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Objective Questions

Latest UPPSC GDC Assistant Professor Home Science Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Studies, Home Science

Question Bank UPPSC GDC Assistant Professor (Home Science) Exam - English
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General Studies

Question 1Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A
    Ministry of Finance        
  2. B
    Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C
    Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D
    Planning Commission
Question 2Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A
    Ministry of Finance 
  2. B
    Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C
    Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D
    Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A
    Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B
    Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C
    Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D
    Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A
    1 and 3
  2. B
    2 and 3
  3. C
    1 and 2
  4. D
    1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A
    Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B
    Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C
    Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D
    Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
  1. A
    metastable state to any lower state
  2. B
    any higher state of lower state
  3. C
    metastable state to ground state
  4. D
    any higher state to ground state
Question 7Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
  1. A
    between 7 and 8
  2. B
    between 5 and 6
  3. C
    between 6 and 7
  4. D
    between 10 and 11
Question 8Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
  1. A
    the nature of enzymes involved
  2. B
    the nature of the substrate
  3. C
    the amount of carbon dioxide released
  4. D
    the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 9Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A
    Two
  2. B
    Three
  3. C
    Five
  4. D
    Four
  5. E
    None of these
Question 10Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A
    True
  2. B
    False
  3. C
    Uncertain
  4. D
    None
Question 11Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A
    A
  2. B
    E
  3. C
    T
  4. D
    X
  5. E
    Y
Question 12Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A
    None            
  2. B
    One         
  3. C
    Two       
  4. D
    Three        
  5. E
    More than three
Question 13Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A
    None
  2. B
    One
  3. C
    Two
  4. D
    Three
  5. E
    More than three
Question 14Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer  :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
  1. A
    Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B
    Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C
    BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D
    EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 15Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer  :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
  1. A
    Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B
    Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C
    BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D
    EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 16Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer  :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
  1. A
    Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B
    Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C
    BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D
    EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 17Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer  :
What is the value of x  ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
  1. A
    Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B
    Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C
    BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D
    EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 18Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer  :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years  ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
  1. A
    Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. B
    Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. C
    BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. D
    EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 19Single Answer
When Uttar Pradesh got it officially as statehood ?
  1. A
    24 January, 1950
  2. B
    26 January, 1952
  3. C
    1 January, 1956
  4. D
    18 February, 1957
Question 20Single Answer
How many districts are there in Uttar Pradesh
  1. A
    60
  2. B
    57
  3. C
    75
  4. D
    87
Question 21Single Answer
What are the official languages of Uttar Pradesh ?
  1. A
    Hindi & Urdu
  2. B
    Only Hindi
  3. C
    Only Urdu
  4. D
    Kumaoni
Question 22Single Answer
How many members of Lok Sabha from Uttar Pradesh ?
  1. A
    56
  2. B
    78
  3. C
    80
  4. D
    51
Question 23Single Answer
How many members of Rajya Sabha from Uttar Pradesh ?
  1. A
    45
  2. B
    51
  3. C
    31
  4. D
    77
Question 24Single Answer

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

  1. A
    Malik Muhammad Joyce
  2. B
    Raskhan
  3. C
    Rich Khusrow
  4. D
    Rich Hasan
Question 25Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
  1. A
    1946
  2. B
    1947
  3. C
    1948
  4. D
    1950
Question 26Single Answer
World AIDS Day is observed annually on December 1 to raise awareness about HIV/AIDS. Which theme was adopted for World AIDS Day 2025?
  1. A
    Ending the HIV Epidemic
  2. B
    Know Your Status
  3. C
    My Health, My Right
  4. D
    Zero Discrimination
Question 27Single Answer
India has been re-elected to the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) Council for the 2025-26 biennium. In which category did India secure the highest votes?
  1. A
    Category B (Economic Influence)
  2. B
    Category A (Major Maritime States)
  3. C
    Category C (Geographical Representation)
  4. D
    Observer Category
Question 28Single Answer
The Samudrayaan project, India's first manned deep-sea mission, faced delays in 2025 due to issues with components from which country?
  1. A
    United States
  2. B
    Russia
  3. C
    France
  4. D
    Japan
Question 29Single Answer
According to the Lowy Institute's Asia Power Index 2025, India has risen to which position in Asia?
  1. A
    3rd
  2. B
    2nd
  3. C
    1st
  4. D
    4th
Question 30Single Answer
Kashi Tamil Sangamam (KTS) 4.0 is scheduled to begin on December 2, 2025. Which ministry is hosting this event to strengthen cultural ties between Tamil Nadu and Varanasi?
  1. A
    Ministry of Culture
  2. B
    Ministry of Education
  3. C
    Ministry of Tourism
  4. D
    Ministry of External Affairs

Home Science

Question 31Single Answer
When was the POSHAN abhiyaan launched ?
  1. A
    March 8, 2018
  2. B
    January 26, 2018
  3. C
    May 1, 2018
  4. D
    April 30, 2018
Question 32Single Answer
What are Sequestrates ?
  1. A
    They are added to keep the food stable
  2. B
    Form a complex ion with metals like copper, iron etc
  3. C
    Added for colour
  4. D
    They keep the food oxidized
Question 33Single Answer
Vitamin D3 is also known as :
  1. A
    Retinol
  2. B
    Cholecalciferol
  3. C
    Tocopherol
  4. D
    Ergocalciferol
Question 34Single Answer
When the food is directly given in the veins, it is called ?
  1. A
    Parenteral nutrition
  2. B
    Enteral nutrition
  3. C
    Nasogastric nutrition
  4. D
    Saline nutrition
Question 35Single Answer
The time and temperature used for the pasteurisation of milk is :
  1. A
    72° C/15 min
  2. B
    72° C/15 sec
  3. C
    72° C/30 min
  4. D
    72° C/30 sec
Question 36Single Answer
In order to pursue the research, which of the following is pre - required ?
  1. A
    Developing a research design
  2. B
    Formulating a research question
  3. C
    Deciding about the data analysis procedure
  4. D
    Formulating a research hypothesis
Question 37Single Answer
Any two immiscible liquid when mixed together form an :
  1. A
    Aerosol
  2. B
    Emulsion
  3. C
    Gel
  4. D
    Sol
Question 38Single Answer
Symptoms of thiamine deficiency are :
(a) Peripheral neuropathy
(b) Photophobia
(c) Cardiomegaly
(d) Koilonychias
(e) Tachycardia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A
    (a), (b) and (d) only
  2. B
    (c), (d) and (e) only
  3. C
    (a), (c) and (e) only
  4. D
    (b), (d) and (e) only
Question 39Single Answer
Proteins present in milk are :
(a) Lactalbumins
(b) Lacto globulins
(c) Casein
(d) Ovalbumin
(e) Myosin
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A
    (a), (b) and (c) only
  2. B
    (a), (c) and (e) only
  3. C
    (b), (c) and (d) only
  4. D
    (c), (d) and (e) only
Question 40Single Answer
Identify the names of essential fatty acids :
(a) Linoleic
(b) Butyric
(c) Linoleic
(d) Meristic
(e) Arachidonic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A
    (a), (c) and (d) only
  2. B
    (c), (d) and (e) only
  3. C
    (a), (c) and (e) only
  4. D
    (b), (d) and (e) only
Question 41Single Answer
Major symptoms of diabetes are :
(a) Polyuria
(b) Glossitis
(c) Acidosis
(d) Techycardia
(e) Nocturia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A
    (a), (b) and (d) only
  2. B
    (a), (c) and (e) only
  3. C
    (a), (b) and (e) only
  4. D
    (a), (c) and (d) only
Question 42Single Answer
Match the food additives given in List - I with their functions in List - II .
        List - 1                                            List - II
(Food additives)                                 (Functions)
(a) Yeast                                           (i) Emulsifier
(b) Soy lecithin                                 (ii) Antioxidant
(c) Butyrate hydroxyl toluene           (iii) Bleaching Agent
(d) Benzoyl peroxide                        (iv) Preservative
(e) Calcium sorbet                            (v) Leavening
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A
    (a)   (b)  (c)   (d)  (e)
    (ii)   (iii)  (i)    (iv)  (v)
  2. B
    (v)   (i)    (iii)  (iv)  (ii)
  3. C
    (v)   (i)    (ii)   (iii)  (iv)
  4. D
    (v)   (i)    (ii)   (iv)  (iii)
Question 43Single Answer
Match biochemical tests in List - I with nutritional deficiency disease in List - II .
         List - I                                    List - II
(Biochemical test)            (Nutritional deficiency disease)
(a) Serum albumin                (i) Vitamin A deficiency
(b) Haemoglobin                   (ii) Goitre
(c) Urinary iodine                  (iii) Kwashiorkor
(d) Serum retinol                   (iv) Anaemia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A
    (a)  (b)   (c)   (d)  
    (iv)  (i)    (iii)  (ii)  
  2. B
    (iii)  (i)    (ii)   (iv) 
  3. C
    (ii)   (iii)  (iv)  (i)   
  4. D
    (iii)  (iv)  (ii)   (i)    
Question 44Single Answer
Match vitamins given in List - I with their functions in List - II .
      List - I                                  List - II
   (Vitamins)                            (Functions)
(a) Vitamin B12            (i) Protection of PUFA from oxidative damage
(b) Vitamin A                (ii) Role in carbohydrate metabolism
(c) Vitamin E                (iii) Role in formation of normal RBC
(d) Thiamine                (iv) Integrity of epithelial tissues
Choose the correct given below: answer from the options
  1. A
    (a)   (b)  (c)  (d)  
    (iii)  (iv)  (ii)   (i)   
  2. B
    (iii)  (i)    (ii)   (iv) 
  3. C
    (ii)   (i)    (iii)  (iv) 
  4. D
    (iii)  (iv)  (i)    (ii)
Question 45Single Answer
Arrange the stages of new food product development :
(a) Idea generation
(b) Product development
(c) Screening
(d) Commercialization
(e) Concept development
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A
    (a), (c), (d), (b), (e)
  2. B
    (a), (c), (b), (d), (e)
  3. C
    (a), (c), (e), (b), (d)
  4. D
    (a), (b), (e), (c), (d)
Question 46Single Answer
Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) .
Assertion (A) : Calcium requirements during lactation are higher than during pregnancy .
Reason (R) : As lactating women lose bone mass during breast feeding because less oestrogen hormone is produced .
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
  1. A
    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. B
    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
  3. C
    (A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. D
    (A) is false, but (R) is true
Question 47Single Answer
By mistake you have over blued your clothes. Which of the following reagents you would use to rectify the fault ?
  1. A
    Acetic acid
  2. B
    Borax
  3. C
    Sodium chloride
  4. D
    Oxalic acid
Question 48Single Answer
Which of the following apparel production systems is based on teamwork and shared responsibility for quantity and quality of output ?
  1. A
    Progressive bundle system
  2. B
    Unit production system
  3. C
    Modular production system
  4. D
    Customized production system
Question 49Single Answer
Which of the following is a knit fabric that uses fine worsted yarns ?
  1. A
    Inlay
  2. B
    Zephyr
  3. C
    Intarsia
  4. D
    Shaker
Question 50Single Answer
For making a dress with kasuti embroidery, which of the following motifs will you use ?
  1. A
    Gopuram
  2. B
    Tulsi Vrindavan
  3. C
    Nandi
  4. D
    Chokla
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