Question for UP Cooperative Bank Assistant Engineer 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest UP Cooperative Bank Assistant Engineer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Numerical Ability/Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning Ability/Mental Ability, General Awareness, Cooperative, Language (Hindi & English), Concerned Subject (Civil)

Question Bank UP Cooperative Bank Assistant Engineer Main (Civil) Exam - English

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Numerical Ability/Quantitative Aptitude

Question 1Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 2Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 3Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 4Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 5Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 6Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 7Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 8Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 9Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 10Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 11Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer :

How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 12Single Answer

Passage :

The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 13Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 14Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 15Single Answer

Passage :

What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.

A
Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

Question 16Single Answer

Passage :

Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (1) and (2) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer.

Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 17Single Answer

Passage :

What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 18Single Answer

Passage :

What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 19Single Answer

Passage :

What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Question 20Single Answer

Passage :

How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.

A
Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B
Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C
BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D
Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient

Reasoning Ability/Mental Ability

Question 21Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?

A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these

Question 22Single Answer

Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is

A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None

Question 23Single Answer

If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

Question 24Single Answer

How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 25Single Answer

How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 26Single Answer

Passage :

A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?

Question 27Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG

Question 28Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?

A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM

Question 29Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 30Single Answer

Passage :

How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three

Question 31Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 32Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four

Question 33Single Answer

Passage :

If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?

A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG

Question 34Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?

A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK

Question 35Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: Following question is based on five words given below:
BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?

A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three

Question 36Single Answer

What is the next number in the series: 2, 4, 6, 8, ?

A
9
B
11
C
10
D
12

Question 37Single Answer

What comes next in the series: A, B, C, D, ?

Question 38Single Answer

What is the missing number in the series: 1, 4, 9, 16, ?

A
20
B
36
C
30
D
25

Question 39Single Answer

What follows in the series: 3, 6, 9, 12, ?

A
13
B
15
C
14
D
16

Question 40Single Answer

What is the next term in the series: J, F, M, A, ?

General Awareness

Question 41Single Answer

निम्नलिखित में से कौन प्रबोधन दर्शन से जुड़ा था?

A
शेक्सपियर
B
वोल्टेयर
C
इरास्मस
D
उपरोक्त सभी

Question 42Single Answer

हवाएँ और वायु धाराएँ इस पहलू में भिन्न होती हैं कि :

A
हवा की धाराएँ हवाओं की तुलना में बहुत तेज़ चलती हैं
B
हवा की धाराएँ हमेशा नमी से भरी होती हैं जबकि हवाएँ आमतौर पर शुष्क होती हैं
C
हवाएँ भूमि पर चलती हैं जबकि हवा की धाराएँ समुद्र और महासागरों पर चलती हैं
D
हवाएं हवा की क्षैतिज गति हैं जबकि वायु धाराएं हवा की ऊर्ध्वाधर गति हैं

Question 43Single Answer

सत्त्रिया नृत्य शैली इनमें से किस राज्य में प्रसिद्ध है ?

A
असम
B
हिमाचल प्रदेश
C
पंजाब
D
तमिलनाडु

Question 44Single Answer

भारत की संविधान सभा का गठन कब हुआ था?

A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950

Question 45Single Answer

What is the primary function of a cooperative bank in UP?

A
Provide foreign exchange exclusively
B
Issue government bonds only
C
Accept deposits and provide credit to members
D
Control industrial monopolies

Question 46Single Answer

Cooperative banks in UP are governed under?

A
RBI Act only
B
Companies Act
C
Banking Regulation Act and UP Cooperative Societies Act
D
SEBI regulations

Question 47Single Answer

The apex cooperative bank in UP is called?

A
RBI
B
NABARD
C
UP State Cooperative Bank
D
SBI

Question 48Single Answer

Primary cooperative banks in UP primarily serve?

A
Multinational corporations
B
Rural customers and small businesses
C
Urban elite exclusively
D
Foreign investors

Question 49Single Answer

How are cooperative banks in UP capitalized?

A
Government bonds exclusively
B
By member contributions and share capital
C
RBI funding only
D
Foreign loans exclusively

Question 50Single Answer

The main role of cooperative banks in UP is?

A
Privatize rural banks
B
Promote financial inclusion and credit accessibility
C
Control industrial monopolies
D
Urban development

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General Awareness

Question 51Single Answer

Cooperative banks in UP operate on the principle of?

A
Mutual help and democratic management
B
Capital-based voting
C
Government nomination only
D
Industrial monopoly

Question 52Single Answer

Which body supervises cooperative banks in UP?

A
Reserve Bank of India and State Cooperative Department
B
SEBI only
C
Ministry of Finance exclusively
D
Urban Development Authority

Question 53Single Answer

How is the governance of cooperative banks ensured?

A
One member, one vote system
B
Capital-based voting
C
Government-appointed directors only
D
Foreign investor management

Question 54Single Answer

Cooperative banks in UP mainly finance?

A
Large industrial projects
B
Agriculture and small-scale enterprises
C
Urban real estate only
D
Foreign trade exclusively

Question 55Single Answer

What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?

A
New planet in solar system
B
Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C
Black hole merger
D
Exoplanet with life signs

Cooperative

Question 56Single Answer

When and where was the first cooperative society in the world established?

A
1812, Manchester, England
B
1904, London, England
C
1844, Rochdale, England
D
1850, Birmingham, England

Question 57Single Answer

Who are considered the pioneers of the modern cooperative movement?

A
Robert Owen
B
John Stuart Mill
C
The Rochdale Pioneers
D
Charles Fourier

Question 58Single Answer

Which principle emphasizes the democratic control of cooperatives?

A
Profit maximization
B
Government control
C
Capital-based voting
D
One member, one vote

Question 59Single Answer

Which sector saw the earliest cooperative movement in India?

A
Agriculture
B
Housing
C
Banking
D
Transport

Question 60Single Answer

When was the first cooperative society in India registered?

A
1905
B
1904
C
1912
D
1920

Question 61Single Answer

Which Act provided legal framework for cooperative societies in India before independence?

A
Indian Cooperative Societies Act, 1904
B
Banking Regulation Act, 1949
C
Companies Act, 1913
D
Cooperative Credit Societies Act, 1912

Question 62Single Answer

Which principle of cooperation focuses on mutual assistance?

A
Voluntary membership
B
Limited return on capital
C
Self-help and mutual aid
D
Open membership

Question 63Single Answer

What was the main aim of the Rochdale Pioneers?

A
Political reform
B
Monopoly control
C
Industrialization
D
Social welfare and equitable trade

Question 64Single Answer

Which of the following is NOT a cooperative principle?

A
Voluntary and open membership
B
Democratic member control
C
Profit maximization for external shareholders
D
Concern for community

Question 65Single Answer

The principle of “Education, Training and Information” in cooperatives aims to?

A
Ensure profit
B
Reduce membership
C
Increase government control
D
Strengthen members’ skills and awareness

Question 66Single Answer

Which sector forms the largest base of cooperatives in India?

A
Housing
B
Education
C
Transport
D
Agriculture

Question 67Single Answer

Which country influenced India’s cooperative movement significantly?

A
England
B
Germany
C
USA
D
France

Question 68Single Answer

What is the main purpose of a credit cooperative society?

A
To control government funds
B
To maximize profits for shareholders
C
To provide cheap loans to members
D
To regulate foreign trade

Question 69Single Answer

Which cooperative principle ensures equality among members?

A
One member, one vote
B
Profit sharing based on capital
C
Voluntary membership
D
Government control

Question 70Single Answer

Which committee recommended the promotion of cooperatives in India in 1915?

A
Royal Commission on Agriculture
B
All India Rural Credit Committee
C
Maclagan Committee
D
Indian Finance Committee

Language (Hindi & English)

Question 71Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 72Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 73Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 74Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 75Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

Question 76Single Answer

शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए

A
अधम्र
B
अध्रम
C
अधर्म
D
अध्रिम

Question 77Single Answer

शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए

A
स्थायि
B
स्थायी
C
स्थाई
D
स्थाइ

Question 78Single Answer

वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?

A
महत्व
B
महतव
C
महत्तव
D
महतत्व

Question 79Single Answer

निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?

A
आयुष्मान
B
आयुश्मान
C
आयुशमान
D
आयुश्यमान

Question 80Single Answer

शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?

A
कवियत्री
B
कौसल्या
C
एश्वर्य
D
श्रृंगार

Concerned Subject (Civil)

Question 81Single Answer

Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ?

A
1 and 3 only
B
1 and 4 only
C
2 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only

Question 82Single Answer

Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
2, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 83Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 84Single Answer

Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?

A
2 and 3 only
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1 and 4 only

Question 85Single Answer

One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of

A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l

Question 86Single Answer

AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:

A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4

Question 87Single Answer

A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for

A
Maximum daily demand
B
Maximum hourly demand and fire demand
C
Average demand
D
Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher

Question 88Single Answer

A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where

A
Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year
B
Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year
C
Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year
D
Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days

Question 89Single Answer

What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?

A
11 to 15 mm
B
8 to 10 mm
C
15 to 17 mm
D
5 to 7 mm

Question 90Single Answer

Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (Q_A to Q_B) .

Question 91Single Answer

Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .

A
The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
B
Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
C
The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
D
The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit

Question 92Single Answer

A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is

A
0.5 L
B
0.85 L
C
2 L
D
0.75 L

Question 93Single Answer

What is the principle of plane surveying ?

A
Working from part to whole
B
Working from point to area
C
Working from angle to volume
D
Working from whole to part

Question 94Single Answer

According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :

A
100 m
B
1000 m
C
600 m
D
150 m

Question 95Single Answer

A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :

A
20
B
25
C
15
D
10

Question 96Single Answer

What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?

A
Reduces the secondary hydration process
B
Increases the heat of hydration
C
Increases the amount of air entrainment
D
Reduces the heat of hydration

Question 97Single Answer

As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :

A
M 20 and M 30
B
M 20 and M 25
C
M 22 and M 40
D
M 15 and M 25

Question 98Single Answer

Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :

A
Mass density
B
Moment of inertia
C
Poission’s ratio
D
Modulus of elasticity

Question 99Single Answer

As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?

A
120
B
140
C
70
D
60

Question 100Single Answer

No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :

A
0.5 m²
B
1.0 m²
C
3 m²
D
0.75 m²

Question 101Single Answer

What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?

A
20 cm
B
10 cm
C
30 cm
D
25 cm

Question 102Single Answer

Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements

A
Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
B
Both statements S1 and S2 are false
C
Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
D
Both statements S1 and S2 are true

Question 103Single Answer

If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :

A
121^o25'
B
148^o25'
C
58^o25'
D
211^o25'

Question 104Single Answer

The overflowing sheet of water on a weir is called :

A
creek
B
crest
C
limp
D
nappe

Question 105Single Answer

According to IS 456 - 2000, what is the slump of a medium degree of workability of concrete if planed in heavily reinforced sections like slabs, beams, walls, columns ?

A
10 - 25 mm
B
25 - 50 mm
C
0 - 10 mm
D
50 - 100 mm

Question 106Single Answer

Which of the following is Kharif season in India ?

A
March / April to June / July
B
December / January to April / May
C
May / June to October / November
D
October / November to April / May

Question 107Single Answer

The estimated value of a built - up property at the end of its useful life without dismantled is called :

A
market value
B
book value
C
scrap value
D
salvage value

Question 108Single Answer

The amount of cement required for 100 m²area, of damp proof course with 2.5 cm thinkness, in with proportion of 1: 2 : 4 (cement : sand : aggregate) will be :

A
2.5 m²
B
0.55 m²
C
1.10 m²
D
0.25 m²

Question 109Single Answer

Select the correct statement related to increasing the carbon content in steel from 0.2 to 0.9 percent .

A
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and increases the ductility
B
Increasing the carbon content in steel increases the yield stress and reduces the ductility
C
Increasing the carbon content in steel decreases the yield stress and does not affect the ductility
D
Increasing the carbon content in steel does not have any effect on the yield stress or ductility

Question 110Single Answer

Which of the following laws states that pressure or intensity of pressure at a point is static fluid is equal in all directions ?

A
Newton's law
B
Pascal's law
C
Darcy's law
D
Hydrostatic law

Question 111Single Answer

What is the primary property of a fluid?

A
Inability to resist shear stress
B
High compressive strength
C
Fixed shape
D
High rigidity

Question 112Single Answer

What is the specific gravity of a fluid?

A
Ratio of fluid density to water density
B
Ratio of fluid viscosity to water viscosity
C
Ratio of fluid pressure to water pressure
D
Ratio of fluid volume to water volume

Question 113Single Answer

किसी तरल पदार्थ का प्राथमिक गुण क्या है?

A
कतरनी तनाव का प्रतिरोध करने में असमर्थता
B
उच्च संपीड़न शक्ति
C
निश्चित आकार
D
उच्च कठोरता

Question 114Single Answer

किसी द्रव का विशिष्ट गुरुत्व क्या है?

A
द्रव घनत्व से जल घनत्व का अनुपात
B
द्रव श्यानता से जल श्यानता का अनुपात
C
द्रव दबाव और जल दबाव का अनुपात
D
द्रव आयतन से जल आयतन का अनुपात

Question 115Single Answer

What is runoff in hydrology defined as?

A
Water that infiltrates into the ground
B
Water that flows over the surface into streams
C
Water stored in reservoirs
D
Water evaporated from the surface

Question 116Single Answer

Which factor most significantly affects runoff estimation?

A
Soil permeability
B
Air temperature
C
Wind speed
D
Cloud cover

Question 117Single Answer

What is the primary purpose of runoff estimation in hydrology?

A
Determine groundwater recharge
B
Design hydraulic structures
C
Measure evaporation rates
D
Calculate soil moisture

Question 118Single Answer

What is the degree of kinematic indeterminacy for a simply supported beam with an internal hinge?

Question 119Single Answer

What is the primary structural behavior of a frame under vertical loads?

A
Axial deformation
B
Bending deformation
C
Shear deformation
D
Torsional deformation

Question 120Single Answer

How many plastic hinges are required for collapse in a portal frame with fixed supports?

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