Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 2Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 3Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 4Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 5Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 6Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 7Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 8Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 9Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
In science, the credit goes to a man
B
who convinces the world
C
not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D
No error
Question 10Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is only after
B
the match is over
C
that people realize how exciting it is
D
No error
Question 11Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Off the two
B
sisters, she
C
is better
D
No error
Question 12Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A interesting book
B
‘A Tale of two cities’
C
was written by Alexander Dumas
D
No error
Question 13Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I shall never
B
forget a good
C
deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D
No error
Question 14Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B
solved many riddles
C
that people brought to him for solution
D
No error
Question 15Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
News you broke to his wife
B
made her nervous
C
and she broke down
D
No error
Question 16Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I have a work
B
to do and
C
so I will reach late
D
No error
Question 17Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I saw portion
B
of the manuscript
C
on birds
D
No error
Question 18Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Talent without experience is waste
B
so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C
it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D
No error
Question 19Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B
the true path of humanity
C
Ramayana also can be included in this group
D
No error
Question 20Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B
He devoted two thirds of his life
C
for Indian freedom movement
D
No error
Question 21Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The students who want to speak in English
B
must read Hindu newspaper
C
in their initial stage
D
No error
Question 22Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B
for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C
but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D
No error
Question 23Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
It is
B
a quarter to ten
C
by my watch
D
No error
Question 24Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Mr. Thakur lived
B
in the three-hundred year
C
old house
D
in Patna
Question 25Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The uncle of mine who is farmer
B
gave me a piece of useful advice
C
when I went to see him three weeks ago
D
No error
Question 26Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My neighbor along with his children
B
is going tonight to see a Taj Mahal
C
At Agra
D
No error
Question 27Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Kabir an Rahim are great poets
B
but the former is
C
greater than latter
D
No error
Question 28Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He has abandoned
B
the criminal activities
C
after returning from jail
D
No error
Question 29Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
We must have
B
sympathy for
C
needy and the poor
D
No error
Question 30Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The Chinese is a very
B
difficult language to understand for those
C
who have never been to China
D
No error
Quantitative and Numerical Ability
Question 31Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 32Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 33Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 34Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 35Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 36Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 37Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 38Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 39Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 40Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 41Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 42Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
Question 43Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 44Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 45Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
Question 46Single Answer
Which is smaller ?
A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 47Single Answer
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9
Question 48Single Answer
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11
Question 49Single Answer
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825
Question 50Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
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Quantitative and Numerical Ability
Question 51Single Answer
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A
20
B
24
C
22
D
26
Question 52Single Answer
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A
3/4
B
2/3
C
4/5
D
5/8
Question 53Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
11/13
B
12/15
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 54Single Answer
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A
0
B
1
C
Same
D
Prime
Question 55Single Answer
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A
10
B
100
C
1000
D
10000
Question 56Single Answer
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A
1
B
10
C
Infinite
D
None
Question 57Single Answer
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A
12345
B
1331
C
1234
D
1213
Question 58Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A
1
B
3
C
7
D
9
Question 59Single Answer
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A
4
B
8
C
16
D
32
Question 60Single Answer
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
6
Logical Reasoning
Question 61Single Answer
Passage :
Direction:Study the given information carefully and answer the given question
P, Q, R, S, T, V, X and Y are seated in a straight line facing North. P sits fourth to the left of V. V sits either sixth from the left end of the line or fourth from the right end of the line. S sits second to the right of R. R is not an immediate neighbor of V. T and Q are immediate neighbours of each other but neither T not Q sits at extreme ends of the line. Only one person sits between T and X. X does not sit at the extreme end of the line
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A
To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B
To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C
To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D
To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E
None of these
Question 62Single Answer
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A
Area
B
Volume
C
Length
D
Sound
E
Energy
Question 63Single Answer
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 64Single Answer
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A
Water : Drink
B
Light : Night
C
Teach : Student
D
Air : Breathe
E
Food : Hunger
Question 65Single Answer
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A
Fruit
B
Stem
C
Flower
D
Root
E
None of these
Question 66Single Answer
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A
Omnivorous
B
Carnivorous
C
Herbivorous
D
Multivorous
E
None of these
Question 67Single Answer
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A
Party : Dance
B
Study : Book
C
Lecture : Study
D
Enjoy : Journey
E
None of these
Question 68Single Answer
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A
Pity : Kindness
B
Cruel : Anger
C
Wise : Education
D
Pride : Humility
E
None of these
Question 69Single Answer
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A
Memory
B
Highness
C
Tongue
D
Speak
E
Voice
Question 70Single Answer
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A
Integrity
B
Honesty
C
Guide
D
Competition
E
None of these
Question 71Single Answer
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A
20
B
14
C
56
D
26
E
None of these
Question 72Single Answer
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A
GIJK
B
DFGH
C
CEFG
D
ABCD
E
None of these
Question 73Single Answer
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A
71
B
73
C
77
D
67
E
None of these
Question 74Single Answer
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A
UMRSME
B
EIWNTR
C
PIGRSN
D
LCUOD
E
None of these
Question 75Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A
4
B
2
C
6
D
8
E
5
Question 76Single Answer
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A
UW483
B
ZA26
C
TU420
D
ST380
E
None of these
Question 77Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A
U
B
T
C
A
D
G
E
None of these
Question 78Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A
E
B
G
C
F
D
B
E
None of these
Question 79Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A
M
B
K
C
H
D
J
E
None of these
Question 80Single Answer
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A
2
B
3
C
4
D
5
E
None of these
Question 81Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A
P
B
K
C
J
D
I
E
None of these
Question 82Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A
8
B
1
C
9
D
2
E
None of these
Question 83Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A
4
B
5
C
6
D
7
E
None of these
Question 84Single Answer
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A
A
B
G
C
H
D
B
E
None of these
Question 85Single Answer
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A
S 3 H *
B
T#H*
C
T*#H
D
S*H5
E
SH*1
Question 86Single Answer
What should come next in the following number series?9 7 5 3 1 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5
A
1
B
8
C
3
D
5
E
None of these
Question 87Single Answer
What should come next in the place of question mark(?) in the following letter sequence?AZB, CYD, EXF,?,IVJ, KUL
A
FYH
B
GWG
C
HWH
D
GUF
E
None of these
Question 88Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
215
B
143
C
247
D
91
E
65
Question 89Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
78
B
48
C
72
D
54
E
42
Question 90Single Answer
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A
45
B
51
C
39
D
93
E
85
Legal general Knowledge & Legal Aptitude
Question 91Single Answer
A. Government of India Act 1858 control 1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861 2.Non official members in executive council
C. Indian Council 3.Separate representation of Muslim community Act1909
D. Government of 4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces
A
A B C D
2 3 1 4
B
4 1 2 3
C
3 4 1 2
D
1 2 3 4
Question 92Single Answer
Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of India Act 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4
Question 93Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
The Indian constitution is
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Largely based on government of India
Act, 1935
A
1 and 2 are correct
B
2 and 3 are correct
C
1 and 3 are correct
D
None of the above
Question 94Single Answer
Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism:
1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state.
2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 3
Question 95Single Answer
Which one is not correctly matched?
A
Freedom of speech - include freedom of and expression press
B
Freedom of - include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
C
conscience
Right to personal - include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
D
(d) Right to equality - includes principles of natural justice
Question 96Single Answer
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
A
Prime Minister
B
Vice- President
C
Chief Minister
D
Chief Justice
Question 97Single Answer
An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution of India:
1. Ex post facto law
2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy.
Arrange the protections in the order in which they appear in the Indian constitution.
A
Codes:
1, 3, 2
B
1, 2, 3
C
3, 1, 2
D
2, 1,3
Question 98Single Answer
Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
A
75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
B
76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
C
77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
D
78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
Question 99Single Answer
Match the following:
A. Right to go 1. Bhim Singh's case.
abroad
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's 4. Sunil Batra's case.
liability
A
Codes:
A B C D
2 4 1 3
B
4 2 3 1
C
2 4 3 1
D
4 2 1 3
Question 100Single Answer
A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
A
Three months
B
Six months
C
Nine months
D
Twelve months
Question 101Single Answer
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A
Habeas corpus - available against private individual as well.
B
Quo warranto - available against subordinate courts only
C
Certiorari - available against autonomous bodies only
D
Prohibition - directs a public authority to perform a task.
Question 102Single Answer
Match the following:
A. Right to go abroad 1. Bhim Singh's case.
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's liability 4. Sunil Batra's case.
A
A B C D
2 4 1 3
B
4 2 3 1
C
2 4 3 1
D
4 2 1 3
Question 103Single Answer
Match the following:
A
Right to live with human dignity enshrined in Art. 21 derives life breath
from DPSP Clauses e and f of Art. 39, 41 and 42.
B
Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just, fair and reasonable procedure guaranteed by Art. 21.
C
In PIL, a total stranger to a trial cannot be permitted to question the correctness of the conviction of the accused.
D
In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an
Question 104Single Answer
List-I List-II
Balaji vs. Stateof Mysore 1. Doctrine of waiver
of fundamental rights
Maneka Gandhi 2. Religious freedom
vs. UOI
Rev. Stanilaus 3. Right to life and personal liberty
vs. State of MP
Bashesher Nath 4. Reservation for backward classes
vs. IT, Commr. 5. Doctrine of severeability
A
A B C D
4 2 3 1
B
5 4 3 2
C
4 3 2 1
D
5 3 2 1
Question 105Single Answer
List-I List-II
Independence of judiciary 1. Administrative adjudication
Executive legislation 2. Parliamentary form of government
Quasi-judicial functions 3. Appointment and transfer of judges
Collective responsibility 4. Ordinance
A
A B C D
2 1 4 3
B
3 4 1 2
C
2 4 1 3
D
3 I 4 2
Question 106Single Answer
The 73rd Amendment provides a ____ tier system of panchayats:
A
3
B
4
C
2
D
1
Question 107Single Answer
List-I List-II
A Habeas corpus 1. Violation of natural justice
B. Mandamus 2. Unlawful arrest and detention
C. Quo-warranto 3. Exercise of power without jurisdiction
D. Certiorari 4. Non performance of public duty.
A
A B C D
2 4 3 1
B
1 3 4 2
C
2 3 4 1
D
1 4 3 2
Question 108Single Answer
The fundamental duties provided in the constitution are:
1. To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture.
2. To safeguard private property.
3. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform of these fundamental duties include:
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 3
Question 109Single Answer
If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the constitution must be amended?
A
First
B
Second
C
Third
D
Fourth
Question 110Single Answer
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the constitution of India?
A
It lists the distribution of powers between the union and the states.
B
It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
C
It contains the provision regarding the administration of tribal areas.
D
It allocates seats in the council of states.
Question 111Single Answer
The 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the:
A
Fundamental rights
B
DPSP
C
List of languages recognised by the constitution
D
Number of states and UTS
Question 112Single Answer
Provisions regarding anti defection are provided in ____of the constitution of India.
A
2nd schedule
B
5th schedule
C
8th schedule
D
10th schedule
Question 113Single Answer
At the time of framing there were ____Schedules in the constitution of India.
A
8
B
10
C
12
D
11
Question 114Single Answer
The house may declare the seat vacant after_____ , of any member, if he is absent from all meetings without permission of the house.
A
30 days
B
45 days
C
60 days
D
90 days
Question 115Single Answer
When the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker are vacant, _____ appoints a person to perform the functions of the speaker.
A
The President
B
The prime minister
C
The chief justice of India
D
Council of ministers
Question 116Single Answer
The framers of the constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review from the constitution of:
A
France
B
USA
C
United Kingdom
D
None of these
Question 117Single Answer
Decision of _______is final regarding the disqualification of a member of either house of Parliament under Art. 103.
A
The election commission
B
President
C
Speaker of Lok Sabha
D
Prime minister
Question 118Single Answer
Part______ of the constitution of the India talks about municipalities?
A
Part IX
B
Part IX-A
C
Part X
D
Part X-A
Question 119Single Answer
It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our constitution lies in the:
A
Preamble
B
Fundamental rights
C
Fundamental duties
D
Directive principles of state policy
Question 120Single Answer
Disqualification of a member of parliament on the ground of defection is to be decided by
A
The President
B
Speaker of Lok Sabha
C
Speaker of Rajya Sabha
D
Either (b) or (c), as the case may be
Question 121Single Answer
Preamble to the constitution of India:
A
is not a Part of the constitution.
B
Indicates the objectives to be achieved.
C
Indicates the source from which the constitution derives its authority.
D
Is a source of authority of the constitution of India.
Question 122Single Answer
The preamble to the Indian constitution is:
A
A Part of constitution; but it neither confers any power no impose any duties, nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution.
B
A Part of the constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution in cases of ambiguity.
C
A Part of the constitution and it confers powers and impose duties as any other provision of the constitution.
D
Not a Part of the constitution.
Question 123Single Answer
The source of Directive Principles of State Policy in our constitution can be traced back to the constitution of
A
USA
B
United Nations
C
United Kingdom
D
Ireland
Question 124Single Answer
The following are enshrined in the preamble to the constitution of India
(a) Equality of status and opportunity
(b) Liberty of thought , expression , belief ,faith and worship.
(c) Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual.
(d) Unity and integrity of the nation .
Which one of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the preamble ?
A
5,1,2,4,3
B
3,2,1,4,5
C
3,1,2,5,4
D
1,2,4,3,5
Question 125Single Answer
Which one of the following is in correct order in the preamble of the Indian constitution ?
A
Sovereign ,socialist ,secular, democratic and republic
B
Sovereign, secular, socialist, democratic and republic
C
Sovereign , secular, democratic, socialist and republic
D
Sovereign , democratic , secular, republic and socialist.
Question 126Single Answer
The text of the preamble of the constitution of India aims to secure ?
A
Fundamental rights to all individuals .
B
Fundamental duties of citizen of India
C
Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation .
D
Security of service to government servants .
Question 127Single Answer
Words secular and integrity were added by ______amendment of the constitution.
A
1st Amendment Act
B
24th Amendment Act
C
42nd Amendment Act
D
44th Amendment Act
Question 128Single Answer
Preamble of the constitution of India has been amended _____times so far?
A
Two
B
Three
C
One
D
Never
Question 129Single Answer
The word secular denotes:
A
Keeping away from all religions.
B
Freedom of religion and worship to all religions.
C
Belief in one god
D
Practicing different religions
Question 130Single Answer
The term socialist used in the preamble means a state whose basic policy is to:
A
Prohibit concentration of wealth
B
Distribute equitably the natural resources
C
Prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the living standard of people
D
That the state shall endeavour to achieve socialistic goals through democratic means.
Question 131Single Answer
In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended?
1. External Aggression
2. Internal Emergency
3. When Martial Law is in force
A
1 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 132Single Answer
Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in India.
1. Right to Education
2. Right to Information
3. Right to Vote
A
1 and 2
B
1 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 only
Question 133Single Answer
Article 21 declares that - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." The protection under Article 21 is:
A
Against arbitrary legislative action.
B
Against arbitrary executive action.
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Neither (a) nor (b)
Question 134Single Answer
Which of the following statement/statements, is/are correct:
1. Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in Article 19 (1) of the constitution
2. Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI Act.
3. Supreme Court of India has the advisory jurisdiction.
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 only
Question 135Single Answer
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements
w.r.t. Article 32.
1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR
3. High courts have the power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.
A
I only
B
1 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
3 only
Question 136Single Answer
Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law."?
1. Right to speedy trial.
2. Right against delayed execution.
3. Right against wrongful detention and arrest.
A
1 and 3
B
2 only
C
1 and 2
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
A
Prohibition, Certiorari and Mandamus.
B
Certiorari & Mandamus.
C
Prohibition & Mandamus.
D
Prohibition & Certiorari.
Question 138Single Answer
The directive principles were made non- justiciable and legally non-enforceable because:
1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them.
2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation.
A
I only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 139Single Answer
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy.
2. The directive principles are meant to establish Social Democracy.
3. The directive principles are meant to establish Economic Democracy.
A
I only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 140Single Answer
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles.
2. The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles.
3. Fundamental rights cannot be curtailed under any circumstances by the Parliament.
A
1 and 3
B
Only 2
C
1 and 2
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill?
1. Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional amendment Bill in Parliament.
2. President must give his assent to the Bill if duly passed by both houses.
3. Constitution amendment Bill can be introduced in any house of the Parliament.
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 3
D
I only
Question 142Single Answer
The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by:
A
A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.
B
A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
C
A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures.
D
By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Question 143Single Answer
Which of the following is/are federal feature/s of our constitution?
1. Supremacy of the Constitution.
2. Rigid Constitution.
3. Independent Judiciary.
A
I only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 144Single Answer
Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations?
1. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the executive power rests with the states.
2. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the legislative power rests with the centre
3. Residuary powers are assigned to the parliament.
A
1 and 3
B
2 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 only
Question 145Single Answer
Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations?
1. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the Center can give direction to a state on any matter.
2. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre and the states.
3. Word 'cabinet' is mentioned only once in the constitution under Art. 352.
A
I only
B
2 and 3
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 only
Question 146Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The chairman and members of state PSC are appointed by the Governor, but can be removed only by the President.
2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President.
3. Finance commission is mentioned under Art. 280 of the constitution.
A
1 and 2
B
2 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3
Question 147Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of Emergency?
A
Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by both houses of Parliament by a special
majority.
B
Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by a simple
majority.
C
Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by a simple majority.
D
None of these
Question 148Single Answer
Which of the following situation/s will be proper to impose President's rule in a state (Article 356)?
1. Where after general elections to the assembly, no Party secures a majority.
2. Serious maladministration in the state.
3. Stringent financial exigencies of the state.
A
I only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 149Single Answer
Which of the following situation/s are correct with regard to Proclamation of Financial Emergency (Article 360)?
1. It can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the parliament for every six months.
2. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by simple
majority.
3. The President may issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of Supreme Court and High Court Judges.
A
I only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 150Single Answer
The Electoral College for President's election
consist of:
1. Elected members of both the houses of
Parliament.
2. Elected members of the legislative
assemblies.
3. Elected members of all Union Territories.