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UPPCL Junior Engineer Exam (Civil) - English

Duration: 180 · Questions: 200 · Max Marks: 200 · Language: 3

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Civil

1
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
  1. A.Maximum daily demand 
  2. B.Maximum hourly demand and fire demand 
  3. C.Average demand 
  4. D.Maximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
2
 A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
  1. A.Rainfall occurs for a very few days in a year 
  2. B.Rainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year 
  3. C.Air temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year 
  4. D.Air temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days 
3
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
  1. A.40.5m3
  2. B.50m3
  3. C.75m3
  4. D.94.7m3
4
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
  1. A.Flow rate through the tank 
  2. B.Diameter of the particle intended to be removed 
  3. C.Volume of the sedimentation tank 
  4. D.Detention time in the tank
5
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant : 
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
 Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B.1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C.1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D.3 and 4 only   
6
A drain carrying 5m3/s of wastewater with its BOD of 100mg/l joins a stream carrying 50 m3/ s flow with its BOD of 5mg/l. What will be the value of the BOD of the combined flow after complete mixing?
  1. A.3.6 mg/l
  2. B.13.6 mg/l
  3. C.33.6 mg/l
  4. D.53.6 mg/l
7
Consider the following statements in respect of aerated grit chamber:
1. The grit accumulates at the bottom in advancing spiral-flow aeration tanks, location ally preceded by grit chambers, led to the eventual development of aerated grit chambers.
2. The excessive wear on grit handling equipment is a major factor for the popularity of aerated grit chambers.
3. Aerated grit chambers are designed to provide detention period of 1 minute at maximum rate of flow.  
4. Diffusers are located at 0.45 m to 0.6 m above the bottom of teh chamber.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B.3 and 4 only 
  3. C.1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
8
Quick sand condition occurs when 
  1. A.the void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0  
  2. B.the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes zero 
  3. C.the upward seepage pressure in soil becones equal to the saturated unit weight of he soil 
  4. D.the upward seepage pressure in soil becomes equal to he submerged unit weight of the soil 
9
The side of a square land was measured as 150 m and is in error by 0.05 m. What is the corresponding error in the computed area of the land.
  1. A.5 m2
  2. B.25 m2
  3. C.10 m2
  4. D.20 m2 
10
Consider the following statements in respect of anaerobic sludge digester:
1. It is less expensive compared to several other methods available.
2. Processing of separable solids impacts the environment to a minimum
3. Quantity of separated solids requiring disposal is minimal
4. Digested sludge is very readily dewaterable.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B.1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C.3 and 4 only 
  4. D.1, 2 and 4 only
11
Consider the following statements as regards a Septic Tank 
1. The size required is large and uneconomical when serving more than roughly 100 persons.
2. It can remove around 90% of BOD and 80% of suspended solids.
3. As compared to the sludge holdings of a plain sedimentation tank, a septic tank can hold about 90% less of sludge volume.
4. Frequent removal of sludge is not required Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.1 and 3
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.1 and 4
12
Sewage sickness relates to 
  1. A.Toxicity of sewage interfering with ‘response’ to treatment 
  2. B.Destruction of aquatic flora and fauna due to gross pollution of receiving bodies of water by the sewage 
  3. C.reduction in the waste purifying capacity of the soil 
  4. D.Clogging of pores in soil due to excessive application of sewage leading to obstruction of land aeration thereby leading to septic conditions in the land
13
The waste water of a certain large colony contains 10–5.6 mmol of OH– ions at 25ºC. The pH of this sample is
  1. A.8.6 
  2. B.7.9 
  3. C.5.4 
  4. D.4.5 
14
Consider the relevance of the following features for causing photochemical smog:
1. Air stagnation
2. Abundant sunlight
3. High concentration of NOx in atmosphere.
4. High concentration of SO2 in atmosphere. Which of the above features are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 4 only 
  2. B.3 and 4 only 
  3. C.1, 2 and 3 only 
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
15
Consider the following statements related to ecology:
1. All the physical, chemical and biological factors that a species needs in order to live and reproduce is called ecological niche.
2. The boundary zone between two ecosystems is known as ecotone.
3. The forests in the Arctics are known as tundra.
4. A biome usually has a distinct climate and life forms adapted to that climate. Biome is more extensive and complex than an ecosystem Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only 
  3. C.3 and 4 only 
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
16
Consider the following laws of ecology suggested by Barry Commoner:
1. Everything is connected to everything else.
2. Everything must go somewhere.
3. Nature knows best.
4. There is no such thing as a free lunch.
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only 
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only 
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4 
17
For a hydraulically efficient rectangular channel of bed width 5m, the hydraulic radius is
  1. A.0.5m
  2. B.1.25m
  3. C.2.75m
  4. D.4.25m
18
A soil sample has shrinkage limit of 6%, and the specific gravity of the soil grains is 2.6. The porosity of soil at shrinkage limit is
  1. A.7.5% 
  2. B.9.5% 
  3. C.13.5% 
  4. D.16.5% 
19
Local mean time of a place of longitude of 42036’ W is 8h 42m 15s AM. The corresponding Green which Mean Time is
  1. A.10 h 32 m 40 s AM
  2. B.11h 32 m 39s PM
  3. C.0 h 32 m 39s PM 
  4. D.11 h 32 m 39s AM
20
A vertical photograph of a flat area having an average elevation of 250m above mean sea level was taken with a camera of focal length 25 cm. A section line AB 300 m long in the area measures 15cm on the photograph; a tower BP in the area also appears on the photograph. The distance between images of top and bottom of the tower measures 0.5 cm on the photograph. The distance of the image of the top of the tower is 10 cm. The actual height of the tower is
  1. A.10 m
  2. B.15 m
  3. C.20 m
  4. D.25 m
21
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ? 
  1. A.1 and 3 only
  2. B.1 and 4 only
  3. C.2 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
22
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
 2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.2, 3 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
23
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
  1. A.Methane and Hydrogen
  2. B.Hydrogen Sulphide
  3. C.Carbonic acid and Hydrogen
  4. D.Ammonia
24
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
  1. A.Excessive burning of bricks
  2. B.High silt content in brick clay
  3. C.High porosity of bricks
  4. D.Soluble salts present in parent clay
25
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick  
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
26
Consider the following test :
1. Transverse strength test
2. Water absorption test
3. Impact test
4. Breaking strength test
Which of the above are relevant to testing of tiles ?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
27
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the strength of cement ?
1. Particle sizes less than 3 m increases the viscous nature of the cement.
2. Finer particles in cement can be replaced by fly-ash to improve the strength.
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
28
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
  1. A.Tricalcium silicate
  2. B.Dicalcium silicate
  3. C.Tricalcium aluminate
  4. D.Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
29
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to cement mortar ?
1. Workability of cement mortar can be improved by addition of lime.
2. Fly-ash cement is economical in plastering jobs.
3. Addition of saw dust improves workability.
4. Sand in mortar can be replaced by finely crushed fire bricks.
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1, 2 and 3 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 4 only
30
In a concrete mix of proportion 1 : 3 : 6, the actual quantity of sand, which is judged to have undergone 15% bulking, per unit volume of cement, will be
  1. A.3.00
  2. B.3.45
  3. C.4.50
  4. D.6.00
31
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
  1. A.30 l 
  2. B.35 l
  3. C.40 l
  4. D.45 l
32
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
  1. A.1 : 1 : 1
  2. B.1 : 2 : 3
  3. C.1 : 2 : 4
  4. D.1 : 3 : 4
33
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls. 
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 4
  2. B.1, 3 and 5
  3. C.2, 3 and 4
  4. D.2, 4 and 5
34
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
  1. A.10
  2. B.20
  3. C.25
  4. D.30
35
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
  1. A.11.8
  2. B.12.4
  3. C.14.2 
  4. D.14.8
36
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water 
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1, 2 and 4
  3. C.2, 3 and 4
  4. D.1, 3 and 4
37
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.1 and 3
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.3 and 4
38
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case? 
  1. A.1, 2 and  3 only
  2. B.1, 3 and  4 only
  3. C.2, 3 and  4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
39
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 5 only
  3. C.1, 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 
40
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
  1. A.165 l
  2. B.205 l
  3. C.245 l
  4. D.285 l 
41
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
  1. A.IS : 4970-1973
  2. B.IS : 1708-1969
  3. C.IS : 1141-1958
  4. D.IS : 399-1963 
42
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them 
Which of the above are correct?
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.2 and 4 only
  3. C.1 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
43
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
  1. A.Parallel to each other
  2. B.At right angle to one another
  3. C.45° oblique to adjacent grain
  4. D.Not constrained by any consideration
44
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
  1. A.It must be free from lumps of lime
  2. B.It should not be mixed with salty water
  3. C.It must be non-homogeneous
  4. D.It should not contain vegetable and organic matter 
45
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
  1. A.440 kg/cm2
  2. B.175 kg/cm2
  3. C.100kg/cm2
  4. D.75kg/cm2 
46
Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds. 
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.3 and 4
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.1 and 4
47
Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia 
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.1 and 3
  3. C.1, 2 and 4
  4. D.2, 3 and 4
48
Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
  1. A.Magnesium oxide
  2. B.Silica
  3. C.Alumina
  4. D.Calcium sulphate
49
Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
  1. A.Ordinary Portland
  2. B.High Alumina
  3. C.Low-heat Portland
  4. D.Portland Cement
50
Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.2, 3 and 4
  3. C.3, 4 and 5
  4. D.2, 3 and 5 
51
Consider the following statements regarding ‘strength of cement’:
1.Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement-sand mix.
2.Water to be used for the paste is 0.25 P, where P is the water needed for normal consistency.
3.The normal consistency is determined on Le Chatelier’s principle.
4.Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each layer by vibration on a machine. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 4
  4. D.3 and 4 
52
Which of the following ingredients refer to binding material of mortar?
1.Cement
2.Lime
3.Sand
4.Ashes 
Select the correct answer using the code given below. 
  1. A.1 and 4
  2. B.3 and 4 
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.2 and 3
53
Consider the following statements:
1.Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
2.Mortars make brick damp-proof.
3.Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
4.Addition of lime improves workability.
5.Marine construction needs sulphate-resistant cement mortar. 
Which of the above statements are relevant for ‘cement mortar’? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.2, 3 and 4 
  3. C.1, 4 and 5
  4. D.3, 4 and 5 
54
Consider the following parameters of concrete:
1.Impermeability
2.Compactness
3.Durability
4.Desired consistency
5.Workability 
Which of the above parameters are relevant for ‘water-cement ratio’? 
  1. A.4 and 5
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.2 and 4
  4. D.3 and 5
55
Consider the following statements:Presence of Na2O and K2O in concrete leads to
1.Expansive reaction in concrete
2.Cracking of concrete
3.Disruption of concrete
4.Shrinkage of concrete 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3
  4. D.3 and 4 
56
The maximum total quantity of dry aggregate by mass per 50 kg of cement, to be taken as the sum of the individual masses of fine and coarse aggregates (kg), for M20 grade of concrete is
  1. A.625
  2. B.480
  3. C.330
  4. D.250
57
Absorption capacity of an aggregate refers to the difference expresses in appropriate proportion in water content between
  1. A.A wet aggregate and a dry aggregate
  2. B.A dry aggregate and a wet aggregate
  3. C.A saturated surface-dry aggregate and a dry aggregate
  4. D.A saturated surface-dry aggregate and an over dry aggregate 
58
Consider the following statements concerning  ‘elasticity of concrete’:
1.Stress-strain behavior of concrete is a straight line up to 10% ultimate stress.
2.Strain determination is obtained from tangent modulus.
3.Modulus of elasticity of concrete is also called as secant modulus. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 2 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
59
Consider the following statements :The addition of CaCl2 in concrete results in
1.Increased shrinkage
2.Decreased setting time
3.Decreased shrinkage
4.Increased setting time 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.1 and 2
60
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.Knots in a tree affect the continuity of fibres.
2.Nail knots do not influence the strength of timber.
3.Druxiness of wood is not a defect.
4.Tall trees with twisted fibers give good timber for poles.
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3 only
  4. D.2, 3 and 4 only
61
Excrescences in wood are
1.Defects found in trees
2.Formed due to injuries inflicted on trees when they are growing
3.Defects which render wood suitable as firewood only
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
62
What treatment is adopted for making timber fire-resistant?
  1. A.ASCU treatment
  2. B.Abel’s process
  3. C.Creosoting
  4. D.Tarring 
63
Deterioration of structure of timber due to dry rot is:
1.Caused by fungi
2.Due to dry-spell after heavy rains
3.Due to attack of termites
4.ndicated by surface stripes on scantlings  
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.3 and 4
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.1 and 4
64
Alternate wetting and drying of timber :
1.Results in shrinkage and swelling
2.Brings about wet rot onset
3.Increases the durability
4.Causes transmission of spores from germination  
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3 only
  4. D.2, 3 and 4 only
65
As per I.S. classification, the minimum compressive strength of a first class brick should be
  1. A.75 kg/cm3
  2. B.100kg/cm3
  3. C.125 kg/cm3
  4. D.150 kg/cm3
66
When provided with alternating courses of (a) all headers and (b) all stretchers, the front elevation of such brick masonry is designated as
  1. A.English bond
  2. B.Single Flemish bond
  3. C.Double Flemish bond
  4. D.Rat-trap bond
67
I.S. code specifies that the compressive strength of brick shall be determined by keeping the brick:
1.On edge
2.On bed
3.After soaking in water for 2 hrs
4.After soaking in water for 24 hrs  
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.2 and 4
68
Soundness test of cement is carried out to determine its
  1. A.Alumina content
  2. B.Iron oxide content
  3. C.Free lime content
  4. D.Durability under sea water 
69
The objectives of producing cement include:
1.Incorporating industrial wastes
2.Increasing free lime
3.Increasing fineness
4.Saving energy needed in the process  
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1, 3 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 4 only
  4. D.2, 3 and 4 only 
70
A mild steel rod tapers uniformly from 24 mm  mm dia. over its length of 400 mm. The rod when held vertical is subjected to an axial tensile load of 12 kN. E = 2 × 105 N/mm2. The extension of the rod in mm would be:
  1. A.3
    2
  2. B.2
    3
  3. C.3
  4. D.1
    3
71
Two different liquids are flowing through different pipes of the same diameter. In the first pipe, the flow is laminar with centerline velocity,Vmax.1,Whereas in the second pipe, the flow is turbulent. For turbulent flow, the average velocity is 0.82 times the centerline velocity,vmax.2 . For equal volumetric flow rates in both the pipes, the ratio Vmax.1/Vmax.2(up to two decimal place) is_____.
 
  1. A.1.64               
  2. B.2.45
  3. C.0.25
  4. D.1.44            
72
Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.3. Then the ratio of Young’s modulus to bulk modulus is
  1. A.0.6
  2. B.0.8
  3. C.1.2
  4. D.1.4
73
For a gas phase cracking reaction A→B+C at 300℃ , the Gibbs free energy of the reaction at this temperature is ∆G°= -2750J/mol . The pressure is 1 bar and the gas phase can be assumed to be ideal. The universal gas constant =8.314J/mol. K. The fractional molar conversion of A at equilibrium is________.
 
  1. A.0.44  
  2. B.0.50
  3. C.0.64
  4. D.0.80  
74
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.In a ductile material elastic deformation is more predominant than plastic one.
2.Brittleness is not an absolute property of a metal.
3.Rate of loading has no influence in changing the behavior of a metal from ‘ductile’ to ‘brittle’ at low temperatures
4.Under hydrostatic compression, a brittle metal may change into a ductile one. 
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.2 and 4
75
The total deflection of a structure when subjected simultaneously to different sets of loading is equal to the sum of the deflections under each such set of loads as if acting separately on the structure. Which one the following justifies this statement?
  1. A.Elastic limit is not exceeded 
  2. B.Elastic limit including buckling is not exceeded
  3. C.Limit state is not exceeded
  4. D.Proportional limit without buckling is not exceeded
76
A rectangular bar of cross-sectional area a is subjected to an axial tensile load P. The maximum shear stress will occur on a plane at X° to any normal cross-section where X° is
  1. A.90°
  2. B.27°
  3. C.180°
  4. D.45° 
77
A solid circular shaft has been subjected to a pure torsion moment. The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum normal stress at any point would be
  1. A.1 : 2
  2. B.1 : 1
  3. C.2 : 3
  4. D.2 : 1 
78
Which of the following statements are correct?
1.All load carrying members transmit load through basic modes of tension, compression, torsion and shear only.
2.Beams carry transverse loads.
3.Combined loading is a complicated loading.
4.Nature of internal forces decides the aspect of combines loading. 
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.3 and 4
  4. D.2 and 4
79
Identify the WRONG statement amongst the following:
  1. A.steam distillation is used for mixtures that re immiscible with water.
  2. B.Vacuum distillation is used for mixtures that are miscible with water.
  3. C.Steam distillation is used for mixtures that are miscible with water.     
  4. D.vacuum distillation columns have larger diameter as compared to atmospheric columns for the same throughout       
80
Which of the following statements are correct?
1.Experimental results on thin-walled tubes show that maximum normal stress theory is valid.
2.Normal-stress theory is valid in case of brittle materials.
3.In case of pure shear, St. Venant’s theory is more valid than other theories.
4.Tresca’s theory is very closely substantiated by experimental results.
5.In maximum stress theory, the yield locus is a hexagon.  
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.2, 4 and 5
  3. C.1, 2 and 4
  4. D.2, 3 and 4
81
A thin cylindrical shell made of mild steel plate is 1000 mm in diameter. It is to be subjected to an internal pressure of 2 N/mm2. If the material yields at 200N/mm2, the thickness of the plate in mm on the basis of Rankine’s theory of failure with assuming a factor of safety of 3 would be
  1. A.10
  2. B.12
  3. C.15
  4. D.18
82
Which of the following can change if only the catalyst is changed for a reaction system?
  1. A.Enthalpy of reaction
  2. B.Activation energy
  3. C.Free Energy of the reaction
  4. D.Equilibrium constant
83
Which of the following loads should be applied on a simply supported beam, so that the shear force is constant throughout its span?
  1. A.U.D.L. over the entire span.
  2. B.Two concentrated loads equally spaced in the span.
  3. C.A central concentrated load and a U.D.L. over the entires pan. 
  4. D.A couple anywhere in the span. 
84
A simply supported rolled steel joist of I-section has flange width 250 mm and overall depth 600 mm. Its moment of inertia IXX = 12 × 106 mm4. The steel joist is used as a beam over a simply supported span of 6m. It carries a load of 40 kN/m including its self weight throughout the span. The maximum stress induced in the beam in N/mm2 due to bending would be
  1. A.30
  2. B.90
  3. C.45
  4. D.60
85
Which of the following terms represents the torque that produces a twist of one radian in a shaft of unit length?
  1. A.Torsional stress
  2. B.Torsional rigidity
  3. C.Flexural rigidity
  4. D.Moment of resistance 
86
A 60 mm dia. shaft is subjected to a torque of 6 kN-m. C = 8 × 104 N/mm2. The maximum shear stress induced in the shaft in N/mm2will be
  1. A.8000
    92
  2. B.4000
      9
  3. C.12000
        9
  4. D.16000
       9
87
A water main 160 cm dia. contains water at a pressure head of 200m. Take weight of water to be 1000 kg/m3. The thickness of the metal shell required for the water main, given that the maximum permissible stress in the metal is 400kg/cm2, will be
  1. A.1 cm 
  2. B.2 cm
  3. C.3 cm
  4. D.4 cm
88
The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are known as
  1. A.Star shakes
  2. B.Annular rings
  3. C.Cup shakes
  4. D.Hear shakes
89
Consider the following distinguishing characteristics of hardwood:
1.They have distinct annular rings.
2.They are not resinous. 
Which of these characteristics of hardwood is/are correct? 
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Both 1 and 2
  4. D.Neither 1 nor 2 
90
Consider the following statements on the specific gravity of wood:
1.It is always greater than 2.
2.It is less than 1.
3.It is not dependent upon temperature and equilibrium moisture content. 
Which of these statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1 and 3 only 
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 4 only 
91
The age of a log of timber can be estimated by
  1. A.Diameter of pith
  2. B.Thickness of bark
  3. C.Number of annular rings
  4. D.Number of medullary rays 
92
Consider the following statements:Seasoning of timber results in
1.Increased strength
2.Increased durability
3.Reduced resilience
4.Increased dimensional stability 
Which of these statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 4
  2. B.1, 2 and 3
  3. C.1, 3 and 4
  4. D.2, 3 and 4
93
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: 
List-I                                               List-II
Plywood                                          1. Furniture
Fiberboard                                      2. Cantilever arches
Laminated lumber                           3. Insulation
Commercial blockboard                  4. Lining of form-work in concrete
Codes:  
  1. A.A         B         C         D
    1          2          3          4
  2. B. 4          3          2          1
  3. C.4          2          3          1 
  4. D.4          2          3          1 
94
Consider the following statements:Perforated bricks are preferred in construction since
1.They are lighter
2.They are stronger than class 1 bricks
3.They have heat-insulating properties
4.They are cheaper and need less mortar 
Which of these statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.3 and 4 only
95
The standard size of a brick is
  1. A.20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
  2. B.19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
  3. C.18 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
  4. D.18 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm 
96
Consider the following statements:More than 6% magnesium oxide by weight in cement results in
1.High early strength and high heat generation
2.Less tendency towards volume change and formation of cracks 
Which of these statements is/are correct? 
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.Neither 1 nor 2
  4. D.Both 1 and 2 
97
Fineness if cement is measured in the units of
  1. A.Volume/mass
  2. B.Mass/volume
  3. C.Area/mass
  4. D.Mass/area 
98
The initial setting time of cement depends most on
  1. A.Tricalcium aluminate
  2. B.Tricalciumaluminoferrite
  3. C.Dicalcium silicate 
  4. D.Dicalcium silicate 
99
Consider the following statements:Sand in cement mortar is used for
1.Increasing the strength
2.Reducing the shrinkage
3.Decreasing the surface area of the binding material
4.Decreasing the quantity of cement 
Which of these statements are correct? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 4
  2. B.1, 2 and 3
  3. C.1, 3 and 4
  4. D.2, 3 and 4 
100
Consider the following statements:
1.The compressive strength of concrete decreases with increase in water-cement ratio of the concrete mixture.
2.Water is added to the concrete mix for hydration of cement and workability.
3.Creep and shrinkage of concrete are independent of the water-cement ratio in the concrete mix. 
Which of these statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 4 only
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
101
According to the Indian Standard Specifications, concrete should be cured under a humidity of
  1. A.90%
  2. B.80%
  3. C.60%
  4. D.70%
102
Consider the following statements:In a typical compression test with a cylindrical concrete specimen, failure is initiated by
1.Crushing in compression
2.Inclined shear failure
3.Longitudinal tensile cracks 
Which of these statements are correct? 
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
103
If one intends to obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of aggregate is
  1. A.Round
  2. B.Annular
  3. C.Triangular
  4. D.Flinty
104
Consider the following statements as regards rheology of concrete:
1.It deals with strength of concrete.
2.It deals with deformation in concrete.
3.It is the study of deformation and flow of concrete.
4.It deals with rate of shear and shear stress in concrete. 
Which of these statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.3 and 4 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 2 only 
105
Consider the following for durability of well-graded concrete:
1.The environment
2.Cover to embedded reinforcement
3.Shape and size of concrete member 
Which of these are correct? 
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
106
Consider the common methods related to testing of concrete:
1.Consistency
2.Compacting factor
3.Vee-Bee
4.Setting time
5.Slump 
Which of these methods refer to measuring workability ofconcrete? 
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1, 2 and 5
  3. C.2, 3 and 4
  4. D.2, 3 and 5 
107
Gypsum is added into the raw materials during manufacture of cement so that the final product exhibits
  1. A.Retarded initial setting time
  2. B.Improved mouldability for cornices, etc 
  3. C.Increases compressive strength
  4. D.Augmented bond strength
108
Consider the following constituents of a high performance concrete (HPC):
1.Cement
2.Fine aggregate
3.Coarse aggregate
4.Water
5.Mineral admixture
6.Chemical admixture 
Which of these constituentsare relevant for HPC? 
  1. A.1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
  2. B.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
  3. C.2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only 
109
A specimen is subjected to a pure shear stress regime of intensity.The resulting tensile and compressive stresses, which occur on planes inclined at 45° to the direction of the shear stresses, would be
  1. A.T
  2. B.T
    2
  3. C.T2
  4. D.T3
110
For a given elastic material, the Elastic modulus E is 210 GPa and its Poisson’s ratio is 0.27. What is the approximate value if its modulus of Rigidity ?
  1. A.105 GPa 
  2. B.83 GPa
  3. C.159 GPa
  4. D.165 GPa 
111
Which of the following is not a basic type of strain ?
  1. A.Compressive strain
  2. B.Shear strain
  3. C.Area strain
  4. D.Volume strain
112
Young's Modulus of elasticity is
  1. A.Tensile stress / Tensile strain
  2. B.Shear stress / Shear strain
  3. C.Tensile stress / Shear strain
  4. D.Shear stress / Tensile strain
113
Which of the following stresses is measured on inclined surface in Mohr’s Circle Method ?
  1. A.Principal stress
  2. B.Normal stress
  3. C.Tangential stress
  4. D.Maximum stress 
114
Hooke's law is applicable within
  1. A.Elastic limit
  2. B.Plastic limit
  3. C.Fracture point
  4. D.Ultimate strength
115
Lead, as a material used in construction, has E = 15 GPa and K = 50 GPa. What is its Poisson’s ratio?
  1. A.0.225
  2. B.0.30 
  3. C.0.40
  4. D.0.45 
116
Crushing strength of good building stone should be more than:
  1. A.500 kg/cm2
  2. B.1000 kg/cm2
  3. C.1400 kg/cm2 
  4. D.2000 kg/cm2
117
Two planks each of 50 mm × 50 mm section are glued together along the length to form as section 50 mm × 100 mm; and used as a beam. If the shear force at the section is 1000 N, what is the maximum shear stress on the glue?
  1. A.0.15 MPa
  2. B.0.3MPa
  3. C.0.6MPa
  4. D.2.4MPa
118
The probability distribution taken to represent the completion time in PERT analysis is
  1. A.Gamma distribution
  2. B.Normal distribution
  3. C.Beta distribution
  4. D.Log-normal distribution
119
The state of stress at a point in 2-D stress system is characterized by direct stresses of 40 MPa compressive and 80 MPa tensile, on mutually perpendicular planes. Shear stress is absent on these planes. The maximum shear stress sat this point (along a duly identified plane) is
  1. A.20 MPa
  2. B.40MPa
  3. C.60MPa
  4. D.80MPa
120
An electrical resistance strain rosette indicates strain of -400, +800 and +500 along the x,y and 45° axes. What is the shearing ratio yxy?
  1. A.100
  2. B.800
  3. C.600
  4. D.-200
121
In a diagonal scale only
  1. A.Units can be shown
  2. B.Units, tenths can be shown
  3. C.Units, tenths, hundredths can be shown
  4. D.Units, tenths, hundredths and thousandths can be shown 
122
A cylindrical pressure vessel is 1200 mm in diameter. It is made of rolled mild steel plate. The vessel is subjected to an internal pressure of 2 N/mm2. If the material yields at 200 N/mm2, what should be the minimum safe thickness of the plate, based on Maximum Principle Stress Theory?
  1. A.18 mm
  2. B.15 mm
  3. C.12 mm
  4. D.9 mm
123
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
  1. A.Tricalcium silicate
  2. B.Dicalcium silicate
  3. C. Tricalcium aluminate
  4. D. Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
124
A simply subjected beam of length 4 m is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 2 kN/m. What is the maximum shear stress is the cross-section is rectangular, 100 mm wide and 200 mm deep?
  1. A.0.2 N/mm2
  2. B.0.1 N/mm2
  3. C.0.4 N/mm2
  4. D.0.3 N/mm2 
125
A mild steel structural section is an unsymmetrical I-section, with the greater width at the top and the smaller width at the bottom. The overall depth of the beam is 300 mm, and the flange stresses at the top and the bottom of the beam are 150 N/mm2and 50 N/mm2 respectively. What is the height of the neutral axis of the beam from its bottom?
  1. A.125 mm
  2. B.100 mm
  3. C.75 mm
  4. D.50 mm
126
The surveying used to determine additional details such as boundaries of fields, is called
  1. A.City surveying
  2. B.Location surveying
  3. C.Cadastral surveying
  4. D.Topographical surveying 
127
A circular shaft of diameter ‘D’ is made of a material for which the Young’s modulus of elasticity is ‘E’ and Poisson’s ratio is ‘v’. the ratio of flexural rigidity to torsional rigidity for the shaft is
  1. A.4(1+v)
  2. B.1.5(1-2v)
  3. C.(1+v)
  4. D.0.25(1+v)
128
A closely coiled helical spring of round steel wire 5mm in diameter having 12 complete coils of 50 mm mean diameter is subjected to an axial load of 100 N. Modulus of rigidity of the spring is 80kn/mm2. What is the deflection of the spring?
  1. A.12 mm
  2. B.24 mm
  3. C.36 mm
  4. D.48 mm
129
What is the shear stress at the neutral axis in a beam of isosceles triangular section with a base of 40 mm and height 20 mm subjected to a shear force of 2 kN?
  1. A.3 MPa 
  2. B.6MPa
  3. C.10MPa
  4. D.20MPa
130
A beam of square cross-section is placed such that its neutral axis coincides with its diagonal, and it is subjected to a shear force F. What is the ratio of the maximum shear stress to the shear stress at the neutral axis?
  1. A.9
    8
  2. B.8
    9
  3. C.7
    8
  4. D.8
    7
131
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
132
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.2 and 3 only
  2. B.2 and 4 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 4 only
133
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.2 and 4 only
  3. C.1 and 3 only
  4. D.3 and 4 only
134
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only
135
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 3 only
  2. B.2 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 4 only
136
Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.2, 3 and 4 only
137
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 3 only
  2. B.1 and 4 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 4 only
138
A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is
  1. A.100.6 N/mm2
  2. B.120.4 N/mm2
  3. C.140.2 N/mm2
  4. D.160.0 N/mm2
139
In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called
  1. A.Annealing effect
  2. B.Bauschinger effect
  3. C.Strain rate effect
  4. D.Fatigue effect
140
Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 only
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.3 only
141
The span of a cantilever beam is 2m. The cross-section of the beam is a hollow square with external sides 100 mm; and its 1 = 4 × 105 mm4. The safe bending stress for the beam material is 100 N/mm2. The safe concentrated load at the free end would be
  1. A.100 N
  2. B.200 N
  3. C.300 N
  4. D.400 N
142
Consider the following statements in respect of arched construction made of voussoirs:
1. The superimposed load is transferred to the sidewalls only by the strength of cohesion of the mortar between the voussoirs.
2. The arch may fail under crushing when the compressive stress or thrust in it exceeds the safe crushing strength of the voussoir material.
3. Every element in the arch is subjected to compression only.
4. Failure of the arch due to the sliding of any voussoir past the adjacent one due to transverse shear can be avoided by reducing the height of the voussoirs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 4 only
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.2 and 4 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
143
Which of the following are examples of indeterminate structures?
1. Fixed beam
2. Continuous beam
3. Two-hinged arch
4. Beam overhanging on both sides
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.2, 3 and 4 only
144
A cantilever beam, 3m long, carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. If the slope at the free end is 1°, the deflection at the free end is
  1. A.49.27 mm
  2. B.39.27 mm
  3. C.30.27  mm
  4. D.20.27  mm
145
The maximum bending moment at a given section, in which a train of wheel loads moves occurs when the average load on the left segment is
1. Equal to the average load on the right segment.
2. More than the average load on the right segment.
3. Less than the average load on the right segment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.1 only
  3. C.2 only
  4. D.3 only
146
A single degree of freedom system of mass 22 kg and stiffness 17 kN/m vibrates freely. If damping in the system is 2%, the cyclic frequency and the damped circular frequency, respectively, are nearly
  1. A.0.4 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
  2. B.0.88 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
  3. C.4.4 Hz and 27.8 rad/sec
  4. D.0.88 Hz and 0.88 rad/sec
147
A cable of insignificant weight, 18 m long, is supported at its two ends, 16m apart, at the same level. The cable supports at its mid-reach a load of 120 N. The tension in the cable is nearly
  1. A.136 N
  2. B.131 N
  3. C.131 N
  4. D.121 N
148
The design strength of a tension member is governed by
1. Rupture at a critical section
2. Yielding of gross area
3. Block shear of end region
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A.1 only
  2. B.2 only
  3. C.3 only
  4. D.1, 2 and 3
149
A beam-column is alternately bent either (1) in single curvature, or (2) in double curvature. The secondary moments induced are to be compared. These are indicated SM1 and SM2 as per the conditions (1) and (2) respectively
  1. A.SM1 > SM2
  2. B.SM1 < SM2
  3. C.SM1 = SM2
  4. D.Cannot be ascertained
150
Gantry girders can be designed
1. As laterally supported beams.
2. As laterally unsupported beams.
3. By using channel sections.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A.1,2 and 3
  2. B.1 and 2 only
  3. C.2 and 3 only
  4. D.1 and 3 only

General Awareness

1
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
2
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
3
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
4
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
5
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
6
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
7
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
8
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
  1. A.financial system            
  2. B.tax system
  3. C.patents and copyrights  
  4. D.Public sector undertakings
9
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
  1. A.2nd plan
  2. B.3rd plan
  3. C.5th plan
  4. D.6th plan
10
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
  1. A.sales tax           
  2. B.custom tax
  3. C.excise tax         
  4. D.income tax
11
Copper tools from which age were found in Meerut and Saharanpur?
  1. A.Mesolithic age
  2. B.Paleolithic age
  3. C.Neolithic age
  4. D.Chalcolithic age
12
Which of the following centres of Uttar Pradesh is not related to Indus valley Civilization?
1. Kalibanga                              2.Lothal
3. Alamgirpur                           4.Hulas     
  1. A.Codes
    1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1 and 2
  3. C.2 and 3
  4. D.3 and 4
13
Which site was discovered by Bharat Sevak Samaj on the bank of river Hindon?
  1. A.Alamgirpur
  2. B.Belan Valley
  3. C.Baghrikhor
  4. D.Morhana Mountain
14
Kosala (Ayodhya) mentioned Rama story' was related to which of the following dynasties?
  1. A.Videhi
  2. B.Ikshvaku
  3. C.Chandel
  4. D.Kurd
15
Which of the following Buddhist Literatures mentions the Mahajanapadas?
  1. A.Bhagavati Sutra
  2. B.Jataka
  3. C.Anguttara Nikaya
  4. D.Garbhavakranti Sutra
16
Which country is the highest contributor of per capita greenhouse gas emissions ?
  1. A.China            
  2. B.USA
  3. C.Russia     
  4. D.India
17
Which institution released the ‘Commodity Markets Outlook report for October 2022’ ?
  1. A.International Monetary Fund  
  2. B.World Bank
  3. C.World Economic Forum 
  4. D.Reserve Bank of India
18
‘Garuda VII’ is a bilateral exercise conducted by the Air Force of India and which country ?
  1. A.Sri Lanka          
  2. B.France
  3. C.Japan    
  4. D.Australia
19
Which city is the host of the ‘India Space Congress, ISC 2022’ ?
  1. A.Bengaluru       
  2. B.Mumbai
  3. C.New Delhi   
  4. D.Hyderabad
20
Which country co-chaired the High-Level Dialogue on Migration and Mobility (HLDMM), with the European Union ?
  1. A.India              
  2. B.Australia
  3. C.France  
  4. D.China

Reasoning

1
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
2
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
3
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
4
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
5
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
6
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
7
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
8
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
9
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
10
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
11
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
  1. A.X
  2. B.W
  3. C.I
  4. D.H
12
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.SUM
  2. B.BIG
  3. C.Both BIG and THE
  4. D.FOR
  5. E.Both FOR and BIG
13
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
  1. A.AND
  2. B.FOR
  3. C.THE
  4. D.BIG
  5. E.SUM
14
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
15
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Five
  3. C.Six
  4. D.Nine
  5. E.Three
16
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
17
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.Four
18
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. A.Both CAT and OWN
  2. B.Both BRU and INK
  3. C.Only CAT
  4. D.Only INK
  5. E.Only LEG
19
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
  1. A.OWN
  2. B.LEG
  3. C.BRU
  4. D.CAT
  5. E.INK
20
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three

General Hindi

1
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
  1. A. अधम्र
  2. B. अध्रम
  3. C. अधर्म
  4. D. अध्रिम
2
शुद्ध वर्तनी का चयन कीजिए
  1. A. स्थायि
  2. B. स्थायी
  3. C. स्थाई
  4. D. स्थाइ
3
वर्तनी की दृष्टि से सही शब्द है?
  1. A. महत्व
  2. B. महतव
  3. C. महत्तव
  4. D. महतत्व
4
निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध छांटिए?
  1. A. आयुष्मान
  2. B. आयुश्मान
  3. C. आयुशमान
  4. D.  आयुश्यमान
5
शुद्ध शब्द नहीं हैं?
  1. A. कवियत्री 
  2. B. कौसल्या
  3. C. एश्वर्य
  4. D. श्रृंगार
6
तुम्हारा यह कथन मात्र अतिश्योक्ती है।
  1. A. अंतोश्योक्ती 
  2. B.  अतीश्योक्टि 
  3. C. अतिश्योक्ति
  4. D. अतिशयोक्ति
7
बहिष्कार
  1. A. बहि: + कार
  2. B. बहिष + कर
  3. C. बहि + अकार
  4. D. बहि़ + सकार
8
नाविक
  1. A. नौ + इक
  2. B. ना + इक
  3. C.  नो + इक
  4. D.  ना + विक
9
दिगम्बर
  1. A. दि + गम्बर
  2. B. दिगम् + बर
  3. C.  दिक् + अम्बर
  4. D. दिग + अम्बर
10
निराशा
  1. A.  निरा + आशा
  2. B. निर् + आशा
  3. C. निर: + आशा
  4. D. निर + आशा