Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Financeย
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
ย ย ย ย ย ย 1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย 2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย ย 3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 8Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 9Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 10Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 11Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 12Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 13Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 14Single Answer
What is the study of ethics primarily concerned with ?
A
Economic behavior
B
Human values and moral principles
C
Physical health
D
Political systems
Question 15Single Answer
What is the lithosphere composed of ?
A
Water and gases
B
Rocks and minerals
C
Living organisms
D
Air and gases
Question 16Single Answer
The lithosphere includes :
A
Only the Earth's crust
B
The Earth's crust and upper mantle
C
Only the Earth's mantle
D
The Earth's crust, mantle, and core
Question 17Single Answer
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A
Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B
Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C
Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D
Dr. Satish Dhawan
Question 18Single Answer
Which organization is responsible for India's space exploration programs?
A
BARC
B
ISRO
C
DRDO
D
HAL
Question 19Single Answer
In a centrally planned economy, what is the primary mechanism for resource allocation?
A
Market prices
B
Government directives
C
Consumer preferences
D
Private enterprise
Question 20Single Answer
Which of the following is a key disadvantage of a traditional economic system compared to a mixed economy?
A
High economic growth potential
B
Resistance to technological innovation
C
Flexible resource allocation
D
Strong government intervention
Question 21Single Answer
Uttar Pradesh is located in which part of India?
A
Western India
B
Southern India
C
Northern India
D
Eastern India
Question 22Single Answer
What is the capital of Uttar Pradesh?
A
Kanpur
B
Lucknow
C
Prayagraj
D
Varanasi
Question 23Single Answer
Uttar Pradesh was formed in which year (as United Provinces renamed later)?
A
1950
B
1947
C
1937
D
1960
Question 24Single Answer
Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state of India?
A
Not applicable
B
False
C
Partially true
D
True
Question 25Single Answer
Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with how many Indian states?
A
6
B
7
C
8
D
9
Question 26Single Answer
What is the name of the next phase of Indiaโs semiconductor programme notified by the Government in August 2026?
A
Chip India 3.0
B
India Chip Mission
C
Semicon 2.0
D
Semiconductor Bharat
Question 27Single Answer
Which country conferred its highest honour for foreign leaders, the โOliy Darajali Doโstlik Orderโ, on Prime Minister Narendra Modi?
A
Kazakhstan
B
Kyrgyzstan
C
Uzbekistan
D
Tajikistan
Question 28Single Answer
Where was the 2026 SCO Leadersโ Summit held?
A
Tashkent
B
Bishkek
C
Dushanbe
D
Astana
Question 29Single Answer
India and Uzbekistan recently upgraded their bilateral relationship to which level?
A
Strategic Partnership
B
Economic Partnership
C
Comprehensive Strategic Partnership
D
Defence Partnership
Question 30Single Answer
Which two organisations signed an MoU to promote smart domestic PNG meters?
A
ONGC and IOCL
B
GAIL and NTPC
C
PNGRB and EESL
D
HPCL and BPCL
Concerned Subject (Inspector of Drugs)
Question 31Single Answer
Which preparation is used to help prevent dehydration or achieve rehydration?
A
Lytren solution
B
Liposul
C
Bicytra
D
Mylicon
Question 32Single Answer
Emulsions prepared using Tweens as the principal emulsifying agents are usually of which type?
A
Water-in-oil
B
Oil-in-water
C
Multiple emulsion
D
Microcapsule dispersion
E
ย reversible
Question 33Single Answer
Compared with the corresponding crystalline form, an amorphous form of a drug is generally?
A
Less soluble
B
More soluble
C
Chemically identical to a solvate
D
Completely insoluble
Question 34Single Answer
A triple-roller mill is particularly useful in pharmaceutical preparation for reducing particle size and producing smooth?
A
Ointments
B
Hard gelatin capsules
C
Aerosols
D
Suppository molds
Question 35Single Answer
Particle-size reduction is most likely to improve drug absorption when absorption is limited primarily by which process?
A
Dissolution of a poorly soluble drug
B
Renal filtration
C
Hepatic metabolism
D
Plasma-protein synthesis
Question 36Single Answer
A material whose apparent viscosity increases as shear rate increases is classified as?
A
Dilatant
B
Newtonian
C
Pseudoplastic
D
Thixotropic
Question 37Single Answer
A solution contains 3 grains of a drug per US fluid ounce. Approximately what is its percentage strength w/v?
A
0.66%
B
0.20%
C
1.50%
D
6.60%
Question 38Single Answer
Cyanocobalamin is which type of substance?
A
Steroid
B
Vitamin
C
Cholinesterase inhibitor
D
Enzyme
Question 39Single Answer
Tweens are best classified as which type of pharmaceutical excipient?
A
Nonionic surfactants
B
Phospholipids
C
Glycosides
D
Inorganic electrolytes
Question 40Single Answer
Which process can promote separation of an emulsion by accelerating movement of dispersed droplets?
A
Centrifugation
B
Buffering
C
Isotonization
D
Sweetening
Question 41Single Answer
Which gastrointestinal effect is characteristically associated with oral iron preparations?
A
Darkening of stools
B
Blue discoloration of saliva
C
Green discoloration of tears
D
Purple discoloration of sweat
Question 42Single Answer
Orally administered lidocaine has limited systemic usefulness largely because it undergoes extensive?
A
First-pass hepatic metabolism
B
Renal tubular secretion before absorption
C
Photochemical degradation in the stomach
D
Pulmonary metabolism before absorption
Question 43Single Answer
On exposure to air and light, phenol may gradually develop which discoloration because of oxidation?
A
Pink to reddish coloration
B
Bright green coloration
C
Deep blue coloration
D
Pure white coloration
Question 44Single Answer
Approximately how much HgClโ is required to prepare 1 US pint (about 473 mL) of a 1:5000 w/v solution?
A
9.5 mg
B
47.3 mg
C
94.6 mg
D
473 mg
Question 45Single Answer
Which sulfonylurea has historically been associated with potentiation of the antidiuretic action of vasopressin?
A
Chlorpropamide
B
Chloramphenicol
C
Phenytoin
D
Dicoumarol
Question 46Single Answer
Which two drug properties are commonly altered by pharmaceutical complexation?
A
Stability and solubility
B
Atomic number and density
C
Molecular formula and atomic mass
D
Radioactivity and isotopic abundance
Question 47Single Answer
If drug distribution into tissues occurs more slowly than elimination from plasma, what is most likely to occur initially?
A
Failure to rapidly attain distribution equilibrium
B
Immediate pharmacodynamic tolerance
C
Complete inhibition of metabolism
D
Irreversible plasma-protein binding
Question 48Single Answer
In pharmaceutical aerosol terminology, PSIG stands for?
A
Pounds per square inch gauge
B
Pressure standard in glass
C
Pounds per square inch gravity
D
Propellant strength in grams
Question 49Single Answer
In the older terminology of radiation protection, the abbreviation rem stands for?
A
Roentgen equivalent man
B
Radiation emission meter
C
Relative electron mass
D
Roentgen exposure measurement
Question 50Single Answer
Azathioprine is primarily classified as a?
A
Immunosuppressant
B
Cardiotonic
C
Antacid
D
Local anesthetic
Important Questions Package
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Description : 1000 Question & Answer Download in PDF (Send by Email)
โน151[โน450]
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โน151[โน450]
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Concerned Subject (Inspector of Drugs)
Question 51Single Answer
Phenol has which property with respect to water at ordinary conditions?
A
It has appreciable but limited solubility in water
B
It is completely immiscible with water
C
It is a carboxylic acid
D
It is an inorganic base
Question 52Single Answer
The pH of an aqueous solution is fundamentally related to the activity of which ion?
A
Hydrogen ion
B
Sodium ion
C
Chloride ion
D
Calcium ion
Question 53Single Answer
Which tissue commonly serves as an important storage site for highly lipid-soluble drugs?
A
Adipose tissue
B
Corneal epithelium
C
Dental enamel
D
Nail plate
Question 54Single Answer
Extensive distribution or sequestration of a drug in tissues is commonly associated with which pharmacokinetic finding?
A
Large apparent volume of distribution
B
Zero clearance
C
Complete absence of metabolism
D
Very small apparent volume of distribution
Question 55Single Answer
Oxytocin may be administered clinically to?
A
Induce or augment labor
B
Prevent fertilization
C
Treat male hypogonadism
D
Produce chronic hypertension
Question 56Single Answer
Which antibiotic is acid-labile and therefore undergoes substantial degradation in the acidic environment of the stomach?
A
Penicillin G
B
Acetaminophen
C
Hydrocortisone
D
Aspirin
Question 57Single Answer
A surfactant can increase the dissolution of a poorly water-soluble drug primarily by improving?
A
Wetting and interfacial contact
B
Nuclear decay
C
Renal filtration pressure
D
Hepatic blood formation
Question 58Single Answer
Which drug is known to produce blue fluorescence of urine under ultraviolet light?
A
Triamterene
B
Riboflavin
C
Nitrofurantoin
D
Cascara
Question 59Single Answer
Extensive plasma-protein binding generally affects drug biotransformation by?
A
Slowing metabolism of the bound fraction
B
Completely preventing metabolite formation
C
Converting metabolism to renal filtration
D
Always accelerating hepatic metabolism
Question 60Single Answer
Celestone Soluspan contains formulations of which corticosteroid?
A
Betamethasone
B
Dexamethasone
C
Prednisone
D
Cortisone
Question 61Single Answer
The site and timing of drug release from an enteric-coated tablet depend strongly on gastrointestinal?
A
pH and transit conditions
B
Blood group
C
Respiratory rate alone
D
Skin temperature alone
Question 62Single Answer
Carbolic acid is another name for?
A
Phenol
B
Benzoic acid
C
Salicylic acid
D
Acetylsalicylic acid
Question 63Single Answer
Which dosage-form approach is commonly used to improve palatability by masking an unpleasant drug taste?
A
Taste-masking formulation
B
Increasing particle contamination
C
Removing all excipients
D
Increasing microbial load
Question 64Single Answer
Which medium used in compendial sterility testing is suitable for detecting fungi as well as aerobic bacteria?
A
Soybeanโcasein digest medium
B
Fluid thioglycollate medium only
C
Distilled water
D
Physiological saline alone
Question 65Single Answer
When a product contains an antimicrobial substance that could interfere with a sterility test, the test method should?
A
Neutralize or remove the antimicrobial activity appropriately
B
Automatically declare the product sterile
C
Omit incubation
D
Perform only a visual color test
Question 66Single Answer
Which medium is primarily intended for detection of anaerobic bacteria during compendial sterility testing?
A
Fluid thioglycollate medium
B
Purified water
C
Lactose solution
D
Mineral oil
Question 67Single Answer
Which factor can significantly alter the hepatic metabolism of another drug?
A
Enzyme induction or inhibition
B
Tablet color alone
C
Capsule shell color alone
D
Prescription handwriting style
Question 68Single Answer
What is the principal pharmaceutical role of potassium iodide in strong iodine solution?
A
Increasing the aqueous solubility of iodine
B
Acting as the main preservative
C
Increasing solution viscosity
D
Producing an emulsion
Question 69Single Answer
Which organic nitrate is commonly used for rapid relief of an acute anginal attack when administered sublingually?
A
Nitroglycerin
B
Warfarin
C
Digoxin
D
Hydrochlorothiazide
Question 70Single Answer
The usual adult dose of a drug is 6 grains. According to Young's rule, what dose is calculated for a 6-year-old child?
A
1 grain
B
2 grains
C
3 grains
D
4 grains
Question 71Single Answer
Creaming is a ________ process.
A
Reversible
B
Irreversible
C
Downward
D
Both (a) and (c)
Question 72Single Answer
o/w emulsions normally cream in _______ direction.
A
Downward
B
Upward
C
First up and then down
D
First down then up
Question 73Single Answer
ย ______ is an example of non-ionic polymer.
A
Cellulose
B
Pectin
C
Glucose
D
Methyl cellulose
Question 74Single Answer
Electrolytes are added in suspensions to _____ the zeta potential.
A
Neutralize
B
Decrease
C
Increase
D
Stabilize
Question 75Single Answer
The sedimentation volume of an ideal suspension should be _____
ย
A
One
B
Greater than one
C
Zero
D
Less than one
Question 76Single Answer
Which combination correctly describes a flocculated pharmaceutical suspension?
A
Particles form loose aggregates and the supernatant becomes clear
B
Particles form a compact hard cake and the supernatant remains turbid
C
Sedimentation is negligible and particles remain completely dispersed
D
Redispersion becomes progressively impossible
Question 77Single Answer
Which law is commonly used to describe the sedimentation velocity of spherical particles in a dilute pharmaceutical suspension?
A
Stokes' law
B
Henry's law
C
Raoult's law
D
Beer-Lambert law
Question 78Single Answer
According to the phase-volume concept, approximately what maximum volume fraction of monodisperse spherical droplets corresponds to close packing before severe instability becomes likely?
A
0.26
B
0.50
C
0.74
D
0.90
Question 79Single Answer
Which among the following is the chief ingredient of anti-diarrhoeal mixture?
A
Charcoal
B
Kaolin
C
Calamine
D
Aluminum Hydroxide
Question 80Single Answer
Which rheological test applies a constant stress and measures time-dependent deformation of a semisolid material?
A
Creep test
B
Pycnometry
C
Nephelometry
D
Refractometry
Question 81Single Answer
Compared with its continuous aqueous phase, the apparent viscosity of an oil-in-water emulsion is generally?
A
Higher
B
Always lower
C
Exactly identical
D
Always zero
Question 82Single Answer
According to Stoke's equation, the creaming of emulsion will take place in _____ direction, if the density of the dispersed phase is more than that of the dispersion medium.
ย
ย
A
Downward
B
Upward
C
Centre
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 83Single Answer
____ of an emulsion occurs when the distributionsย is of globules is not uniform.
A
Caking
B
Breaking
C
Creaming
D
Coalescence
Question 84Single Answer
The commercial method for the preparation of emulsions is ______
ย
A
Homogenization
B
Lyophilization
C
Centrifugation
D
Both (a) and (c)
Question 85Single Answer
According to Stokes' law, which change most directly reduces the rate of creaming in an emulsion?
A
Decreasing globule size
B
Increasing globule size
C
Decreasing continuous-phase viscosity
D
Increasing the density difference between phases
Question 86Single Answer
The ratio of oil : water : gum, used for the preparation of a primary emulsion containing a fixed oil is ____
A
4 : 4 : 2
B
4 : 2 : 1
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
2 : 4 : 4
Question 87Single Answer
The percentage of sucrose in simple syrup I.P is ___
A
66.7% w/w
B
85% w/w
C
56% w/w
D
33% w/w
Question 88Single Answer
Commonly used solvent in throat paint is ____
A
Castor Oil
B
Sucrose Syrup
C
Glycerin
D
Alcohol
Question 89Single Answer
Lugol's solution is an aqueous solution containing iodine together with which substance to enhance iodine solubility?
A
Potassium iodide
B
Sodium bicarbonate
C
Calcium chloride
D
Magnesium sulfate
Question 90Single Answer
Which of the following processes is used for the extraction of volatile oils from plants?
A
Simple Distillation
B
Steam Distillation
C
Extraction
D
Soxhlation
Question 91Single Answer
In atherosclerosis, the serum level of____decreases.
A
Triglycerides
B
VLDL
C
HDL
D
LDL
Question 92Single Answer
Which drug can significantly increase plasma digoxin concentrations and thereby increase the risk of digitalis toxicity?
A
Quinidine
B
Potassium chloride
C
Lidocaine
D
Magnesium sulfate
Question 93Single Answer
When quinidine is initiated in a patient receiving digoxin, which measure is particularly important?
A
Monitor digoxin concentration and adjust its dose when necessary
Match the cardiovascular drug with its principal pharmacological action:
1. Papaverine โ Vasodilator
2. Verapamil โ Calcium-channel blocker
3. Hydralazine โ Direct arteriolar vasodilator
4. Dobutamine โ βโ-adrenergic agonist
Which matching sequence is correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched
B
Only 1 and 2 are correctly matched
C
Only 2 and 3 are correctly matched
D
Only 3 and 4 are correctly matched
Question 97Single Answer
Which of the following are the potential targets for designing antihypertensive drugs?
(A) H2-receptors
(B) Proton pump
(C) ย - adrenergic receptors
(D) Calcium channel proteins
Its elimination half-life in adults with normal renal function is approximately 36โ48 hours
B
It is metabolized almost completely by the liver
C
It primarily accelerates AV nodal conduction
D
Its principal elimination pathway is pulmonary excretion
Question 100Single Answer
Digitalis glycosides are used in congestive heart failure as they increase the____.
A
Force of myocardial contraction
B
Cardiac filling pressure
C
Heart rate
D
Venous pressure
Question 101Single Answer
Digitalis is used in congestive heart failure. It acts by ____.
A
Decreasing the intracellular sodium levels
B
Activating adenylyl cyclase to produce cAMP
C
Decreasing the release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum
D
Inhibiting the action of Na+ -K+ -ATPase enzyme
Question 102Single Answer
Concomitant administration of ____ increases the risk of digitalis toxicity.
A
Lidocaine
B
Triamterene
C
Hydrochlorothiazide
D
Captopril
Question 103Single Answer
___is a cardioselective -blocker with vasodilatory action.
A
Atenolol
B
Bisoprolol
C
Nebivolol
D
Pindolol
Question 104Single Answer
___is specifically indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias.
A
Mexiletine
B
Diltiazem
C
Propranolol
D
Nifedipine
Question 105Single Answer
Which angiotensin-II receptor blocker is used in hypertension?
A
Valsartan
B
Amlodipine
C
Atenolol
D
Enalapril
Question 106Single Answer
Why may metoprolol be preferred over propranolol when βโ-selectivity is clinically desirable?
A
Metoprolol is relatively selective for βโ-adrenoceptors
B
Metoprolol is an irreversible α-blocker
C
Metoprolol is a calcium-channel blocker
D
Metoprolol stimulates βโ-adrenoceptors
Question 107Single Answer
Which cardiac drug exerts its positive inotropic action primarily by stimulating βโ-adrenoceptors and increasing intracellular cAMP?
A
Dobutamine
B
Digitoxin
C
Nicardipine
D
Sotalol
Question 108Single Answer
Which antianginal drug may produce reflex tachycardia because of marked vasodilation?
A
Nitroglycerin
B
Timolol
C
Atenolol
D
Ivabradine
Question 109Single Answer
Which drug is particularly useful in vasospastic or Prinzmetal angina because it blocks L-type calcium channels and relaxes coronary vascular smooth muscle?
A
Nifedipine
B
Timolol
C
Digoxin
D
Hydrochlorothiazide
Question 110Single Answer
Sublingual nitroglycerine tablet has a duration of action of___.
A
3-5 mins
B
10-30 mins
C
1-2 hours
D
8-10 hours
Question 111Single Answer
Which antihypertensive drug inhibits the renin angiotensin-aldosterone system?
A
Propranolol
B
Methyldopa
C
Reserpine
D
Enalapril
Question 112Single Answer
Terazosin lowers blood pressure primarily by blocking which receptors?
A
αโ-adrenoceptors
B
βโ-adrenoceptors
C
βโ-adrenoceptors
D
Hโ-receptors
Question 113Single Answer
Clonidine lowers blood pressure predominantly by stimulating which central receptors?
A
αโ-adrenoceptors
B
βโ-adrenoceptors
C
Hโ-receptors
D
Dโ-receptors
Question 114Single Answer
Which condition is an important contraindication to the use of a nonselective β-blocker such as propranolol?
A
Bronchial asthma with bronchospasm
B
Essential hypertension
C
Migraine prophylaxis
D
Stable angina pectoris
Question 115Single Answer
Which one of the following sentence is true for nitrates?
A
They have diuretic effect
B
They are drugs of choice in hypertension
C
Glyceryl trinitrates is used in the rapid relief from angina
D
Tolerance is developed only to adverse effects but not to antianginal effect.
Question 116Single Answer
Furosemide is an example of____.
A
Potassium-sparing diuretic
B
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
C
Thiazide diuretic
D
Loop diuretic
Question 117Single Answer
Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?
A
Clonidine
B
Losartan
C
Acebutalol
D
Amlodipine
Question 118Single Answer
Which direct-acting arteriolar vasodilator relaxes vascular smooth muscle and is used in the treatment of hypertension?
A
Hydralazine
B
Physostigmine
C
Pilocarpine
D
Pralidoxime
Question 119Single Answer
Thiazide diuretics do not cause which of the following adverse effect?
A
Hypokalaemia
B
Hyperuricaemia
C
Hypoglycaemia
D
Hypercalcaemia
Question 120Single Answer
____ is the most commonly used diuretic along with antihypertensive drugs.
A
Acetazolamide
B
Mannitol
C
Spironolactone
D
Hydrochlorothiazide
Question 121Single Answer
Enalapril maleate is an____.
A
Antihistaminic agent
B
Antihypertensive agent
C
Antiseptic
D
Antibiotic
Question 122Single Answer
Guanethidine is an_____drug.
A
Antiemetic
B
Anticonvulsant
C
Antimalarial
D
Antihypertensive
Question 123Single Answer
Diazoxide used for rapid reduction of blood pressure in a hypertensive emergency was historically administered by which route?
A
Oral route
B
Intramuscular route
C
Intravenous route
D
Subcutaneous route
Question 124Single Answer
Spironolactone exerts its diuretic activity by inhibiting_____.
A
Histamine
B
Aldosterone
C
Insulin
D
Glucagon
Question 125Single Answer
___develops due to irrational use of digitalis.
A
Addiction
B
Habituation
C
Tolerance
D
Cumulative poisoning
Question 126Single Answer
____ions increase the action of digitalis.
A
Ca2+
B
Na+
C
K+
D
Mg2+
Question 127Single Answer
Lozenges are primarily designed to dissolve slowly in the mouth to produce which effect?
A
Local action in the mouth or throat
B
Drug release exclusively in the stomach
C
Drug release exclusively in the intestine
D
Intramuscular drug delivery
Question 128Single Answer
Vaginal suppositories are called as____
A
Pessaries
B
Implants
C
Enema
D
Douches
Question 129Single Answer
Turpentine liniment is used topically as ____.
A
Protective
B
Counter Irritant
C
Local Anesthetic
D
Antidandruff
Question 130Single Answer
_____ is a semisolid preparation with high concentration of powdered solids.
A
Ointment
B
Paste
C
Gel
D
Jelly
Question 131Single Answer
When was the Pharmacy Act 1948 enacted ?
A
1945
B
1948
C
1950
D
1955
Question 132Single Answer
The Pharmacy Act 1948 regulates the profession of :
A
Medicine
B
Law
C
Pharmacy
D
Engineering
Question 133Single Answer
The primary objective of the Pharmacy Act 1948 is to :
A
Control the prices of medicines
B
Regulate the education and practice of pharmacy
C
Promote alternative medicine systems
D
Regulate the practice of medicine
Question 134Single Answer
The Pharmacy Council of India is constituted by the Central Government under which section of the Pharmacy Act, 1948?
A
Section 3
B
Section 10
C
Section 19
D
Section 29
Question 135Single Answer
Who elects the President and Vice-President of the Pharmacy Council of India?
A
Members of the Central Council from among themselves
B
Central Government
C
State Governments jointly
D
President of India
Question 136Single Answer
The Pharmacy Act 1948 is applicable to which of the following professions ?
A
Medical practitioners
B
Pharmacists
C
Lawyers
D
Engineers
Question 137Single Answer
Who is responsible for maintaining the Indian Register of Pharmacists under the Pharmacy Act ?
A
Central Government
B
State Government
C
Pharmacy Council of India
D
Indian Medical Association
Question 138Single Answer
Which document prescribed under the Pharmacy Act specifies the minimum standard of education required for qualification as a pharmacist?
A
Education Regulations
B
Drugs Price Control Order
C
Indian Penal Code
D
National Formulary alone
Question 139Single Answer
Under the Pharmacy Act, inspectors appointed by the Pharmacy Council of India may inspect?
A
Institutions providing an approved course of study and examinations
B
Every retail pharmacy solely for drug-price control
C
Banks maintaining pharmaceutical accounts
D
Pharmaceutical patent offices
Question 140Single Answer
Under the Pharmacy Act, the education and training of pharmacists are regulated by :
A
Medical Council of India
B
All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)
C
Pharmacy Council of India (PCI)
D
Indian Nursing Council (INC)
Question 141Single Answer
What term describes the study of how drugs affect the body and how the body affects drugs ?
A
Pathology
B
Physiology
C
Pharmacology
D
Histology
Question 142Single Answer
Which phase of drug development involves testing a new drug on healthy volunteers to determine its safety and dosage range ?
A
Phase I
B
Phase II
C
Phase III
D
Phase IV
Question 143Single Answer
Which route of drug administration provides the fastest onset of action ?
A
Oral
B
Intravenous
C
Subcutaneous
D
Topical
Question 144Single Answer
Which of the following is an important responsibility of a clinical pharmacist?
A
Monitoring medication therapy and promoting safe drug use
B
Manufacturing medicines exclusively
C
Marketing pharmaceutical products
D
Performing surgical procedures
Question 145Single Answer
Which knowledge is particularly important for a clinical pharmacist when optimizing pharmacotherapy?
A
Disease states and their pharmacological management
B
Pharmaceutical advertising alone
C
Drug packaging design alone
D
Hospital architecture
Question 146Single Answer
Which is NOT a part of the clinical pharmacy practice?
A
Patient counseling
B
Drug utilization review
C
Manufacturing drugs
D
Therapeutic drug monitoring
Question 147Single Answer
Drugs may be classified using which basis?
A
Pharmacological action, mechanism, chemical class or therapeutic use
B
Retail price alone
C
Tablet color alone
D
Package shape alone
Question 148Single Answer
Analgesics are used for?
A
Infection
B
Fever only
C
Pain relief
D
Diabetes
Question 149Single Answer
Antibacterial antibiotics are principally used to treat?