To boost your performance in UKSSSC Assistant Teacher LT Commerce exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in UKSSSC Assistant Teacher LT Commerce exams.
Latest UKSSSC Assistant Teacher LT Commerce Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge, Reasoning Test, Academic Aptitude, Commerce
Question Bank UKSSSC Assistant Teacher LT Commerce Exam - English
General Knowledge
Q 1 :
When was Gorkha rule established in Kumaon for the first time ?
A.1780
B.1790
C.1804
D.1815
Q 2 :
Mughal Prince who took shelter in Srinagar Garhwal was :
A.Shah Jahan
B.Humayun
C.Suleman Shikoh
D.Jahangir
Q 3 :
Mauryan Inscriptionsdating back to Ashoka have been found in :
A.Mana
B.Malari
C.Kalsi
D.Niti
Q 4 :
In Skandapurana,'Garhwal' region is referred toas :
A.Manas Khand
B.Kedar Khand
C.Dev bhoomi
D.Uttarakhand
Q 5 :
By what name 'Kumaon region' was known in the ancient literature ?
A.Kedar
B.Manas Khand
C.Punya
D.Dev Bhumi
Q 6 :
Who was the first British Commissioner of Kumaon ?
A.Trail
B.E.Gardner
C.Lushington
D.Batton
Q 7 :
The King of Garhwal who was killed after being defeated by Gorkhas was :
A.Sudarshan Shah
B.Pradyumna Shah
C.Pradeep Shah
D.Fatehpati Shah
Q 8 :
Name the ruler of Garhwal who was known as 'Adinath'.
A.Ajai Pal
B.Sahaj Pal
C.Man Pal
D.Shyam Shah
Q 9 :
Who established the 'Garhdesh Seva Sangh' ?
A.Sridev Suman
B.Badri Datt Pande
C.Rampal
D.Gopi Chand
Q 10 :
Who was the first Chairman of 'Uttarakhand Kranti Dal' ?
A.D.D. Pant
B.Badri Datt Pande
C.Diwakar Bhatt
D.Mathura Prasad
Q 11 :
Who was the last Chand king of Kumaun ?
A.Mohan Chand
B.Mahendra Chand
C.Kalyan Chand
D.Pradyuman Chand
Q 12 :
Who was the founder of the Katyuri dynasty ?
A.Basant Dev
B.Nimber Dev
C.Lakhan Pal Dev
D.Subhik Raj Dev
Q 13 :
From which year was "Almora Akhbar" published ?
A.1871
B.1771
C.1971
D.1870
Q 14 :
"SALT" incident took place on ?
A.5 September 1942
B.6 September 1942
C.10 September 1942
D.8 September 1942
Q 15 :
Dola - Palki movement was related to :
A.Weavers
B.Shepherds
C.Farmers
D.Craftsmen
Q 16 :
Raini Village of Chamoli district is well known for which forest movement ?
A.Rewain movement
B.Chipko movement
C.Dungi-Paitoli movement
D.Maiti movement
Q 17 :
Who is known as "Kurmanchal Kesari" ?
A.Badri Dutt Pandey
B.G.B. Pant
C.Mohan Singh Mehta
D.Victor Mohan Joshi
Q 18 :
The historical fort of 'Khagmara' near Almora was built by :
A.Katturys
B.Chands
C.Gorkhas
D.Britishers
Q 19 :
Garhwal Sarvadalita Board was constituted in 1928 A.D. by :
A.Mohan Singh Mehta
B.Badri Dutt Pande
C.Jayananda Bharti
D.Hargovind Pant
Q 20 :
Tick out the correctly matched option out of the following combination of king and his capital :
A.Somchand - Raj Bunga
B.Kankapal - Devalgarh
C.Ajaypal - Tehri
D.Man Shah - Chandpurgarh
Q 21 :
On what date did India celebrate the 9th anniversary of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implementation?
A.July 1, 2026
B.June 30, 2026
C.July 2, 2026
D.June 29, 2026
Q 22 :
Which global event is India participating in with Sweden as a partner?
A.Venus Orbiter Mission 'Shukrayaan'
B.Chandrayaan-4
C.Gaganyaan crewed mission
D.Mars Orbiter Mission-2
Q 23 :
Who became India's 97th Chess Grandmaster in late June 2026?
A.Gukesh D
B.Praggnanandhaa R
C.Harshavardhan G.B.
D.Arjun Erigaisi
Q 24 :
What major merger was approved by the boards of PFC and REC Limited on June 30, 2026?
A.Merger with SBI
B.Merger into a single power financing entity
C.Merger with NTPC
D.Merger with IREDA
Q 25 :
Which initiative was launched at the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan 2026 for rural women SHGs?
A.Lakhpati Didi App
B.Digital India Rural Scheme
C.PM Kisan Drone Yojana
D.SARAS Shakti Collection and Coffee Table Book
Q 26 :
What significant political change occurred in South Korea on July 1, 2026?
A.New Prime Minister Han Seong-sook took office
B.Presidential elections were held
C.Parliament was dissolved
D.King was crowned
Q 27 :
What was the rainfall deficit in India for June 2026, described as the driest in over a century?
A.20% below average
B.39.8% below average
C.15% above average
D.Normal rainfall
Q 28 :
Where was the GCC Conclave on Innovation 2026 held?
A.Bengaluru
B.New Delhi
C.Mumbai
D.Hyderabad
Q 29 :
Which health initiative's operational guidelines were unveiled by the Union Health Ministry around July 1, 2026?
A.Universal Health Coverage
B.Ayushman Bharat expansion only
C.TB-free India 2030
D.National Ambulance Services 2026
Q 30 :
What reform was implemented in GST 2.0 (effective from September 2025)?
A.Removal of all cesses
B.Single 12% slab
C.Primarily two tax slabs of 5% and 18%
D.Only state-level taxation
Reasoning Test
Q 31 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 32 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 33 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 34 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 35 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 36 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 37 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 38 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 39 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 40 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Academic Aptitude
Q 41 :
What is the primary goal of education?
A.To memorize facts
B. To develop critical thinking skills
C. To pass exams
D.To promote competition
Q 42 :
Who is considered the father of modern education?
A. Plato
B.Aristotle
C.John Dewey
D. Socrates
Q 43 :
Which educational philosophy emphasizes the importance of experiential learning?
A.Idealism
B. Realism
C. Pragmatism
D.Existentialism
Q 44 :
Who introduced the concept of multiple intelligences?
A.Howard Gardner
B. Jean Piaget
C. Lev Vygotsky
D. Erik Erikson
Q 45 :
Which learning theory suggests that behavior is learned through reinforcement?
A.Behaviorism
B. Constructivism
C.Social learning theory
D. Cognitive theory
Q 46 :
Which educational approach emphasizes the importance of student-centered learning?
A.Traditionalism
B. Progressivism
C.Essentialism
D. Perennialism
Q 47 :
What does the term "pedagogy" refer to?
A. The study of children
B. The study of teaching methods
C.The study of learning disabilities
D.The study of educational systems
Q 48 :
In which stage of Kohlberg's moral development theory do individuals adhere to rules to avoid punishment?
A.Preconventional stage
B.Conventional stage
C.Postconventional stage
D. Preoperational stage
Q 49 :
Who proposed the concept of the "zone of proximal development"?
A. Jean Piaget
B. Lev Vygotsky
C. Erik Erikson
D. B.F. Skinner
Q 50 :
Which philosopher believed that education should focus on the holistic development of an individual, including physical, intellectual, and moral aspects?
A.Socrates
B.Aristotle
C.Plato
D. Confucius
Important Questions Package
UKSSSC Assistant Teacher LT Commerce Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy UKSSSC Assistant Teacher LT Commerce Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in UKSSSC Assistant Teacher LT Commerce question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
UKSSSC Assistant Teacher LT Commerce Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question With Answer
₹101[₹500]
2.
UKSSSC Assistant Teacher LT Commerce Exam - Hindi
Description : 1500 Question With Answer
₹131[₹500]
3.
UKSSSC Assistant Teacher LT Commerce Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question With Answer
₹101[₹500]
4.
UKSSSC Assistant Teacher LT Commerce Exam - English
Description : 1500 Question With Answer
₹131[₹500]
5.
UKSSSC Assistant Teacher LT Commerce Exam - Hindi
Description : <strong><span style="color:rgb(128, 0, 0)"><span style="font-size:16px"><span style="font-family:georgia,serif">1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)</span></span></span></strong>
₹151[₹550]
6.
UKSSSC Assistant Teacher LT Commerce Exam - English
Description : <strong><span style="color:rgb(128, 0, 0)"><span style="font-size:16px"><span style="font-family:georgia,serif">1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)</span></span></span></strong>
₹151[₹550]
7.
UKSSSC Assistant Teacher LT Commerce Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi
Which is the most potent driver of business transformation during Covid-19 pandemic ?
A.Ethical consciousness
B.Scale economies and pricing power
C.Technology adoption and innovation
D.Supply chain logistics and government interventions
Q 52 :
Counter Vailing Duties (CVD) are often imposed on imports to off set the impact of :
A.Predatory pricing
B.Export subsidies
C.Dumping
D.Low cost financing
Q 53 :
To prevent opportunistic takeover of domestic firms amid Covid-19 pandemic. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) from countries that share borders with India is allowed through :
A.Automatic route
B.Government route
C.FIPB route
D.DPIIT route
Q 54 :
Factor conditions in Michael Porter’s competitive advantage National Include :
A.Market size
B.Demand conditions
C.Internationally competitive suppliers
D.Skilled labour and scientific knowledge
Q 55 :
In case the purchasing company agrees to act as the agent of the vendor for collection of the book debts, in the books of the purchasing company, the amount of debtors should be credited to :
A.Vendor’s debtors account
B.Vendor’s suspense account
C.Debtors account
D.Creditors account
Q 56 :
When the value of “Investment in subsidiary” in the holding company’s balance sheet in more then the book value of the net assets acquired, the difference represents :
A.Capital reserve on consolidation
B.Goodwill on consolidation
C.Minority interest
D.Post acquisition profit
Q 57 :
The basic method of valuing human assets is :
A.Adjustment
B.Amortization
C.Capitalization
D.Quasi equity
Q 58 :
X and Y are partners, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 :3. They admit Z into the partnershipand for 1/5th share. X and Y decide to share the future profits in the ratio of 2 :1. What is the sacrificing ratio of X and Y ?
A.4 : 3
B.13 : 8
C.8 :13
D.4 :17
Q 59 :
The value of the firm in wealth maximization objective is measured by :
A.Present value of all expected future cash flows
B.All expected future cash flows
C.Percent value of all expected future profits
D.All expected future profits
Q 60 :
For a decline in price, total revenue declines in the demand of the product is :
A.Inelastic
B.Elastic
C.Unitary elastic
D.Zero elastics
Q 61 :
In Cobb-Douglas production function, Q=AKαLβ increasing returns to scale occurs when :
A.α + β > 1
B.K + L > 1
C.α + β < 1
D.K + L < 1
Q 62 :
The extreme case of non-price competition in an Oligopoly is :
A.Formation of cartels
B.Interdependent decision-making
C.Attaining economies of scale
D.Formation of duopoly
Q 63 :
Pecking order theory in finance is based on the assertion of :
A.Asymmetric information between managers and investors
B.Symmetric information between managers and investors
C.Outside information
D.Asymmetric information among investors only
Q 64 :
If a project cost is Rs. 40,000. Its stream of earning before depreciation and tax during first year through five years is expected to be Rs. 10,000, Rs. 12,000, Rs. 14,000, Rs. 16,000 and Rs. 20,000. Assume a 50% tax rate and depreciation on straight line basis; project’s ARR is :
A.14.40%
B.72%
C.16%
D.55.56%
Q 65 :
According to the theory of dividend the firm should follow its investments policy of accepting all positive NPV projects and paying out dividends if and only if, funds are available :
A.Bird in hand theory
B.Investor rationality theory
C.100 percent retention theory
D.Residual theory
Q 66 :
In Securitisation when no assets are acquired and the collateral is fixed for the life of the asset,the type of a structure is called as :
A.Revolving structure
B.Amortized structure
C.Collateralized structure
D.Self-liquidating structure
Q 67 :
For a very large sample size the ratio between ​ and σ is 8 : 40. Determine the sample size ð“· :
A.25
B.5
C.4
D.16
Q 68 :
For a given set of paired data, the correlation and regression coefficients have been calculated as being equal to r,bxy and byx respectively. Now, each of values of x series is divided by 5. What effect does it have on each of these co-efficients ?
A.The three co - efficients remain unchanged
B.There is no change in r but by x changes to byx/5and bxy changes to 5bxy
C.Each of the co-efficients will be reduced to one fourth of its value
D.There is no change r but byx changes to 5byx and bxy chages to bxy/5
Q 69 :
Which of the following statement is correct ?
A.Co-efficients of variance
B.If value in a series are negative, the standard deviation is also negative
C.If value in a series multiplied by σ, the variance would be multiplied by 36
D.Standard deviation is equal to square of variance
Q 70 :
For a poisson distribution variable X, P(X=0) = 2P(X=1), its standard deviation would be :
A.​​
B.0.5
C.​
D.2
Q 71 :
A test that contains a fair sample of the tasks and skills actually needed for the job in question is :
A.Construct validity
B.Content validity
C.Test validity
D.Criterion validity
Q 72 :
Which among of the following is not a primary determinant of organizational structure ?
A.Chain and span
B.Capacity and lower needs
C.Power and control
D.Differentiation and integration
Q 73 :
An act in a way that results in the greatest good for the greatest number is :
A.The golden rule
B.The utilitarian principle
C.The four way test
D.Kant’s categorical imperative
Q 74 :
People repeat behaviors that bring them satisfaction and pleasure and stop those that bring them dissatisfaction or pain is known as :
A.Law of exercise
B.Law of redo
C.Low of effect
D.Low of readiness
Q 75 :
Which one of the following statements is true about under the Base I Accord, BCBS, fixed the minimum requirement of capital fund for banks at ?
A.8 percent of the total risk weighted assets
B.9 percent of the total risk weighted assets
C.10 percent of the total risk weighted assets
D.1000 crore
Q 76 :
Which of the following statement is correct relating to Indian Financial System ?
A.RBI has direct supervision over depositories and mutual funds
B.Monetary control is exercised through cash reserve ratio and statutory liquidity ratio
C.Primary dealers mainly deal in shares, mutual fund units
D.The decrease in statutory liquidity ratio contracts the credit creation
Q 77 :
Which one of the following is not one of the advantages of Derivatives market ?
A.Leveraging increases risk
B.They enhance liquidity in the market for underlying assets
C.They represent a form of insurance against risks
D.They reduce price volatility
Q 78 :
Which one of the following statements is not true about Indian Money Market ?
A.Non-Banking Finance Companies (NBFCs) are financial institutions that constitute organized component of money market
B.Money market mutual funds are allowed to sell units to corporates and individuals
C.A Well-developed money market is essential for a modern economy
D.In the Indian Money Market, the predominant place is enjoyed by government and semi-government securities
Q 79 :
Which of the following is not true while determining length of distribution channel ?
A.The larger the market size, the longer the channel
B.If the average lot size is large, it is better to have a longer channel
C.If the product and the market require a high level of service, it is advisable to keep a shorter channel
D.If customers shop for an assortment of products, it demands for a water channel of distribution
Q 80 :
Which of the following can be categorized as people processing services ?
A.Health care
B.Legal services
C.Education
D.Transportation
Q 81 :
SBUs or products that have lost their position of leadership and are in the low growth markets, are known as :
A.Star
B.Problem child
C.Dog
D.Cash cow
Q 82 :
Which of the following is not a valid basis for market segmentation ?
A.Customer Based Segmentation
B.Technology Oriented Segmentation
C.Competition Related Segmentation
D.Product Related Segmentation
Q 83 :
Which one of the following statements is a promissory note ?
A.I promise to Q Rs. 7,000, 7 days after my marriage
B.On demand, I promise to pay B or bearer Rs. 5,000
C.I promise to pay Rs. 5,000 on C’ death provided C leaves with me enough money to pay that sum
D.I acknowledge to be indebted to you for Rs. 10,000 to be paid on demand for value received
Q 84 :
A claim for ‘quantum meruit’ cannot succeed :
A.Where is divisible contract is partly performed
B.When an indivisible contract for a lumpsum is partly performed
C.When a contract is discovered to be unenforceable due to some technical defect
D.In the case of breach of contract, the aggrieved party can claim reasonable compensation for k what he has done under the contract
Q 85 :
The first offence for infringement of copyright can be for a maximum of imprisonment for a term of :
A.6 months and a fine of Rs. 20,000
B.3 years and a fine of Rs 50,000
C.3 years and a fine of Rs 2,00,000
D.1 year and a fine of Rs 3,00,000
Q 86 :
Which one of the following conditions does not constitute a valid agency by necessity ?
A.There should be have been actual and definite commercial necessity for the agent to act promptly
B.The agent should have acted bonafide and for benefit of the principle
C.The agent should have adopted the most reasonable and practicable course under the circumstances
D.Destruction of the subject matter of the contract of agency
Q 87 :
If assessee is engaged in the business of growing and manufacturing tea in India, the non-agricultural income in that case be :
A.40% the income from such business
B.25% the income from such business
C.60% the income from such business
D.75% the income from such business
Q 88 :
AMT provisions are applicable on :
A.Corporate assessee
B.Non Corporate assessee
C.HUF
D.An Individual
Q 89 :
X, an employee of the private company, gets Rs. 30,000 p.m. as basic salary and entitled to Rs. 1,500 p.m. as entertainment allowance. What are the deductions u ∕ s 16 (ii) for gross salary in respect of entertainment allowance ?
A.Rs. 5,000
B.Rs. 18,000
C.Rs. 72,000
D.Nil
Q 90 :
Which of the following provident fund is approved by the provident fund commissioner ?
A.Statutory provident fund
B.Recognized provident fund
C.Unrecognised provident fund
D.Public provident fund
Q 91 :
Which of the following institutions are included in the ‘World Bank Group’ ?
(a) International Finance Corporation
(b) International monetary Fund
(c) World Trade Organization
​(d) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
(e) International Development Association
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.(a), (b) and (c) only
B.(a), (b) and (d) only
C.(a), (b), (d) and (e) only
D.(a), (d) and (e) only
Q 92 :
Corporate socialresponsibility is the continuing commitment by business to behave ethically and contribute to :
(a) Political awareness, social security and inclusion.
(b) Public health, education and literacy.
(c) Maintaining ecological balances and protecting environment.
(d) Gender diversity, profiteering and market controlling.
(e) Rendering, Sponsoring and donating to social and charitable activities.
​Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.(a), (b) and (d) only
B.(b), (c) and (e) only
C.(c), (d) and (e) only
D.(a), (b) and (c) only
Q 93 :
Firm characteristics that help managers identify core compentencies include :
(a) Potential access to wide variety of markets
​(b) Significantly contribute to the perceived customer benefits
(c) Value accretive and noncompetitive
(d) Distinctive and difficult for competitors to imitate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.(a), (b) and (c) only
B.(b), (c) and (d) only
C.(a), (b) and (d) only
D.(a), (c) and (d) only
Q 94 :
Which of the following distinction (s) is/are not correct between public issue and rights issue ?
(a) In public issue, applications for shares are invited from the general public and in rights issue, the shares are offered to existing shareholders.
(b) In public issue there is no question of any over-subscription and in rights issue the shares may be under subscribed or over subscribed leading to prorata allotment.
(c) The price of public issue is generally less than the market price and in rights issue, the price is deliberately made less than the market price.
(d) In a pubic issue, the communication of the issue is through prospects or advertisements and in rights issue the communication is between the company and the existing members of the company.
​Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.(b) only
B.(d) only
C.(a) and (c) only
D.(c) and (d) only
Q 95 :
According to AS-2, Which of the following costs should be included in valuing the inventories of a manufacturing company ?
(a) Freight and insurance
(b) Carriage outwards
(c) Depreciation of factory plant
(d) General administrative overheads
​Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.(a) and (d) only
B.(a), (b) and (d) only
C.(b) and (c) only
D.(a) and (c) only
Q 96 :
Which of the following rules stands true while preparing schedule of changes in working capital ?
(a) An increase in current assets increases working capital.
(b) An increase in current assets decreases working capital.
(c) An increase in current liabilities decreases working capital.
(d) An increase in current liabilities increases working capital.
​Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
A.(a) and (c) only
B.(a) and (d) only
C.(b) and (d) only
D.(a),(b) and (c) only
Q 97 :
Characteristics constituting the core of consumers rationality includes :
(a) Homogeneous expectations
(b) Non-satiation (c) Selfish motive
​(d) Clarity of preferences
(e) Possession of information
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.(a), (b) and (c) only
B.(b), (c) and (d) only
C.(a), (b), (c) and (d) only
D.(b), (c), (d) and (e) only
Q 98 :
Why is an indifference curve convex to the origin ?
​(a) Indifference curve slope downward to the right.
(b) Two commodities are imperfect substitutes.
(c) Declining marginal rate of substitution between commodities.
(d) Diminishing marginal utilities.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.(a) and (b) only
B.(b) and (c) only
C.(c) and (d) only
D.(a) and (d) only
Q 99 :
Financial crises takes the form of :
​(a) Currency crisis
(b) Banking crisis
(c) Systematic financial crisis
(d) Foreign debt crisis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A.(a), (b), (c) only
B.(a), (b), (d) only
C.(b), (c), (d) only
D.(a), (b), (c), (d) only
Q 100 :
Following are the problems that mar an optimal international diversification :
(a) Unfavourable exchange rate movements
(b) Frictions in international markets
(c) Manipulation of security prices
​(d) Unequal access to information
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
​ and σ is 8 : 40. Determine the sample size ð“· :
​​
​