Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
Sattriya dance form is famous in which of these states ?
A
Assam
B
Himachal Pradesh
C
Punjab
D
Tamil Nadu
Question 10Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 11Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 12Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 13Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 14Single Answer
What is the lithosphere composed of ?
A
Water and gases
B
Rocks and minerals
C
Living organisms
D
Air and gases
Question 15Single Answer
The lithosphere includes :
A
Only the Earth's crust
B
The Earth's crust and upper mantle
C
Only the Earth's mantle
D
The Earth's crust, mantle, and core
Question 16Single Answer
Which country's Supreme Leader, Ali Khamenei, was assassinated in a joint US-Israel strike in late February 2026?
A
Syria
B
Iraq
C
Lebanon
D
Iran
Question 17Single Answer
What was the primary goal stated for the 2026 Israeli–United States strikes on Iran?
A
Nuclear disarmament only
B
Border security
C
Economic sanctions enforcement
D
Regime change in Tehran
Question 18Single Answer
Which Indian state won its maiden Ranji Trophy title recently (reported in early March 2026)?
A
Mumbai
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Jammu & Kashmir
D
Karnataka
Question 19Single Answer
What funding amount did Germany announce for a new climate resilience initiative with India in February 2026?
A
EUR 10 million
B
EUR 100 million
C
EUR 50 million
D
EUR 20 million
Question 20Single Answer
Which Indian state launched its first Dark Sky Park in Kolli Hills in February 2026?
A
Kerala
B
Tamil Nadu
C
Uttarakhand
D
Himachal Pradesh
Physics
Question 21Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 22Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 23Single Answer
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m
Question 24Single Answer
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront
Question 25Single Answer
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A
0.75 A
B
1 A
C
2 A
D
1.5 A
Question 26Single Answer
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A
anywhere
B
emitter-collector
C
collector-base
D
base-emitter
Question 27Single Answer
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A
2 and 4
B
1 only
C
3 and 4
D
4 only
Question 28Single Answer
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
A
S1,S2 and S4
B
S2 and S4
C
S4 only
D
S3 only
Question 29Single Answer
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
A
low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B
high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C
high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D
low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Question 30Single Answer
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
A
same in all the medium
B
lesser in rarer medium
C
lesser in denser medium
D
independent of the medium
Question 31Single Answer
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
A
(2𝜋 + 1)λ
B
2n𝜋
C
nλ
D
n
Question 32Single Answer
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
A
multimeter
B
voltmeter
C
voltameter
D
potentiometer
Question 33Single Answer
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
A
Both K and L increase
B
Both K and L remain unchanged
C
K remains constant, L increases
D
K increases but L remains constant
Question 34Single Answer
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
A
Gas constant (R)
B
Pressure (p)
C
Volume (V)
D
Temperature (T)
Question 35Single Answer
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
A
300 m
B
3 km
C
15 m
D
15 km
Question 36Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 37Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 38Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 39Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 40Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 41Single Answer
Maxwell is the unit of
A
magnetic susceptibility
B
intensity of Magnetisation
C
magnetic Flux
D
magnetic Permeability
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Length
D
Time
Question 43Single Answer
What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
A
Wb A–1 m–1
B
Wb–1 Am
C
Wb A m–1
D
Wb A–1 m
Question 44Single Answer
The dimensions of pressure gradient are
A
[ML–2 T–2]
B
[ML–2 T–1]
C
[ML–1 T–1]
D
[ML–1 T–2]
Question 45Single Answer
The dimensions of Rydberg's constant are
A
[M0L–1T]
B
[MLT–1]
C
[M0 L–1T0]
D
[ML0 T2]
Question 46Single Answer
'Farad' is the unit of
A
resistance
B
conductance
C
capacitance
D
inductance
Question 47Single Answer
S.I. unit of surface tension is
A
degree/cm
B
N/m
C
N/m²
D
Nm
Question 48Single Answer
Which one of the following pairs does not have the same dimension ?
A
Potential energy and Kinetic energy
B
Density and specific gravity
C
Focal length and height
D
Gravitational force and frictional force
Question 49Single Answer
Which one of the following physical quantity has the same unit as that of pressure ?
A
Angular momentum
B
Stress
C
Strain
D
Work
Question 50Single Answer
The symbol of SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for
A
Holm
B
Halogen
C
Henry
D
Hertz
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Physics
Question 51Single Answer
Light year is a measure of
A
time
B
distance
C
total amount of light falling on the Earth in a year
D
average intensity of light falling on the Earth in a year
Question 52Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a dimension less quantity ?
A
Strain
B
Relative density
C
Frequency
D
Angle
Question 53Single Answer
The dimensions of universal gas constant are
A
[L² M¹ T–2 K–1]
B
[L¹ M² T–2 K–1]
C
[L¹ M¹ T–2 K–1]
D
[L² M² T–2 K–1]
Question 54Single Answer
The dimensions of magnetic moment are
A
[L²A¹]
B
[L²A–1]
C
[L²/A³]
D
[LA²]
Question 55Single Answer
The dimensions of Wien's constant are
A
[ML0TK]
B
[M0LT0K]
C
[M0L0TK]
D
[MLTK]
Question 56Single Answer
The dimensional formula of wave number is
A
[M0L0T–1]
B
[M0L–1T0]
C
[M–1 L–1 T0]
D
[M0 L0 T0]
Question 57Single Answer
The dimensional of Hubble ‘s wave number is
A
[T–1]
B
[M0L0T–2]
C
[MLT4]
D
[MT–1]
Question 58Single Answer
The dimensions of solar constant is
A
[M0L0T0]
B
[MLT–2]
C
[ML²T–2]
D
MT–3
Question 59Single Answer
The dimensional formula for entropy is
A
[MLT–2K¹]
B
[ML2 T-2]
C
[ML²T–2K–1]
D
[ML²T–2K]
Question 60Single Answer
Dimension of specific heat are
A
[ML² T–2 K]
B
[ML² T–2 K–1]
C
[ML²T²K–1]
D
[L²T–2K–2]
Question 61Single Answer
The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula [M¹T–3] is
A
surface tension
B
solar constant
C
density
D
compressibility
Question 62Single Answer
Which one of the following elements is used as a timekeeper in atomic clocks ?
A
Potassium
B
Caesium
C
Calcium
D
Magnesium
Question 63Single Answer
Which one of the following is the value of one nanometer ?
A
10–7 cm
B
10–6 cm
C
10–4 cm
D
10–3 cm
Question 64Single Answer
What is the unit of pressure ?
A
Newton/sq. meter
B
Newton–meter
C
Newton
D
Newton/meter
Question 65Single Answer
The unit of pressure is
A
kg/cm²
B
kg/cm
C
kg/mm
D
kg/cm3
Question 66Single Answer
Which one of the following quantities doe not have unit ?
A
Stress
B
Force
C
Strain
D
Pressure
Question 67Single Answer
Dimensional formula for thermal conductivity is here K denotes the temperature:
A
MLT–2K
B
MLT–2K–2
C
MLT–3K
D
MLT–3K–1
Question 68Single Answer
Which of the following is the unit of molar gas constant ?
A
JK–1 mol–1
B
Joule
C
JK–1
D
J mol–1
Question 69Single Answer
Density of liquid is 16.8 g cm–3. Its value in the International System of Units is
A
16.8 kgm–3
B
168 kgm–3
C
1680 kgm–3
D
16800 kgm–3
Question 70Single Answer
The dimensional formula of couple is
A
[ML² T–2]
B
[MLT²]
C
[ML–1T–3]
D
[ML–2T–2]
Chemistry
Question 71Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 72Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 73Single Answer
The one which decreases with dilution is
A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance
Question 74Single Answer
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A
28 mm
B
56 mm
C
70 mm
D
140 mm
Question 75Single Answer
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A
1 M solution of glucose
B
0.05 M solution of glucose
C
6% solution of glucose
D
25% solution of glucose
Question 76Single Answer
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A
to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B
to minimise the snow fall
C
to minimise pollution
D
to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Question 77Single Answer
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A
AB2
B
A2B
C
AB
D
AB3
Question 78Single Answer
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A
decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B
decreases electron density at meta position
C
increases electron density at meta position
D
increases electron density at ortho and para position
Question 79Single Answer
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A
PCI5
B
PCI3
C
SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D
dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Question 80Single Answer
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A
in between C2H6 and C2H4
B
same as in C2H4
C
in between C2H6 and C2H2
D
in between C2H4 and C2H2
Question 81Single Answer
The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is
A
methanal
B
propanal
C
propanone
D
ethanal
Question 82Single Answer
An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is
A
CH3CH2OH
B
CH3 – C – CH3
C
(CH3)2CHOH
D
CH3CHO
Question 83Single Answer
Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
A
NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
B
NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
C
(CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
D
CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
Question 84Single Answer
The one which has least iodine value is
A
sunflower oil
B
ginger oil
C
ghee
D
groundnut oil
Question 85Single Answer
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
A
glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
B
glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
C
glucose reduces the blood sugar level
D
glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
Question 86Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 87Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 88Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 89Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 90Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 91Single Answer
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
A
Glass
B
Cement
C
paint
D
Gun powder
Question 92Single Answer
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
A
Sulphur based
B
Phosphorus based
C
Silicon based
D
Iron based
Question 93Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Magnesium carbonate
C
Magnesium chloride
D
Magnesium sulphate
Question 94Single Answer
Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches ?
A
Red phosphorus
B
White phosphorus
C
Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3)
D
Black phosphorus
Question 95Single Answer
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket ?
A
Nylon –6, 6
B
Rayon
C
Kevlar
D
Dacron
Question 96Single Answer
Which one of the following is another name of RDX
A
Cyanohydrin
B
Dextran
C
Cyclohexane
D
Cyclonite
Question 97Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as an explosive ?
A
Phosphorus trichloride
B
Mercuric oxide
C
Graphite
D
Nitroglycerine
Question 98Single Answer
Flint glass is obtained from which of the following ?
A
Zinc and barium borosilicate
B
Sand, red lead and potassium carbonate
C
Sodium aluminium borosilicate
D
Pure silica and zinc oxide
Question 99Single Answer
Which one of the following correctly defines the state of glass ?
A
Crystalline solid
B
Super cooled liquid
C
Condensed gas
D
Liquid crystal
Question 100Single Answer
Which one of the following is not used as fertilizer ?
A
Ammonium nitrate
B
Ammonium sulphide
C
Ammonium phosphate
D
Ammonium sulphate
Question 101Single Answer
Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells ?
A
Lithium
B
Sodium
C
Rubidium
D
Caesium
Question 102Single Answer
Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder ?
A
It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries
B
It is used for bleaching wood pup in paper factories
C
It is used for disinfecting drinking water
D
It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry
Question 103Single Answer
Hard glass having the same ingredientsas soft glass excepts.
A
hard glass have Na in place of K
B
hard glass having K in place of Na
C
hard glass having both Na and K
D
None of the above
Question 104Single Answer
A complete fertilizer provides
A
N,P, K
B
S, K, N
C
S, B, K
D
N, S, P
Question 105Single Answer
Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the Stomach. A commonly used antacid is.
A
sodium hydrogen phthalate
B
magnesium hydroxide
C
calcium hydroxide
D
manganese acetate
Question 106Single Answer
Annealing of glass is done to.
A
make it brittle
B
make it opaque
C
make it transparent
D
None of the above
Question 107Single Answer
Petrochemicals are obtained from.
A
coal
B
petroleum
C
coal tar
D
All of these
Question 108Single Answer
The use of chemicals for treatment of diseases is called as.
A
isothermotherapy
B
angiotherapy
C
physiotherapy
D
chemotherapy
Question 109Single Answer
Which of the following is a hypnotic drug ?
A
luminal
B
salol
C
catechol
D
chemisol
Question 110Single Answer
Teflon is a polymer of which of the following monomers ?
A
Tetrafluoroethylene
B
Vinyl chloride
C
Acetylene dichloride
D
None of the above/More than one of the above
Question 111Single Answer
LPG used as domestic fuel chiefly contains–
A
Methane
B
Propane
C
Ethylene
D
Butane
E
None of the above/More than one of the above
Question 112Single Answer
Glass is a.
A
liquid
B
colloid
C
non–crystalline amorphous solid
D
crystalline solid
Question 113Single Answer
Which one of the following acids is used for etching glass ?
A
H2SO4
B
HNO3
C
HF
D
HCI
Question 114Single Answer
What is the purpose of adding plasticizers in paint manufacturing process ?
A
They act as a film–forming constituent
B
They reduce the viscosity
C
They prevent the polymerization and condensation
D
They provide elasticity to the film and minimize its cracking
Question 115Single Answer
Which raw material is used in the preperation of soft glass ?
A
K2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3
B
K2CO3, SiO2, PbCO3
C
Na2CO3, SiO2, CaCO3
D
Na2CO3, SiO2, PbO
Question 116Single Answer
What is the composition of nitrolim – a chemical fertilizer ?
A
Nitrogen and limestone
B
Calcium carbide and nitrogen
C
Calcium carbide and carbon
D
None of above
Question 117Single Answer
the major component used in preparation of different type of glasses is.
A
Silica
B
Sodium borate
C
Calcium silicate
D
Sodium silicate
Question 118Single Answer
Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks ?
A
Zinc and sulphur
B
Potassium and mercury
C
Strontium and barium
D
Chromium and nickel
Question 119Single Answer
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Phenyl is used as a household germicide.
Statement II : Phenyl is phenol derivative and phenol is an effective germicide.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
C
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Question 120Single Answer
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Coal–based thermal power stations contribute to acid–rain.
Statement II : Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A
Both Statement I and II are individually correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
B
Both Statement I and Statement II are individiaully correct but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
C
Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
D
Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct
Mathematics
Question 121Single Answer
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
A
{–2, 2}
B
{–1, 0, 1}
C
{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
D
{0, 1, 2}
Question 122Single Answer
A
B
C
D
None of these
Question 123Single Answer
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
A
{2}
B
{1, 2}
C
{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
D
{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Question 124Single Answer
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
A
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
B
{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
C
{2, 4, 6}
D
{1, 3, 5}
Question 125Single Answer
If A B and A B, then
A
A is called a proper subset of B
B
A is called a super set of B
C
A is not a subset of B
D
B is a subset of A
Question 126Single Answer
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
A
15
B
14
C
16
D
17
Question 127Single Answer
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
A
2m – 1
B
m
C
m2
D
2m
Question 128Single Answer
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
A
3
B
8
C
7
D
None of these
Question 129Single Answer
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
A
16
B
15
C
4
D
None of these
Question 130Single Answer
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
A
A is always a subset of the complement of B
B
B is always a subset of A
C
A and B are always disjoint
D
A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint
Question 131Single Answer
Which of the following is/are empty set?
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z} B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
A
A
B
B
C
Both A and B
D
None of the above
Question 132Single Answer
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
A
empty
B
finite
C
infinite
D
singleton
Question 133Single Answer
The universal set for the sets
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
A
{1, 2}
B
{1, 3}
C
{1, 2, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}
Question 134Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0},
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
A
A and B
B
A and C
C
A, B and C
D
A, C and D
Question 135Single Answer
If A = (–3, 5) and B = [–7, 9], then
A
A = B
B
A B
C
B A
D
None of these
Question 136Single Answer
Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are
A
7, 6
B
5, 1
C
6, 3
D
8, 7
Question 137Single Answer
Combine terms: 12a + 26b - 4b – 16a .
A
4a + 22b
B
-28a + 30b
C
-4a + 22b
D
28a + 30b
Question 138Single Answer
The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .
A
25.30
B
25.5
C
25.00
D
12.25
Question 139Single Answer
60 Times of 8 Equals to
A
480
B
300
C
250
D
400
Question 140Single Answer
Consider the sets
A = {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}
B = {x : x is a real number and x2 – 16 = 0}
C = {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}
Which of the following is are null set ?
A
A
B
A and B
C
A and C
D
A, B and C
Question 141Single Answer
If X = {4n – 3n – 1: n Î N} and Y = {9(n – 1): n Î N}; where N is the set of natural numbers, then X È Y is equal to
A
N
B
Y – X
C
X
D
Y
Question 142Single Answer
Which of the following is / are correct?
I. {2, 3, 4} {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
II. {a, b, c} {b, c, d}
III. {x : x is an equilateral triangle in a plane} Ì {x : x is a triangle in the same plane}
IV. {x : x is an even natural number} {x : x is an integer}
A
I and III are correct
B
II and III are correct
C
Only IV is correct
D
All above are correct
Question 143Single Answer
A
B
C
D
Question 144Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The set of all irrational numbers between √2 and √5 is an infinite set .
2. The set of all odd integers less than 100 is a finite set .
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 145Single Answer
What is the Next Prime Number after 7 ?
A
13
B
12
C
14
D
11
Question 146Single Answer
If A and B are two given sets, then A (A B)C is equal to
A
A
B
B
C
D
Question 147Single Answer
121 Divided by 11 is
A
11
B
10
C
19
D
18
Question 148Single Answer
Let X be the universal set for sets A and B, if n(A) = 200, n(B) = 300 and n = 100, then n is equal to 300 provided n(X) is equal to
A
600
B
700
C
800
D
900
Question 149Single Answer
A
{3, 4, 10}
B
{2, 8, 10}
C
{4, 5, 6}
D
{3, 5, 14}
Question 150Single Answer
Let A = {x : x is a prime factor of 240} B = {x : x is the sum of any two prime factors of 240}, then
A
B
C
D
Question 151Single Answer
If A = {x : x is a multiple of 4 and x N} and B = {x : x is a multiple of 6 and x N}, then A B consists of all multiples of
A
16
B
12
C
8
D
4
Question 152Single Answer
A
A = B
B
B = C
C
A = C
D
None of these
Question 153Single Answer
A
equal
B
disjoint
C
either equal or disjoint
D
none of the above
Question 154Single Answer
A
{–i, i}
B
{–1, 1}
C
{–1, 1, i, –i}
D
None of these
Question 155Single Answer
If A = {x : f(x)= 0} and
B = {x : g(x) = 0}, then A B will be
A
[f(x)]2 + [g(x)]2 = 0
B
C
D
None of the above
Question 156Single Answer
In a group of 400 people, 250 can speak Hindi and 200 can speak English. Then, people who can speak both Hindi and English are
A
60
B
80
C
50
D
45
Question 157Single Answer
20 teachers of a school either teach Mathematics or Physics. 12 of them teach Mathematics while 4 teach both the subjects. The number of teacher teaching Physics only, is
A
12
B
8
C
16
D
20
Question 158Single Answer
In a class of 100 students, 70 have taken Science, 60 have taken Mathematics, 40 have taken both Science and Mathematics. The number of students who have not taken Science or Mathematics or both Science and Mathematics, is equal to
A
90
B
10
C
30
D
20
Question 159Single Answer
A market research group conducted a survey of 1000 consumers and reported that 720 consumers like product A and 450 consumers like the product B, then least number that must have like both products, is
A
730
B
170
C
180
D
1270
Question 160Single Answer
If there are three athletic teams in a school, 21 are in the basketball team, 26 in hockey team and 29 in the football team. 14 play hockey and basketball, 15 play hockey and football, 12 play football and basketball and 8 play all the games. The total number of members is
A
42
B
43
C
45
D
None of these
Question 161Single Answer
A college awarded 38 medals in football, 15 in basketball and 20 in cricket. If these medals went to a total of 58 men and only three men got medals in all the three sports, then number of men who received meal in exactly two of the three sports is
A
18
B
15
C
9
D
24
Question 162Single Answer
In the class of 175 students, the following data shows the number of students opting one or more subjects. Mathematics 100; Physics 70; Chemistry 40; Mathematics and Physics 30; Mathematics and Chemistry 28; Physics and Chemistry 23; Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry 18. Then, number of students opted Mathematics alone is
A
35
B
48
C
60
D
20
Question 163Single Answer
In a town of 10000 families it was found that 40% family buy newspaper A, 20% family buy newspaper B and 10% family buy newspaper C, 5% families buy and B, 3% families buy B and C and 4% families buy A and C. If 2% families buy all the three newspapers. Then, number of families which by A only is
A
3100
B
3300
C
2900
D
1400
Question 164Single Answer
In a city, 20% of the population travles by car, 50% travles by bus and 10% travles by both car and bus. Then, person travelling by car or bus, is
A
80%
B
40%
C
60%
D
70%
Question 165Single Answer
Universal set,
U = {x | x5 – 6x4 + 11x3 – 6 x 2 = 0}
A = {x | x2 – 5x + 6 = 0}
B = {x | x2 – 3x + 2 = 0}
What is the value of (A B)?
A
{1, 3}
B
{1, 2, 3}
C
{0, 1, 3}
D
{0, 1, 2, 3}
Question 166Single Answer
A
B
C
D
Question 167Single Answer
If P(A) denotes the power set of A and A is the void set, then what is the number of elements in P{P{P{P(A)}}}?
A
Zero
B
1
C
4
D
16
Question 168Single Answer
If A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, b = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and C = {x : x2 = 4 or x = 1}, then
A
B
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 169Single Answer
In a group of 50 people, 35 speak Hindi, 25 speak both English and Hindi and all the people speak atleast one of two languages. The number of people who speak 'English', 'English but not Hindi' are respectively
A
40, 15
B
15, 40
C
35, 15
D
25, 15
Question 170Single Answer
If P = {1, 2}, then P × P × P = {(1, 1, 1), (1, 1, 2), (1, 2, 1), (2, 1, 2), (2, 2, 1), (2, 2, 2)}. The ordered triplet missing in P × P × P are
A
(1, 2), (2, 1)
B
(1, 2, 1), (2, 1, 1)
C
(1, 2, 2), (2, 1, 2)
D
(1, 2, 2), (2, 1, 1)
Question 171Single Answer
In a college part girls and part boys attended a social camp. How many parts in the collegs students attended the camp ?
A
B
C
D
E
None of the above
Question 172Single Answer
The sum of two number is 16 and their difference is 2. What is the product to both numbers ?
A
35
B
56
C
56
D
72
Question 173Single Answer
What are the positive factors of 160 .
A
6
B
8
C
5
D
12
Question 174Single Answer
What is the value of (51 + 52 + 53 ........100) ?
A
1325
B
5050
C
3775
D
3325
Question 175Single Answer
What is the sum of all natural numbers that come in the between 1 to 100, which a multiple of 7 ?
A
735
B
745
C
675
D
705
Question 176Single Answer
What is the unit digit of 279 + 167 × 342 ?
A
1
B
3
C
5
D
8
Question 177Single Answer
Which of the given values is completely divisible by 15 ?
A
2365
B
1375
C
4365
D
2275
Question 178Single Answer
For which value of M, the divisor 34M fully divisible by 12 ?
A
2
B
0
C
8
D
6
Question 179Single Answer
If 432p1 is completely divisiable 34M fully divisiable by 12 ?
A
1
B
8
C
7
D
2
Question 180Single Answer
Which is the smallest number to be added to 100, so that the resulting number is completely divisible by 6 ?
A
2
B
3
C
5
D
4
Question 181Single Answer
When a number is divided by 80, the remainded is 20. When the same number is divided by 16, what will be the remainder ?
A
2
B
4
C
6
D
8
Question 182Single Answer
Which of the fractions is the largest among and ?
A
B
C
D
All are equal
Question 183Single Answer
What is the two digits largest prime number ?
A
91
B
93
C
97
D
99
Question 184Single Answer
What is the sum of first 15 odd natural numbers ?
A
255
B
225
C
235
D
215
Question 185Single Answer
What will be the sum of all natural numbers from 75 to 97 ?
A
1598
B
1978
C
1798
D
1958
Question 186Single Answer
If the quotient of is positive, which of the following would be true ?
A
a > 0
B
b > 0
C
ab > 0
D
a + b > 0
Question 187Single Answer
If the last two digits of a three-digit number is multiple of 6, then the original integer will always be divisible by ?
A
6
B
3
C
2
D
12
Question 188Single Answer
Find three consecutive numbers, in which sum of the two times of the first, three of second and four time of the third number os 191 ?
A
19, 20, 21
B
21, 22, 23
C
20, 21, 22
D
22, 23, 24
Question 189Single Answer
An office has 108 table and 132 chairs. If tables and of the chairs are broken, then how many people can work in the office, if required 1 table and 1 chair ?
A
86
B
90
C
90
D
99
Question 190Single Answer
If the sum of two numbers is a and the product is b, then what will be the sum of their reciprocal ?
A
B
C
D
Question 191Single Answer
The sum of all prime numbers not greater than 17 is ?
A
59
B
58
C
41
D
42
Question 192Single Answer
What is the decimal fraction of 2.349 ?
A
B
C
D
Question 193Single Answer
Which of the following number is divisible by 9 ?
A
45699
B
12381
C
45696
D
12348
Question 194Single Answer
The largest 4 - digit number is X, which is divisible by 18, 15 and 12 . Then the value of X will be ?
A
9989
B
9980
C
9999
D
9900
Question 195Single Answer
The sum of two numbers is 20 and the product is 91 . What should be the sum of their reciprocal ?
A
B
C
D
Question 196Single Answer
Find the smallest 6 digit number which is multiple of 18 ?
A
100000
B
999900
C
100008
D
100006
Question 197Single Answer
The sum of a fraction and its reciprocal is the fractions is ?
A
B
C
D
4
Question 198Single Answer
The sum of digits of a twodigit number is 9 . By subtracting 27 from number, the digits of the number are interchanged, so what is that number ?
A
72
B
63
C
45
D
None of these
Question 199Single Answer
The product of two positive numbers is 2500. If one of these numbers is four times more than the other, then what will be the sum of these two numbers ?
A
25
B
125
C
225
D
None of these
Question 200Single Answer
A studednt were asked to divide a number by 3, but instead of dividing it, multiplied that number by 3, so that he got 29.7 as the result, what would be the correct result ?