A. Government of India Act 1858 control 1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861 2.Non official members in executive council
C. Indian Council 3.Separate representation of Muslim community Act1909
D. Government of 4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces
A
A B C D
2 3 1 4
B
4 1 2 3
C
3 4 1 2
D
1 2 3 4
Question 2Single Answer
Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of India Act 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4
Question 3Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
The Indian constitution is
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Largely based on government of India
Act, 1935
A
1 and 2 are correct
B
2 and 3 are correct
C
1 and 3 are correct
D
None of the above
Question 4Single Answer
Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism:
1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state.
2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which one is not correctly matched?
A
Freedom of speech - include freedom of and expression press
B
Freedom of - include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
C
conscience
Right to personal - include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
D
(d) Right to equality - includes principles of natural justice
Question 6Single Answer
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
A
Prime Minister
B
Vice- President
C
Chief Minister
D
Chief Justice
Question 7Single Answer
An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution of India:
1. Ex post facto law
2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy.
Arrange the protections in the order in which they appear in the Indian constitution.
A
Codes:
1, 3, 2
B
1, 2, 3
C
3, 1, 2
D
2, 1,3
Question 8Single Answer
Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
A
75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
B
76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
C
77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
D
78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
Question 9Single Answer
Match the following:
A. Right to go 1. Bhim Singh's case.
abroad
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's 4. Sunil Batra's case.
liability
A
Codes:
A B C D
2 4 1 3
B
4 2 3 1
C
2 4 3 1
D
4 2 1 3
Question 10Single Answer
A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
A
Three months
B
Six months
C
Nine months
D
Twelve months
Question 11Single Answer
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A
Habeas corpus - available against private individual as well.
B
Quo warranto - available against subordinate courts only
C
Certiorari - available against autonomous bodies only
D
Prohibition - directs a public authority to perform a task.
Question 12Single Answer
Match the following:
A. Right to go abroad 1. Bhim Singh's case.
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's liability 4. Sunil Batra's case.
A
A B C D
2 4 1 3
B
4 2 3 1
C
2 4 3 1
D
4 2 1 3
Question 13Single Answer
Match the following:
A
Right to live with human dignity enshrined in Art. 21 derives life breath
from DPSP Clauses e and f of Art. 39, 41 and 42.
B
Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just, fair and reasonable procedure guaranteed by Art. 21.
C
In PIL, a total stranger to a trial cannot be permitted to question the correctness of the conviction of the accused.
D
In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an
Question 14Single Answer
List-I List-II
Balaji vs. Stateof Mysore 1. Doctrine of waiver
of fundamental rights
Maneka Gandhi 2. Religious freedom
vs. UOI
Rev. Stanilaus 3. Right to life and personal liberty
vs. State of MP
Bashesher Nath 4. Reservation for backward classes
vs. IT, Commr. 5. Doctrine of severeability
A
A B C D
4 2 3 1
B
5 4 3 2
C
4 3 2 1
D
5 3 2 1
Question 15Single Answer
List-I List-II
Independence of judiciary 1. Administrative adjudication
Executive legislation 2. Parliamentary form of government
Quasi-judicial functions 3. Appointment and transfer of judges
Collective responsibility 4. Ordinance
A
A B C D
2 1 4 3
B
3 4 1 2
C
2 4 1 3
D
3 I 4 2
Question 16Single Answer
The 73rd Amendment provides a ____ tier system of panchayats:
A
3
B
4
C
2
D
1
Question 17Single Answer
List-I List-II
A Habeas corpus 1. Violation of natural justice
B. Mandamus 2. Unlawful arrest and detention
C. Quo-warranto 3. Exercise of power without jurisdiction
D. Certiorari 4. Non performance of public duty.
A
A B C D
2 4 3 1
B
1 3 4 2
C
2 3 4 1
D
1 4 3 2
Question 18Single Answer
The fundamental duties provided in the constitution are:
1. To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture.
2. To safeguard private property.
3. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform of these fundamental duties include:
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 3
Question 19Single Answer
If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the constitution must be amended?
A
First
B
Second
C
Third
D
Fourth
Question 20Single Answer
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the constitution of India?
A
It lists the distribution of powers between the union and the states.
B
It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
C
It contains the provision regarding the administration of tribal areas.
D
It allocates seats in the council of states.
Question 21Single Answer
The 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the:
A
Fundamental rights
B
DPSP
C
List of languages recognised by the constitution
D
Number of states and UTS
Question 22Single Answer
Provisions regarding anti defection are provided in ____of the constitution of India.
A
2nd schedule
B
5th schedule
C
8th schedule
D
10th schedule
Question 23Single Answer
At the time of framing there were ____Schedules in the constitution of India.
A
8
B
10
C
12
D
11
Question 24Single Answer
The house may declare the seat vacant after_____ , of any member, if he is absent from all meetings without permission of the house.
A
30 days
B
45 days
C
60 days
D
90 days
Question 25Single Answer
When the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker are vacant, _____ appoints a person to perform the functions of the speaker.
A
The President
B
The prime minister
C
The chief justice of India
D
Council of ministers
Question 26Single Answer
The framers of the constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review from the constitution of:
A
France
B
USA
C
United Kingdom
D
None of these
Question 27Single Answer
Decision of _______is final regarding the disqualification of a member of either house of Parliament under Art. 103.
A
The election commission
B
President
C
Speaker of Lok Sabha
D
Prime minister
Question 28Single Answer
Part______ of the constitution of the India talks about municipalities?
A
Part IX
B
Part IX-A
C
Part X
D
Part X-A
Question 29Single Answer
It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our constitution lies in the:
A
Preamble
B
Fundamental rights
C
Fundamental duties
D
Directive principles of state policy
Question 30Single Answer
Disqualification of a member of parliament on the ground of defection is to be decided by
A
The President
B
Speaker of Lok Sabha
C
Speaker of Rajya Sabha
D
Either (b) or (c), as the case may be
Question 31Single Answer
Preamble to the constitution of India:
A
is not a Part of the constitution.
B
Indicates the objectives to be achieved.
C
Indicates the source from which the constitution derives its authority.
D
Is a source of authority of the constitution of India.
Question 32Single Answer
The preamble to the Indian constitution is:
A
A Part of constitution; but it neither confers any power no impose any duties, nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution.
B
A Part of the constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution in cases of ambiguity.
C
A Part of the constitution and it confers powers and impose duties as any other provision of the constitution.
D
Not a Part of the constitution.
Question 33Single Answer
The source of Directive Principles of State Policy in our constitution can be traced back to the constitution of
A
USA
B
United Nations
C
United Kingdom
D
Ireland
Question 34Single Answer
The following are enshrined in the preamble to the constitution of India
(a) Equality of status and opportunity
(b) Liberty of thought , expression , belief ,faith and worship.
(c) Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual.
(d) Unity and integrity of the nation .
Which one of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the preamble ?
A
5,1,2,4,3
B
3,2,1,4,5
C
3,1,2,5,4
D
1,2,4,3,5
Question 35Single Answer
Which one of the following is in correct order in the preamble of the Indian constitution ?
A
Sovereign ,socialist ,secular, democratic and republic
B
Sovereign, secular, socialist, democratic and republic
C
Sovereign , secular, democratic, socialist and republic
D
Sovereign , democratic , secular, republic and socialist.
Question 36Single Answer
The text of the preamble of the constitution of India aims to secure ?
A
Fundamental rights to all individuals .
B
Fundamental duties of citizen of India
C
Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation .
D
Security of service to government servants .
Question 37Single Answer
Words secular and integrity were added by ______amendment of the constitution.
A
1st Amendment Act
B
24th Amendment Act
C
42nd Amendment Act
D
44th Amendment Act
Question 38Single Answer
Preamble of the constitution of India has been amended _____times so far?
A
Two
B
Three
C
One
D
Never
Question 39Single Answer
The word secular denotes:
A
Keeping away from all religions.
B
Freedom of religion and worship to all religions.
C
Belief in one god
D
Practicing different religions
Question 40Single Answer
The term socialist used in the preamble means a state whose basic policy is to:
A
Prohibit concentration of wealth
B
Distribute equitably the natural resources
C
Prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the living standard of people
D
That the state shall endeavour to achieve socialistic goals through democratic means.
Question 41Single Answer
In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended?
1. External Aggression
2. Internal Emergency
3. When Martial Law is in force
A
1 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 42Single Answer
Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in India.
1. Right to Education
2. Right to Information
3. Right to Vote
A
1 and 2
B
1 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 only
Question 43Single Answer
Article 21 declares that - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." The protection under Article 21 is:
A
Against arbitrary legislative action.
B
Against arbitrary executive action.
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Neither (a) nor (b)
Question 44Single Answer
Which of the following statement/statements, is/are correct:
1. Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in Article 19 (1) of the constitution
2. Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI Act.
3. Supreme Court of India has the advisory jurisdiction.
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 only
Question 45Single Answer
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements
w.r.t. Article 32.
1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR
3. High courts have the power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.
A
I only
B
1 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
3 only
Question 46Single Answer
Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law."?
1. Right to speedy trial.
2. Right against delayed execution.
3. Right against wrongful detention and arrest.
A
1 and 3
B
2 only
C
1 and 2
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 47Single Answer
Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
A
Prohibition, Certiorari and Mandamus.
B
Certiorari & Mandamus.
C
Prohibition & Mandamus.
D
Prohibition & Certiorari.
Question 48Single Answer
The directive principles were made non- justiciable and legally non-enforceable because:
1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them.
2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation.
A
I only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 49Single Answer
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy.
2. The directive principles are meant to establish Social Democracy.
3. The directive principles are meant to establish Economic Democracy.
A
I only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 50Single Answer
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles.
2. The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles.
3. Fundamental rights cannot be curtailed under any circumstances by the Parliament.
A
1 and 3
B
Only 2
C
1 and 2
D
1, 2 and 3
Important Questions Package
UPPSC Civil Judge Exam Online Question Bank Package
Buy UPPSC Civil Judge Important Questions, MCQ, question answer in Hindi & English. It will help you to score high marks in UPPSC Civil Judge question bank 2026 in Online, PDF & Print study material.
+ Free Monthly Current Affairs, GK & more PDF Download
Sr.
Package Name
Amount
1.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-I (Prelims) Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
₹101[₹500]
2.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-I (Prelims) Exam - Hindi
Description : 1500 Question with Answer.
₹131[₹500]
3.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-I (Prelims) Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
₹101[₹500]
4.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-I (Prelims) Exam - English
Description : 1500 Question with Answer.
₹131[₹500]
5.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-II (Prelims) Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
₹101[₹500]
6.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-II (Prelims) Exam - Hindi
Description : 1500 Question with Answer.
₹131[₹500]
7.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-II (Prelims) Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer.
₹101[₹500]
8.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-II (Prelims) Exam - English
Description : 1500 Question with Answer.
₹131[₹500]
9.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-I (Prelims) Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
10.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-II (Prelims) Exam - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
11.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-I (Prelims) Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
12.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-II (Prelims) Exam - English
Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
₹151[₹450]
13.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-I (Prelims) Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹450[₹800]
14.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-II (Prelims) Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹450[₹800]
15.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-I (Prelims) Exam Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
16.
UPPSC Civil Judge Paper-II (Prelims) Exam Question Bank Book - English
Description : 1000 Question with Answer (Printed Material)
₹390[₹600]
17.
UPPSC Civil Judge Prelims Exam Paper I - Hindi (Old)
Description : 1000 Question With Answer
₹101[₹500]
Law
Question 51Single Answer
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill?
1. Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional amendment Bill in Parliament.
2. President must give his assent to the Bill if duly passed by both houses.
3. Constitution amendment Bill can be introduced in any house of the Parliament.
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 3
D
I only
Question 52Single Answer
The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by:
A
A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.
B
A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
C
A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures.
D
By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Question 53Single Answer
Which of the following is/are federal feature/s of our constitution?
1. Supremacy of the Constitution.
2. Rigid Constitution.
3. Independent Judiciary.
A
I only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 54Single Answer
Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations?
1. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the executive power rests with the states.
2. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the legislative power rests with the centre
3. Residuary powers are assigned to the parliament.
A
1 and 3
B
2 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 only
Question 55Single Answer
Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations?
1. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the Center can give direction to a state on any matter.
2. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre and the states.
3. Word 'cabinet' is mentioned only once in the constitution under Art. 352.
A
I only
B
2 and 3
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 only
Question 56Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The chairman and members of state PSC are appointed by the Governor, but can be removed only by the President.
2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President.
3. Finance commission is mentioned under Art. 280 of the constitution.
A
1 and 2
B
2 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3
Question 57Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of Emergency?
A
Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by both houses of Parliament by a special
majority.
B
Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by a simple
majority.
C
Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by a simple majority.
D
None of these
Question 58Single Answer
Which of the following situation/s will be proper to impose President's rule in a state (Article 356)?
1. Where after general elections to the assembly, no Party secures a majority.
2. Serious maladministration in the state.
3. Stringent financial exigencies of the state.
A
I only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 59Single Answer
Which of the following situation/s are correct with regard to Proclamation of Financial Emergency (Article 360)?
1. It can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the parliament for every six months.
2. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by simple
majority.
3. The President may issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of Supreme Court and High Court Judges.
A
I only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 60Single Answer
The Electoral College for President's election
consist of:
1. Elected members of both the houses of
Parliament.
2. Elected members of the legislative
assemblies.
3. Elected members of all Union Territories.
A
1
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 61Single Answer
When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant Art. 95 provides that
A
The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker
B
The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
C
The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker.
D
The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected
Question 62Single Answer
With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill -
A
The President can reject the Bill but cannot return the Bill.
B
The President cannot reject the Bill but can return the Bill.
C
The President can neither reject the Bill nor return the Bill.
D
The President can either reject the Bill or return the Bill.
Question 63Single Answer
The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are
1. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws.
2. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 64Single Answer
The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the following manner?
A
She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.
B
A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
C
A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
D
A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha
Question 65Single Answer
The Council of Ministers' does not consist of:
1. Deputy Ministers.
2. Parliamentary Secretaries.
3. Deputy Chairman-Planning Commission.
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
None of these
Question 66Single Answer
The Representatives of states & UT in the Rajya Sabha are elected by:
1. The members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
2. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State legislative
assembly or electoral college of the UT as the case may be.
3. The system of proportional representation by single transferrable vote.
4. The system of proportional representation by List.
A
1 and 3
B
1 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
2 and 4
Question 67Single Answer
Which of the following criteria is laid down by the constitution Read with the Representation of the People Act, 1951, for a person
to be chosen a member of Parliament?
1. If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved for SC/ST, he must be a member of a SC/ST in any state or Union Territory.
2. He/she must not have been punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry and sati.
3. He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.
A
1 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
None of these
Question 68Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. If an MLA is elected to be an MP, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
2. If a person is elected to two seats in a house, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise both seats become vacant.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 69Single Answer
As observed by Salmond, jurisprudence is concerned with
A
to discover new rules
B
to reflect all the rules already known
C
to derive rules from authority and apply them to problems
D
logic.
Question 70Single Answer
Who said jurisprudence is formal science of positive law?
A
Bentham
B
Stone
C
Austin
D
Holland
Question 71Single Answer
Who said "Jurisprudence is nothing but lawyers, extroversion"?
A
Bentham
B
Stone
C
Austin
D
Holland
Question 72Single Answer
Who is the author of the book, ‘Taking rights seriously’?
A
R. Dworkin
B
Hart
C
Bentham
D
Tom Bingham
Question 73Single Answer
The concept of law depends largely on the:
A
social values
B
accepted norms
C
behavioural pattern of the particular society at a given time
D
All of the above
Question 74Single Answer
Law consists of social norms which are:
A
coercive
B
ethical
C
non-coercive
D
religious
Question 75Single Answer
Jurisprudence has been defined as the science of first principle of civil law by:
A
Salmond
B
Holland
C
Gray
D
Paton
Question 76Single Answer
The expression ‘law’ in jurisprudence is mostly used to denote
A
Positive law
B
Negative law
C
Fundamental legal principles
D
Legal systems
Question 77Single Answer
Austin's law is:
A
command of sovereign
B
command of God
C
command of people
D
command of constitution
Question 78Single Answer
Which of the following is not a statement from the Austinian theory?
A
Every law is a command, imposing a duty, enforced by a sanction.
B
Law is a rule laid down from the guidance of an intelligent being by an intelligent being having power over him.
C
A legal rule can be defined as one which prescribes a code of conduct which is done with a feeling of such conduct is obligatory.
D
If a determinate human superior not in a habit of obedience to a like superior, receives habitual obedience from the bulk of a given society, that determinate superior is sovereign in that society.
Question 79Single Answer
Mark the incorrect statement:
A
Law do not always command .but confers privileges also e.g., Right to make a will.
B
The notion of command is applicable to modern social/welfare legislation.
C
Austin's notion that sovereignty indivisible is falsified by federal
constitutions e.g., India, USA
D
Austin's insistence on sanctions as a mark of law conceals and distorts the real character and functions of law in a community.
Question 80Single Answer
Who said: Law consists of rules which are of broad application and non-optional character, but which are at the same time amenable to formulisation, legislation and adjudication?
A
Hart
B
Salmond
C
Kelsen
D
Austin
Question 81Single Answer
Which of the following is not a statement from Hart's theory?
A
Law is a system of social rules which acquire the character of legal rules.
B
The union of the primary and secondary rules constitute the core of a legal system.
C
A legal rule can be defined as one which prescribes a code of conduct, which is done with a feeling that such conduct is obligatory.
D
The law is a normative and not a natural science.
Question 82Single Answer
Mark the incorrect statement:
A
Positive law is made by sovereign and positive morality not by it.
B
Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality by God.
C
Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality by the consent of the people.
D
None of the above
Question 83Single Answer
The pure theory of law advocated by Kelsen implies that:
A
a theory which excludes everything which is strictly not law
B
a theory which includes everything which is law.
C
a theory which includes everything which is strictly law.
D
None of the above
Question 84Single Answer
According to Kelsen, the law is a system of behavioural norms which can be traced back to some grundnorms or basic norms from which they derive their existence. The grundnorm:
I must be efficacious
II. The Grundnorm is not deduced from anything else but is assumed as an initial hypothesis.
III. should secure for itself a minimum of effectiveness and when it ceases to derive minimum of support of people, it is replaced by some other grundnorm.
Codes:
A
I and III
B
II and III
C
I, II and III
D
I and II
Question 85Single Answer
Mark the incorrect option:
A
The province of jurisprudence determined - Austin
B
The concept of law - Hart
C
Vienna school of legal thought - Kelsen
D
None of the above.
Question 86Single Answer
Mark the correct statement:
A
Natural law approach is not realistic and practical approach.
B
Natural law principles have inspired positive law, constitution and international law.
C
Naturalists bid to introduce moral element into a criterion of identification and laws have the effect of founding law on the value judgement.
D
All of the above
Question 87Single Answer
The philosophical school seeks to investigate:
A
quest of the law
B
purpose for which a particular law has been enacted
C
the philosophical basis of the law
D
None of the above
Question 88Single Answer
Law is a product of social life and is not created by arbitrary will of individual but by slow unavoidable advancement of human development. This statement belongs to:
A
Analytical school
B
Historical school
C
Sociological school
D
None of the above
Question 89Single Answer
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
I. Fuller - inner morality
II. Bentham - utilitarianism
III. Maine - status of contract
IV. Duguit - social solidarity
V. Hart -rules on fundamentals of a legal system
Codes:
A
None except I
B
None except III
C
None except IV
D
None of the above
Question 90Single Answer
Mark the correct option:
A
Sources of law - Salmond
B
Nature and sources of law - Gray
C
(c) Des recht des besitzes - Savigny
D
All of the above
Question 91Single Answer
A legal custom has to possess a sufficient measure of antiquity. Sufficient under the English law means that it must have existed since 1189. The law in India:
A
is same
B
does not need a fixed period for which custom must have been in existence for its validity
C
antiquity is not essential
D
None of the above
Question 92Single Answer
The actual finding of true meaning of particular word in a statute is called:
A
interpretation of statute
B
construction of statute
C
both (a) and (b)
D
harmonization of statute
Question 93Single Answer
It is one of the cardinal principle of delegate legislation that the legislature should not delegate to a subordinate body the power
make rules on:
A
technical matter
B
policy matter
C
matter of inclusion and exclusion
D
date of commencement of a statute
Question 94Single Answer
Which of the following is not a means for exercising control over delegated legislation?
A
Parliamentary control
B
Judicial control
C
Publication of delegated legislation
D
Registration of delegated legislation
Question 95Single Answer
Mark the incorrect option:
A
Literal rule - grammatical or plain meaning rule
B
Golden rule - purpose of legislation
C
Harmonious construction rule - social welfare legislation
D
Literal rule - strict interpretation
Question 96Single Answer
Which rule of interpretation is employed in the social welfare legislation?
A
Literal rule
B
Golden rule
C
Harmonious construction rule
D
Liberal or beneficial construction rule
Question 97Single Answer
Which rule of construction is applied in the construction of penal statutes?
A
Literal rule
B
Golden rule
C
Harmonious construction rule
D
Liberal rule
Question 98Single Answer
The maxim Ejusdem generis means:
A
of the same kind or nature
B
when particular words are followed by general words, the general words are constructed as limited to things of the same kind as specified in the particular words
C
both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 99Single Answer
Which of the following is an internal aid to construction of a statute?
A
Title
B
Preamble
C
Proviso and explanation
D
All of the above
Question 100Single Answer
The maxim Generalia specialibus non deterogant means:
A
a general later law does not abrogate an earlier special law by mere implication.
B
a general later law abrogates an earlier special law by mere implication.
C
a special later law does not abrogate an earlier general law by mere implication.
D
None of the above
Question 101Single Answer
Which of the following is not an external aid to construction of a statute?
A
Parliamentary debates
B
Statement of object and reasons
C
Books and dictionaries
D
Marginal notes
Question 102Single Answer
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in the present day context?
A
Judges did not create any new principles of law through their decisions but simply put a stamp of authority on the already existing principles of law in the society.
B
Judicial decisions are not source of law but as the proof of what the law is.
C
Judges not only declare law but also make it through their decisions.
D
The judges either apply the constitution or legislation or a custom to come to a conclusion.
Question 103Single Answer
Who said: "Case law is gold in mine while statute law is coin of the realm ready for immediate use"?
A
Grotius
B
Hugo
C
Puchta
D
Salmond
Question 104Single Answer
The realist theory is given by
A
Ihering
B
Gierke
C
Savigny
D
Kelsen
Question 105Single Answer
The making of law by the recognition and application of new rules by the courts themselves in the administration of justice implies:
A
judicial precedent
B
judicial decision
C
judicial activism
D
Both (a) and (c)
Question 106Single Answer
The doctrine of precedent is of antiquity. while the stare decisis is relatively modern, the latter relates to:
A
settled judicial hierarchy of courts and law reports
B
emergence of concept of sovereignty of Parliament
C
a point of law settled by a judicial decision
D
None of the above
Question 107Single Answer
Ratio decidendi of a case can be defined as the:
A
material facts of the case plus the decision thereon
B
obiter dicta of the case plus the decision thereon
C
the decision of a case
D
None of the above
Question 108Single Answer
The decision of the Supreme Court are bounded on:
A
All court within the territory of India, including Supreme Court
B
High Courts only
C
All courts within the territory of India, except Supreme Court
D
Indians living abroad
Question 109Single Answer
According to who, ratio decidendi is nothing more than the decision based on the material facts of a case?
A
Dias
B
Wambaugh
C
Goodhart
D
Bentham
Question 110Single Answer
Who said: "A right is a faculty which resides in a determinate party or parties by virtue of a given law and which avails against a party or parties other than the party or parties in whom it resides"?
A
Austin
B
Salmond
C
Hart
D
Kelsen
Question 111Single Answer
Which of the following is incorrect in relation to right in its various forms and its opposites?
A
Claim - duty
B
Liberty - no-claim
C
Power - liberty
D
Immunity - disability
Question 112Single Answer
Mark the incorrect options:
A
Liberty - freedom from the claim other
B
Duty- gives content to the claim of a person
C
Power - ability of a person to change relations
D
Absolute duty - have a correlative claim
Question 113Single Answer
In India, it is a duty of every citizen to respect national flag, protect culture etc., it is:
A
Absolute duty
B
Relative duty
C
Secondary duty
D
None of the above
Question 114Single Answer
What is the main element of a right?
A
Will
B
Interest
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Coercion
Question 115Single Answer
A jural relation between:
A
person and person
B
person and a thing
C
person and state
D
person and object
Question 116Single Answer
Duties without a corresponding rights are called:
A
absolute duty
B
relative duty
C
secondary duty
D
None of the above
Question 117Single Answer
A gives B Rs. 600 as a consideration for a contract. Now A has:
A
power
B
privilege
C
claim
D
immunity
Question 118Single Answer
Mark the incorrect option:
A
Immunity - freedom from the power of another
B
Disability- absence of power
C
Nemo dat quod non habet - disability on the part of persons in general to transfer property that they do not themselves own
D
Disability - no right
Question 119Single Answer
Duty implies:
A
obligation
B
an act that opposite of which would be wrong
C
one may perform a certain act
D
None of the above
Question 120Single Answer
Which of the following is incorrect in relation to right in its various forms and its opposites?
A
Right - no right
B
Liberty - duty
C
Power - immunity
D
Immunity – liability
Question 121Single Answer
When a power is coupled with a liberty to exercise it, it is called:
A
discretionary power
B
ministerial power
C
wrongful power
D
relative power
Question 122Single Answer
A primary right can be a:
A
right in rem only
B
right in personam only
C
Either (a) or (b)
D
None of the above
Question 123Single Answer
All cases of damnum sine injuria are cases of:
A
disability
B
liability
C
liberty
D
no right
Question 124Single Answer
Which of the following is not mentioned in the Hohfeldian scheme?
A
Jural correlatives
B
Jural opposites
C
Jural contradictories
D
None of the above
Question 125Single Answer
A right in personam is:
A
available only against a particular person
B
available against person in general
C
a positive right
D
Both (a) and (c)
Question 126Single Answer
The object of right is called:
A
jus
B
res
C
sine
D
lex
Question 127Single Answer
A time barred claim is a:
A
perfect right
B
imperfect right
C
right in rem
D
None of the above
Question 128Single Answer
A person is any being whom the law regards as capable of:
A
rights only
B
duties only
C
rights or duties
D
None of the above
Question 129Single Answer
Legal theory assumes that a person is an entity which is capable of suing and being sued. In view of this, which of the following is/are not a legal person?
A
Idiots
B
Lunatics
C
Dead persons
D
All of the above
Question 130Single Answer
Who said the child in womb is not a legal personality and can have no right?
A
Savigny
B
Bentham
C
Paton
D
Salmond
Question 131Single Answer
Natural persons being human beings are:
A
person in fact
B
person in law
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 132Single Answer
A company is vested with a distinct corporate personality from the members who compose it was held in:
A
Salomon vs Salomon and Co.
B
Daimler Co. Ltd. vs Continental Tyre Co.
C
Bridges vs Hawkesworth
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 133Single Answer
The main purpose of corporate sole is:
A
protect the property of the govt.
B
maintain continuity of an office
C
make the property easily transferable
D
make the property easily inheritable
Question 134Single Answer
An incorporated group of coexisting persons
A
corporation sole
B
corporation aggregate
C
individual
D
institution
Question 135Single Answer
Who amongst the following was the propounder of the theory that says: "the movement of the progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from status to contract"?
A
Hugo
B
Burke
C
Henry Maine
D
Herbert Spencer
Question 136Single Answer
Law is the sum of the conditions of social life in the widest sense of the term, as secured by the power of the state through the means
of external compulsion. This statement relates to:
A
Historical school
B
Analytical school
C
Natural law school
D
Sociological school
Question 137Single Answer
Which one of the following is not natural law?
A
Living law
B
Divine law
C
Universal law
D
Moral law
Question 138Single Answer
A right with me is a child of law_____ natural law is a son that never had a father. Who said this?
A
Jeremy Valdon
B
Bentham
C
Salmond
D
Paton
Question 139Single Answer
Which of the following pairs are jural correlatives?
1. Power - liability
2. Power - disability
3. Liberty - duty
4. Immunity - disability
Of the above pairs choose the correct answer:
A
1 and 3 are correct
B
2, 3 and 4 are correct
C
1 and 4 are correct
D
1, 3 and 4 are correct
Question 140Single Answer
The concept of social engineering is at the root of the definition of law given by:
A
Savigny
B
Roscoe
C
Hegel
D
Ehrlich
Question 141Single Answer
Do you know how they make it? Just as a man makes law for his dog. This famous statement on judge made law was made by:
A
Aristotle
B
Plucknett
C
Monstesquieu
D
Bentham
Question 142Single Answer
Who amongst the following treats law as a system of rules?
A
Allen
B
Hart
C
Jenks
D
Lloyd
Question 143Single Answer
In order that a local custom may be valid operative as a source of law, which of the following requirements besides antiquity to be satisfied?
1. Reasonableness
2. Conformity with the statute
3. Observance as matter of moral right
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
A
1 and 2
B
1, 2 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 3
Question 144Single Answer
The idea of natural law first appeared in:
A
French revolution
B
American war of independence
C
Roman law
D
Greek thinking
Question 145Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. Precedents are created by the judges
2. A precedent is not binding if it is inconsistent with a statute
3. Precedent can sometimes be created by legislation
Choose the correct answer:
A
1, 2 and 3 are correct
B
1 and 3 are correct
C
1 and 2 are correct
D
2 and 3 are correct
Question 146Single Answer
Who is generally considered as the founder of the historical school of jurisprudence?
A
Hegel
B
Savigny
C
Karl Marx
D
Emmanuel Kant
Question 147Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct?
A
Possession in fact confers actual right to property
B
Possession in fact exists only when a person has immediate physical control of the thing.
C
Possession in fact also extends to things which are beyond a persons immediate physical control.
D
Possession in fact is possible only when the possessor has the legal right to possess.
Question 148Single Answer
"Sovereignty according to Austin has the characteristics:
A
positive and negative both
B
positive only
C
negative only
D
internal
Question 149Single Answer
Consider the following four types of legal doctrines:
(1) Volksgeist
(2) Imperative theory of law
(3) Social engineering
(4) Social solidarity
Identify the correct order in terms of time in which they appeared:
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
3, 4, 1 and 2
C
2, 1, 3 and 4
D
2, 1, 4 and 3
Question 150Single Answer
Who opines that codification is the reduction of the whole corpus juris so far as practicable in the form of enacted law?