Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 11Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 12Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 13Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 14Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 15Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 16Single Answer
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Question 17Single Answer
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee
Question 18Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 19Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 20Single Answer
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m
Question 21Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 22Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 23Single Answer
The one which decreases with dilution is
A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance
Question 24Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 25Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 26Single Answer
When Uttar Pradesh got it officially as statehood ?
A
24 January, 1950
B
26 January, 1952
C
1 January, 1956
D
18 February, 1957
Question 27Single Answer
How many districts are there in Uttar Pradesh
A
60
B
57
C
75
D
87
Question 28Single Answer
What are the official languages of Uttar Pradesh ?
A
Hindi & Urdu
B
Only Hindi
C
Only Urdu
D
Kumaoni
Question 29Single Answer
How many members of Lok Sabha from Uttar Pradesh ?
A
56
B
78
C
80
D
51
Question 30Single Answer
How many members of Rajya Sabha from Uttar Pradesh ?
A
45
B
51
C
31
D
77
Question 31Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 32Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 33Single Answer
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A
Mahatma Gandhi
B
M.N. Roy
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 34Single Answer
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A
1942
B
1945
C
1946
D
1947
Question 35Single Answer
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A
15th August 1947
B
26th January 1950
C
26th November 1949
D
30th January 1948
Question 36Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 37Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 38Single Answer
Which of the following is a famous festival of Kerala ?
A
Pongal
B
Onam
C
Baisakhi
D
Makar Sankranti
Question 39Single Answer
Who wrote the Indian national anthem 'Jana Gana Mana' ?
A
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
B
Sarojini Naidu
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Subramania Bharati
Question 40Single Answer
The Ajanta Caves are located in which state ?
A
Maharashtra
B
Madhya Pradesh
C
Bihar
D
Karnataka
Question 41Single Answer
On what date did India celebrate the 9th anniversary of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) implementation?
A
July 1, 2026
B
June 30, 2026
C
July 2, 2026
D
June 29, 2026
Question 42Single Answer
Which global event is India participating in with Sweden as a partner?
A
Venus Orbiter Mission 'Shukrayaan'
B
Chandrayaan-4
C
Gaganyaan crewed mission
D
Mars Orbiter Mission-2
Question 43Single Answer
Who became India's 97th Chess Grandmaster in late June 2026?
A
Gukesh D
B
Praggnanandhaa R
C
Harshavardhan G.B.
D
Arjun Erigaisi
Question 44Single Answer
What major merger was approved by the boards of PFC and REC Limited on June 30, 2026?
A
Merger with SBI
B
Merger into a single power financing entity
C
Merger with NTPC
D
Merger with IREDA
Question 45Single Answer
Which initiative was launched at the Rashtriya Gramin Vikas Sammelan 2026 for rural women SHGs?
A
Lakhpati Didi App
B
Digital India Rural Scheme
C
PM Kisan Drone Yojana
D
SARAS Shakti Collection and Coffee Table Book
Question 46Single Answer
What significant political change occurred in South Korea on July 1, 2026?
A
New Prime Minister Han Seong-sook took office
B
Presidential elections were held
C
Parliament was dissolved
D
King was crowned
Question 47Single Answer
What was the rainfall deficit in India for June 2026, described as the driest in over a century?
A
20% below average
B
39.8% below average
C
15% above average
D
Normal rainfall
Question 48Single Answer
Where was the GCC Conclave on Innovation 2026 held?
A
Bengaluru
B
New Delhi
C
Mumbai
D
Hyderabad
Question 49Single Answer
Which health initiative's operational guidelines were unveiled by the Union Health Ministry around July 1, 2026?
A
Universal Health Coverage
B
Ayushman Bharat expansion only
C
TB-free India 2030
D
National Ambulance Services 2026
Question 50Single Answer
What reform was implemented in GST 2.0 (effective from September 2025)?
A
Removal of all cesses
B
Single 12% slab
C
Primarily two tax slabs of 5% and 18%
D
Only state-level taxation
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Law
Question 51Single Answer
The draft of the Indian Penal Code was prepared by ?
A
First Law Commission
B
Second Law Commission
C
Third Law Commission
D
Sixteen Law Commission
Question 52Single Answer
Who is associated with drafting of Indian Penal Code ?
A
Lord Macaulay
B
Mullah
C
Sir H.S. Mayne
D
Frederock Pollock
Question 53Single Answer
Who was the President of the drafting committee of the Indian Penal Code ?
A
Lord William Bentick
B
Lord Macaulay
C
Lord Macaulay
D
Lord Macaulay
Question 54Single Answer
What is the correct definition of offence ?
A
Act punishable by law
B
Act prohibited by law
C
Immoral act
D
Act punishable by law and also prohibited by law
Question 55Single Answer
Who among the following defined crime as "an act committed or omitted in violation of pulic law either forbidding or commanding it" ?
A
Russel
B
Kenny
C
Blackstone
D
J.F. Stephen
Question 56Single Answer
Fill in the gap :
Disobedience of law is not ordinarily a crime unless that act is declared as crime by some……….
A
law
B
method
C
society
D
All the above
Question 57Single Answer
Assertion (A) : Crime is punishable because it is provided in the law.
Reason (R) : Crime is revolting to the jmoral sense of society.
Code -
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 58Single Answer
Observe the statements given below and mark the answer as correct -
1. Tort and crime are neither exactly different nor exactly the same
2. Murder is outright crime
3. Trespass without intention is only tort
A
Statement 1 and 2 are true
B
Statement 2 and 3 are true
C
All the statement are true
D
All the statement are false
Question 59Single Answer
Which in the following is not inchoate crime ?
A
Attempt
B
Criminal conspiracy
C
Abetment
D
Kidnapping
Question 60Single Answer
Which one of the following is not an essential element of crime ?
A
Mens rea
B
Actus reu
C
Injury
D
Motive
Question 61Single Answer
The Essential and chief ingredients of 'crime' are :
A
motive, mens rea and actus reus
B
motive, intention and knowledge
C
mens rea and actus reus
D
knowledge, intention and action
Question 62Single Answer
Which of the following are not essential for offence.
A
Intention
B
Object
C
Prohibited act
D
Punishment for act
Question 63Single Answer
The chief elements of crime are :
A
To act in a particular way otherwise to undergo punishment
B
An act committed or omitted in furtherance of criminal intent
C
An act causing injury to another individual or society
D
All of the above
Question 64Single Answer
Which one of the following is not generally an essential element of crime ?
A
Actus reus
B
Mens rea
C
Motive
D
Human being
Question 65Single Answer
In which one of the following offences 'mens rea' is not an essential element ?
A
Assault
B
Bigamy
C
Defamation
D
None of the above
Question 66Single Answer
In which of the following offences 'Mens rea' is not an essential ingredient ?
A
Murder
B
Theft
C
Robbery
D
Bigamy
Question 67Single Answer
In which of the following offence the "mens rea" is not necessary to make the offender criminally liable ?
A
Culpable Homicide
B
Wrongful Confinement
C
Kidnapping
D
Criminal Conspiracy
Question 68Single Answer
In which of the following cases, doctrine of 'Mens rea' is NOT applicable ?
A
Theft
B
Murder
C
Public nuisance
D
Thug
Question 69Single Answer
The maxim 'ream linguam non facit nisi mens rea' is propounded by :
A
Coke
B
Lord Kenyon
C
Augustine
D
Lord Arbinger
Question 70Single Answer
If actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea is a cardinal principle of criminal law, then which one of the following statements correctly reflects the about principle ?
A
Mens rea is an essential elements of a crime and there cannot be a crime without mens rea
B
Criminal liability under Indian law always implies mens rea
C
To constitute a crime, there must be actus reus and mens rea
D
Actus reus is not always necessary to constitute a crime
Question 71Single Answer
The case of R.V. Prince was decided by -
A
North J.
B
Wright J.
C
Blackburn J.
D
Lord Goddard
Question 72Single Answer
The maxim "actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea" mens
A
crime has to be coupled with guilty mind
B
there can be no crime without a guilty mind
C
crime is the result of guilty mind
D
guilty mind leads to crime
Question 73Single Answer
Which of the following observed that "Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit sea"
is totally irrelevant in Indian Penal Code -
A
J.D. Mynane, Criminal law of India
B
H.S. Gour, Penal Law of India
C
Ratan Lal Dhiraj Lal, Law of Crimes
D
All of the above
Question 74Single Answer
To find mens rea it is necessary that there must exist :
A
The Act was intended
B
There must be resultant consepqnce
C
The Act of causing injury to another
D
The knowledge of existence of facts
Question 75Single Answer
Denotion of mens rea is inferred through :
A
Reason to believe
B
Voluntarily
C
Dishonestly
D
All of the above
Question 76Single Answer
"In every statute mens – rea is to be implied unless the contrary is shown". This view was expressed in -
A
Sherras v. De Rutzen
B
R v. Dudley & Stephen
C
Harding v Prince
D
R.v. Prince
Question 77Single Answer
Which one of the following cases is not related to Mens rea ?
A
R.V. Prince
B
Queen v. Tolson
C
Sherras v. De Rutzen
D
Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
Question 78Single Answer
Which one fot the following is not punishable under the Indian Penal Code ?
A
Preparation to commit murder
B
Preparation to commit dacoity
C
Preparation to wage war against the State
D
Preparation to commit depredation on the territory of a friendly power
Question 79Single Answer
Preparation to commit murder is -
A
punishable
B
not punishable
C
punishable with fine
D
All of the above
Question 80Single Answer
Under Indian Penal Code, 1860 which of the following is not a punishable offence ?
A
Making preparation to commit murder
B
Making preparation to commit dacoity
C
Making preparation of waging war against the Government of India
D
Making preparation to commit depredation on territories of power at peace with the Govering of India
Question 81Single Answer
Preparation of which of the following offences is punishable ?
1. Waging war against India
2. Sedition
3. Murder
4. Danoity
A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1 and 4
Question 82Single Answer
Preparation consists in devising or arranging means necessary for the commission of the offence. Such attempt is not punishable because.
1. the motive was harmless
2. impossibility to reach wrongful end
3. does not effect the security of any person
4. it remained without culmination
A
Only 1 is correct
B
The most proability is 1 and 2
C
There is quite likelihood of 1 and 3
D
All the reasons 1, 2, 3 and 4 have to be examined
Question 83Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct
A
Offence is essentially an immoral act
B
Offence is an legal act
C
Offence is necessarily an anti-social act
D
Offence is necessarily an anti-religious act
Question 84Single Answer
Point out the correct state4ment :
A
Crime is necessarily an immoral act
B
Crime is necessarily an anti-social act
C
Crime is necessarily an anto-communal act
D
Crime is necessarily an anti-religious act
Question 85Single Answer
The application of doctrine of vicarious liability in crimes seems to have been actuated by a necessity rather than desirability. The justification is based on which of the following ?
A
Public policy
B
Failure to supervise
C
Treated as unauthorised
D
Strict liability
Question 86Single Answer
The Draft of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was prepared by .
A
Lord Macaulay
B
Sir James F. Stephen
C
Huxley
D
Sir Henery Maine
Question 87Single Answer
Who drafted the Indian Evidence Act
A
Lord Denning
B
A.V. Dicey
C
Lord Macaulay
D
J. F. Stephen
Question 88Single Answer
Which of the following statements is correct in relation to Evidence Act ?
A
Sir Henry Maine prepared the draft Bill of the Act
B
Sir James Stephen prepared the draft Bill of the Act
C
The draft Bill of the Act was prepared by II Law
D
None of the above
Question 89Single Answer
The law of evidence under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is
A
Substantive Law
B
Procedural Law
C
Substantive and Procedural Law
D
None of the above
Question 90Single Answer
Law of evidence is
A
A substantive law
B
an adjective law
C
Both (A) and (B)
D
Neither (A) nor (B)
Question 91Single Answer
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
A
Only civil proceedings
B
Only criminal proceedings
C
Civil and criminal Proceeding both
D
None of the above
Question 92Single Answer
Indian Evidence Act, applies to both Civil and Criminal Proceedings before a Court is the statement :
A
Not correct
B
Correct
C
Partly correct
D
None of the above
Question 93Single Answer
Law of Evidence :
A
Retrospective
B
Effect the fundamental right of person
C
Always have prospective effect
D
Not a procedural law
Question 94Single Answer
Point out the correct answer
Law of Evidence is
A
Lex Talionis
B
Lex Fori
C
Lex Loci
D
Lex Situ
Question 95Single Answer
The meaning of 'Lex Loci' is :
A
Law of the Land is Supreme
B
Law of Land
C
Local Laws
D
Law of England
Question 96Single Answer
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been divided into………Parts and ........... Chapters .
A
2, 10
B
3, 11
C
4, 12 3, 12
D
3, 12
Question 97Single Answer
How many Sections and Chapters are there in Indian Evidence Act ?
A
164 Sections and 10 Chapters
B
167 Sections and 10 Chapters
C
167 Sections and 11 Chapters
D
167 Sections and 9 Chapters
Question 98Single Answer
As per preamble of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the purpose of this Act is
A
to provide, define and amend the law of evidence
B
to provide, consolidate the law of evidence
C
to define and amend the law of evidence
D
to consolidate, define and amend the law of evidence
Question 99Single Answer
Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was enacted on the of
A
6th October, 1860
B
1st March, 1874
C
15th March, 1872
D
1st September, 1872
Question 100Single Answer
Which one of of the following dates enforcement of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is correct ?
A
15th March, 1872
B
1st September, 1872
C
1st July, 1872
D
1st February, 1872
Question 101Single Answer
Indian evidence act was enforced
A
1 Sep. 1862
B
1 Oct. 1872
C
1 July 1872
D
None of the above
Question 102Single Answer
The Indian Evidence Act applies to -
A
proceedings before tribunals
B
affidavits presented to any court or
C
proceedings before an arbitrator
D
None of the above
Question 103Single Answer
The affidavit given to the Court is
A
not an evidence
B
an evidence
C
merely a written statement
D
a proof
Question 104Single Answer
Indian Evidence Act 1872 does not apply to
A
Affidavits produced before the court
B
proceedings before the arbitrator
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
On Judicial proceedings before the courtv
Question 105Single Answer
The Indian Evidence Act applies to
A
Affidavits
B
Judicial proceedings
C
Arbitration proceedings
D
All of these
Question 106Single Answer
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to
A
administrative tribunal's proceedings
B
arbitrator's proceedings
C
contempt's proceedins
D
none of the above
Question 107Single Answer
Which evidence is not admissible ?
A
Evidence on affidavit
B
Oral evidence
C
Documentary evidence
D
Expert evidence
Question 108Single Answer
To which of the following does the Evidence Act apply ?
A
Non-judicial proceedingsf
B
Affidavits
C
Judicial proceedings
D
Arbitration proceedings
Question 109Single Answer
The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 applies to :-
A
All judicial proceedings in or before any Court
B
affidavits presented to any Court or officer
C
proceedings before an Arbitrator
D
All the above
Question 110Single Answer
The Indian Evidence Act :
A
applies to proceedings before an arbitrator
B
does not apply to proceedings before an arbitrator
C
does not apply to appeals
D
is basically a substantive law
Question 111Single Answer
The U.P. Police Act was enacted in which year?
A
1861
B
1961
C
2007
D
1949
Question 112Single Answer
The U.P. Police Act replaced which previous central Act, within the territory of Uttar Pradesh?
A
The Indian Penal Code
B
The Code of Criminal Procedure
C
The Police Act, 1861
D
The Evidence Act
Question 113Single Answer
The primary objective of the U.P. Police Act is to:
A
Regulate traffic
B
Establish a structured police force in Uttar Pradesh
C
Control land revenue
D
Manage municipal corporations
Question 114Single Answer
The U.P. Police Act defines the duties and responsibilities of:
A
Judicial officers
B
Revenue officers
C
Police officers
D
Municipal officers
Question 115Single Answer
The U.P. Police Act aims to ensure:
A
Unregulated police powers
B
Accountable and efficient policing
C
Military control over the police
D
Minimal police presence
Question 116Single Answer
The U.P. Police Act provides for the appointment of:
A
Only constables
B
Only senior officers
C
All ranks of police officers
D
Only retired military personnel
Question 117Single Answer
The Act outlines the procedure for:
A
Tax collection
B
Land acquisition
C
Disciplinary proceedings against police officers
D
Civil litigation
Question 118Single Answer
The U.P. Police Act emphasizes the importance of:
A
Public cooperation
B
Police autonomy without public oversight
C
Military intervention in policing
D
Minimal police interaction with the public
Question 119Single Answer
The Act provides for the establishment of:
A
Military courts
B
Police stations and other police establishments
C
Revenue courts
D
Municipal tribunals
Question 120Single Answer
The U.P. Police Act defines the powers of police officers in relation to:
A
Civil disputes
B
Criminal investigations
C
Land revenue matters
D
Municipal regulations
Question 121Single Answer
The Act aims to prevent:
A
Police accountability
B
Police excesses and abuse of power
C
Public participation in policing
D
Police efficiency
Question 122Single Answer
The U.P. Police Act provides for the regulation of:
A
Military activities
B
Public assemblies and processions
C
Land revenue collection
D
Municipal services
Question 123Single Answer
The Act outlines the procedure for the maintenance of:
A
Land records
B
Public health records
C
Law and order
D
Municipal records
Question 124Single Answer
The U.P. Police Act emphasizes the role of the police in:
A
Military operations
B
Crime prevention and detection
C
Land revenue collection
D
Municipal administration
Question 125Single Answer
The Act provides for the powers of police officers in relation to:
A
Civil disputes
B
Arrest and search
C
Land revenue matters
D
Municipal regulations
Question 126Single Answer
1. Which of the following is correct answer ?
i. Provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Jammu and Kashmir
ii. All provisions of Cr.P.C. not apply to the State of Nagaland
Choose the correct answer
A
Only (i) is correct
B
Only (ii) is correct
C
Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
D
Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Question 127Single Answer
Which among the following chapters of the Cr.P.C., 1973 does not apply to the State of Nagaland and the tribal areas ?
A
Chapter VIII
B
Chapter IX
C
Chapter X
D
Chapter XI
Question 128Single Answer
The provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, other than those relating to Chapter VIII, X and XI, thereof shall not apply in which of the following -
A
State of Tripura
B
State of Assam
C
State of Meghalya
D
State of Nagaland
Question 129Single Answer
Reason for non-applicability of some of the provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code to the State of Nagaland have been stated by the Supreme Court in -
A
State of Nagaland v. Ratan Singh
B
Maharaja Vikram Kishore of Tripura v. Province of Assam
C
Zarzoliana v. Government of Mizoram
D
State of Nagaland v. Chung
Question 130Single Answer
What is the meaning of 'tribal areas' for the purpose of Section 1 of the Criminal Procedure Code ?
A
Municipal area of Shilong
B
Municipal area of Mizoram
C
Assam as prescribed in Para 20 of the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution
D
Arunachal Pradesh as prescribed by the Constitution
Question 131Single Answer
Assertion (A) : Subject to some exceptions the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure are not applicable to tribal areas in undivided Assam.
Reason (R) : These areas enjoy special status like the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Code
A
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
B
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C
(A) is true, but (R) is false
D
(A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 132Single Answer
When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 came into force ?
A
On April 1, 1973
B
On April 1, 1974
C
On January 1, 1974
D
On March 1, 1974
Question 133Single Answer
When the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 received the assent of the President of India ?
A
25-12-1973
B
25-01-1974
C
25-02-1974
D
25-05-1974
Question 134Single Answer
The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act 2005 (No. 25 of 2005) received the assent of the President on :
A
21st July, 2005
B
23rd June, 2005
C
22nd August, 2005
D
20th September, 2005
Question 135Single Answer
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, came into effect on
A
6th April, 2013
B
3rd February, 2013
C
7th January, 2013
D
5th March, 2013
Question 136Single Answer
Consider the following statements -
1. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
2. The provisions relating to Chapters VIII, X, XI under the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 shall not apply to the State of Nagaland and to the Tribal Areas
3. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 shall came into force on 25th January, 1974
4. Chapter II of Cr.P.C. deals with Constitution of Criminal Courts and Offices
Which of the statements given below is correct ?
A
(1), (2), (3) and (4)
B
(2), (3) and (4)
C
(2) and (3) only
D
(1) and (4) only
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
A
Police report : Section 2(r)
B
Cognizable offence : Section 2(c)
C
Bailable offence : Section 2(b)
D
Investigation : Section 2(h)
Question 138Single Answer
'Bailable offence' means and offence which is shown as bailable in
A
the First Schedule of Cr.P.C
B
the Second Schedule of Cr.P.C
C
Section 425 Cr.P.C
D
Section 426 Cr.P.C.
Question 139Single Answer
What offence is bailable ?
A
Mentioned as bailable offence in I Schedule of Cr.P.C
B
All cases of summon's trial
C
All non-cognizable offences
D
All cases which are not triable by session
Question 140Single Answer
Non-bailable offence means -
A
Only those offence which are shown non bailable in the first schedule
B
All those offence which are not shown as bailable under first schedule or any other laws for the time being inforce
C
Such kind of offence for which police may arrest any person without warrant
D
Such kind of offence for which police cannot arrest any person without warrant
Question 141Single Answer
Who can frame the 'charge' according to the Criminal Procedure Code ?
A
Court
B
Public Prosecutor
C
Office-in-charge of the concerned police station
D
All of the above
Question 142Single Answer
A precise formulation of a specific accusation is called
A
Bailable offence
B
Cognizable offence
C
Charge
D
Non-compoundable offence
Question 143Single Answer
Under which Section of Cr.P.C. cognizable offence has been defined ?
A
Section 2(a)
B
Section 2(c)
C
Section 2(i)
D
Section 2(1)
Question 144Single Answer
Section 2(c) of the code of Criminal Procedure defines -
A
Bailable offence
B
Non- Bailable offence
C
Cognizable offence
D
Non-cognizable offence
Question 145Single Answer
In a cognizable offence a police officer :
A
Cannot arrest an accused without warrant
B
May arrest an accused without warrant
C
Can keep the accused in police custody without a remand order
D
Is not required to produce the accused before a Magistrate
Question 146Single Answer
Cognizable offence means an offence
A
For which a police officer may arrest without warrant
B
For which a police officer may arrest if warrant of arrest is issued
C
For which a police officer above the rank of Sub-Inspector may arrest
D
None of the above
Question 147Single Answer
In a cognizable case the police will have powers to :
A
investigate except the power to arrest without warrant
B
investigate and power to arrest without warrant only after seeking permission from the Magistrate
C
investigate including the power the arrest without warrant
D
investigate and arrest without warrant, only afer informing the Magistrate having jurisdiction to inquire into or try the offence
Question 148Single Answer
In a cognizable case, the police has authority
A
to arrest without warrant
B
to investigate the offence without the permission of the magistrate
C
Both (A) and (B)
D
either (A) or (B)
Question 149Single Answer
Point out the incorrect statement -
A
In cognizable offence any police officer may without an order from a Magistrate and without a warrant arrest any person
B
A private person may arrest or cause to be arrested any person committing a cognizable offence
C
An Executive Magistrate may arrest the offender when any offence is committed in his presence and within his jurisdiction
