active; Sample B : Inactive
D
Sample A : Normal ; Sample B : Inactive
Question 144Single Answer
Which of the following compounds of cement is responsible for early strength ?
A
C4AF
B
C3S
C
C3A
D
C2A
Question 145Single Answer
According to SP : 27 - 1984, the thickness of slab or RC slab shall be measured to the nearest of :
A
0.0002 m
B
0.005 m
C
0.0001 m
D
0.01 m
Question 146Single Answer
Classify the following pollutants as primary pollutants (PP) and secondary pollutants (SP). Ozone, Carbon monoxide, Particulate matter, photochemical smog, Nitrogen oxides, Aerosol/mist, Hydrocarbons, Perory - Acetyl - Nitrate, Sulphur dioxide.
bulk unit weight of a soil when it is fully saturated
B
saturated bulk unit weight to total void
C
total void to saturated bulk unit weight
D
total void to saturated bulk unit weight
Question 148Single Answer
Identify the test to be conducted for the determination of the modulus of subgrade reaction in pavement design .
A
Plate bearing test
B
Triaxial test
C
CBR test
D
Direct shear test
Question 149Single Answer
In limit state design, the design bond stress for deformed bars (conforming to IS 1786) for M20 concrete mentioned in IS 456 : 2000 is (in N/mm2 units) :
A
1.2
B
1.8
C
1.68
D
1.92
Question 150Single Answer
Which of the following can be considered as a taking off point in road planning in India ?
A
Lucknow plan
B
Delhi plan
C
Bombay plan
D
Nagpur plan
Question 151Single Answer
What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy for a simply supported beam with an internal hinge?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 152Single Answer
What is the primary structural behavior of a frame under vertical loads?
A
Axial deformation
B
Bending deformation
C
Shear deformation
D
Torsional deformation
Question 153Single Answer
How many plastic hinges are required for collapse in a portal frame with fixed supports?
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
Question 154Single Answer
What is the effect of a point load at the crown of a three-hinged arch?
A
Increases horizontal thrust
B
Decreases horizontal thrust
C
No horizontal thrust
D
Causes shear failure
Question 155Single Answer
What is the purpose of special positional reinforcement in a reinforced concrete frame near joints?
A
Resist bending moment
B
Prevent shear failure
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Enhance aesthetic appeal
Question 156Single Answer
What is the degree of static indeterminacy for a two-hinged portal frame?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 157Single Answer
What is the collapse mechanism in a fixed beam under uniform load?
A
One plastic hinge
B
Two plastic hinges
C
Three plastic hinges
D
Four plastic hinges
Question 158Single Answer
What is the primary force in the tie of a tied arch?
A
Compression
B
Tension
C
Shear
D
Bending
Question 159Single Answer
What is the purpose of providing stirrups in a reinforced concrete frame?
A
Resist tensile forces
B
Resist shear forces
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Prevent cracking
Question 160Single Answer
What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy for a two-hinged portal frame?
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Question 161Single Answer
What is the bending moment at the support of a fixed portal frame under uniform load?
A
Zero
B
Maximum
C
Equal to shear force
D
Indeterminate
Question 162Single Answer
What is the number of plastic hinges required for collapse in a simply supported beam with an internal hinge?
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Question 163Single Answer
What is the effect of unsymmetrical loading on a three-hinged arch?
A
No horizontal thrust
B
Increases horizontal thrust
C
Decreases horizontal thrust
D
Causes torsional failure
Question 164Single Answer
What is the role of bent-up bars in a reinforced concrete frame?
A
Resist tensile forces
B
Resist shear forces
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Prevent buckling
Question 165Single Answer
What is the degree of static indeterminacy for a planar frame with 3 members, 3 joints, and 6 reactions?
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Question 166Single Answer
What is the primary load-carrying mechanism in a fixed arch?
A
Bending
B
Compression
C
Shear
D
Torsion
Question 167Single Answer
What is the collapse load of a propped cantilever beam compared to a simply supported beam?
A
Lower
B
Zero
C
Equal
D
Higher
Question 168Single Answer
What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy for a fixed beam with an internal hinge?
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Question 169Single Answer
What is the horizontal thrust in a two-hinged arch under uniform load?
A
Zero
B
Maximum at supports
C
Equal to vertical load
D
Indeterminate
Question 170Single Answer
What is the purpose of shear reinforcement in a reinforced concrete frame near supports?
A
Resist bending moment
B
Prevent shear cracks
C
Increase compressive strength
D
Enhance ductility
Question 171Single Answer
What is the degree of static indeterminacy for a simply supported beam with an internal hinge?
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Question 172Single Answer
What is the primary structural behavior of an arch under vertical loads?
A
Axial compression
B
Bending deformation
C
Shear deformation
D
Torsional deformation
Question 173Single Answer
How many plastic hinges are required for collapse in a two-hinged portal frame?
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
Question 174Single Answer
What is the effect of temperature drop on a two-hinged arch?
A
Increases vertical deflection
B
Increases horizontal thrust
C
Decreases horizontal thrust
D
No effect
Question 175Single Answer
What is the role of diagonal reinforcement in a reinforced concrete frame near joints?
A
Resist torsional stresses
B
Resist shear stresses
C
Resist axial stresses
D
Resist bending stresses
Question 176Single Answer
What is the degree of static indeterminacy for a planar frame with 7 members, 7 joints, and 9 reactions?
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Question 177Single Answer
What is the bending moment at the crown of a two-hinged parabolic arch under uniform load?
A
Zero
B
Maximum
C
Equal to shear force
D
Indeterminate
Question 178Single Answer
What is the number of plastic hinges required for collapse in a fixed portal frame?
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
Question 179Single Answer
What is the primary force in the members of a two-hinged arch?
A
Shear force
B
Axial force
C
Bending moment
D
Torsional force
Question 180Single Answer
What is the purpose of providing additional shear reinforcement in a reinforced concrete frame?