📚 Exam by Category
▾
Question Bank

UPRVUNL Technician Grade 2 Exam (Electrician) - English

Duration: 180 · Questions: 200 · Max Marks: 200 · Language: 3

View UPRVUNL Technician (Grade 2) 2026 Exam Page

Electrical

1
Assuming both the voltage sources are in phase, the value of R for which maximum power is transferred from circuit A to circuit B is

                 
  1. A.0.8 Ω
  2. B.1.4 Ω
  3. C.2 Ω
  4. D.2.8 Ω
2
For the intrinsic gallium-arsenide, the conductivity at room temperature 25°C is 10-6 (ohm-m)-1, the electron and hole nobilities are 0.85 m2/V-s and 0.04 m2/V-s respectively. What is the intrinsic carrier concentration at the room temperature?
  1. A.7.0 × 1012 m-3
  2. B.7.0 × 10-12 m-3
  3. C.7.0 × 10-12 m3
  4. D.7.0 × 1012 m3
3
The resistivity of intrinsic germanium at 30°C is 0.46 –m. What is the intrinsic carrier density at 30°C if the electron mobility is 0.38 m2/V-s and the hole mobility is 0.18 m2/V-s?
  1. A.9.2 × 105/m3
  2. B.2.77 × 103/m3
  3. C.2.43 × 1019/m3
  4. D.8.9 × 1012/m3
4
Heat conduction in a semiconductor takes place
  1. A.By the mobility of the carriers
  2. B.Due to energy gap between conduction band and valency band
  3. C.By the holes and thermal vibrations of atoms
  4. D.By the electrons and thermal vibrations of atoms
5
Brewster angle is the angle when a wave is incident on the surface of a perfect dielectric at which there is no reflected wave and the incident wave is
  1. A.Parallel polarized
  2. B.Perpendicularly polarized
  3. C.Normally polarized
  4. D.None of the above
6
An electrical breakdown of a p-n junction occurs if
  1. A.Forward voltage increases up to the rating
  2. B.Reverse voltage increases beyond the rating
  3. C.Forward voltage decreases below the rating
  4. D.Reverse voltage decreases below the rating
7
The chief deterrent to the widespread application of superconducting materials is
  1. A.Very difficult to form, machine or case
  2. B.The difficult in attaining and maintaining extremely low temperature
  3. C.The poor strength-to-weight ratio
  4. D.The lower oxidation rate at elevated temperatures
8
Which one of the following properties is not observed in the carbon nanotubes ?
  1. A.High stiffness and strengths
  2. B.Low densities
  3. C.Unusual electrical property
  4. D.Non-ductile
9
The evidence for the importance of electron-phonon interaction in super-conductors comes from
  1. A.Meissner effect
  2. B.Josephson effect
  3. C.Isotope effect
  4. D.x quantization experiments
10
Which one of the following materials is used for cable insulation ?
  1. A.Phenol formaldehyde
  2. B.Polytetrafluoroethylene
  3. C.Polyvinyl chloride
  4. D.Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene
11
For high speed reading and storing of information in a computer, the material used is
  1. A.Ferrite
  2. B.Piezoelectric
  3. C.Pyroelectric
  4. D.Ferromagnetic above 768°C
12
The temperature above which an anti-ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called
  1. A.Peak temperature
  2. B.Neel temperatur
  3. C.Critical temperature
  4. D.Weiss temperature
13
Which effect is the converse of Peltier effect ?
  1. A.Seeback effect
  2. B.Thomson effect
  3. C.Hall effect
  4. D.Joule effect
14
Magnetic materials which may be readily magnetized in either direction are
  1. A.Soft magnetic materials
  2. B.Hard magnetic materials
  3. C.High eddy current loss materials
  4. D.High hysteresis loss materials
15
Consider the following statements regarding a ferromagnetic material:
1.Below the ferromagnetic Curie temperature, the ferromagnetic materials exhibit hysteresis effect.
2.The coercive force is the filed required to reduce the flux density to zero. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A.Both 1 and 2
  2. B.Neither 1 nor 2
  3. C.1 only
  4. D.2 only
16
The impact ionization phenomenon in semiconductor may be viewed as the reverse process of
  1. A.Radiative recombination
  2. B.Auger recombination
  3. C.Surface recombination
  4. D.Shockley-Read-Hall recombination
17
Refractive index of a slice glass can be reduced by doping it with tiny amount of
  1. A.GeO2
  2. B.B2O3
  3. C.P2O5x
  4. D.Al2O3
18
If a diameter of a copper wire is increased by two times keeping its terminal voltage same, then the drift velocity will
  1. A.Become twice
  2. B.Become half
  3. C.ecome four times
  4. D.Remain unchanged
19
In an induction type energy meter, the steady speed attained by the rotating disc is
1.Proportional to the deflecting torque.
2.Proportional to the resistance of the path of eddy currents.
3.Inversely proportional to the effective readings of disc from its axis.
4.Inversely proportional to the square of brake magnetic flux. 
Which of the above are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.2, 3 and 4 only
  4. D.1, 2, 3 and 4
20
If ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of  luck’ and ‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of the following indicates ‘ace the exam’?
  1. A.MCHTX
  2. B.MXHTC
  3. C.XMHCT
  4. D.XMHTC
21
Consider  the following statements associated with the basic electrostatic properties of ideal conductors:
1.The resultant field inside is zero.
2.The net charge density in the interior is zero.
3.Any net charges reside on the surface.
4.The surface is always equipotential.
5.The field just outside is zero. 
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. B.3, 4 and 5 only
  3. C.1, 2 and 3 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
22
A semiconductor device made out of a material having very high temperature coefficient of resistance is
  1. A.Transistor
  2. B.Varistor
  3. C.Thyristor
  4. D.Thermistor
23
The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature because
  1. A.The carrier concentration increases
  2. B.The mobility of carrier increases
  3. C.Both carrier concentration and mobility increases
  4. D.The band gap decreases
24
Which of the following are associated with soft superconductors?
1.Silsbee’s rule
2.Meissner effect
3.Faraday rotation
4.Curie-Weiss law
  1. A.2, 3 and 4
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.1 and 2 only
  4. D.2 and 3 only
25
In a two-channel oscilloscope operating in x-y mode, two in-phase 50 Hz sinusoidal waveforms of equal amplitude are fed to the two channels. What will be the resultant pattern on the screen?
  1. A.An ellipse
  2. B.A parabola
  3. C.Straight line inclined at 45 with respect to x-axis
  4. D.A circle
26
Materials, whose resistivity at very low temperature plunges from a finite value to zero and remains there upon further cooling, are known as
  1. A.
    Ferromagnetic materials
  2. B.
    High-energy hard magnetic materials
  3. C.
    Superconductors
  4. D.
    Ferromagnetic materials
27
In a superconductor, is the temperature is decreased below its critical temperature, the value of critical magnetic field will
  1. A.
    Increase
  2. B.
    Decrease
  3. C.
    Not change
  4. D.
    Increase or decrease depending on the superconductor material
28
The imaginary part of dielectric constant determines
  1. A.
    Component of current which is in phase with the applied field
  2. B.
    Component of energy absorbed per m3
  3. C.
    Amount of applied field
  4. D.
    Component of voltage which is in phase with the applied field
29
Direction: Each of the items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Statement (I)’ and the other as ‘Statement (II)’. Examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
  1. A.Statement (I):Hard magnetic materials are used for making permanent magnets.
    Statement (II):
    Hard magnetic materials have relatively small and narrow hysteresis loop.
  2. B.Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I)
  3. C.
    Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are individually true and Statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation of Statement (I)
  4. D.
    Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
  5. E.
    Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true 
30
In 8085A microprocessor, the operation performed by the instruction LHLD 2100 H is                                    
  1. A.(H) ← 21 H, (L) ←00 
  2. B.(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2101H)
  3. C.(H) ← M (2100 H), (L) ←M(2100H)
  4. D.(H) ← 00H, (L) ←21H                                                 
31
If the magnetic susceptibility of a specimen is small and positive, the specimen is
  1. A.
    Diamagnetic
  2. B.
    Paramagnetic
  3. C.
    Ferromagnetic
  4. D.
    Non-magnetic
32
Manganese ferrite is a 1 : 1 mixture of
  1. A.
    Manganese nitride and iron oxide
  2. B.
    Manganese oxide and iron nitride
  3. C.
    Manganese nitride and iron sulphide
  4. D.
    Manganese oxide and iron sulphide 
33
When a ferromagnetic substance is magnetized, small changes in dimensions occur. Such a phenomenon is known as
  1. A.
    Magnetic hysteresis
  2. B.
    Magnetic expansion
  3. C.
    Magnetostriction
  4. D.
    Magneto-calorisation
34
In ferromagnetic , anti-ferromagnetic and ferromagnetic materials, the atomic thermal motions counteract the coupling forces between the adjacent atomic dipole moments, thereby causing
  1. A.
    Some dipole misalignment regardless of whether an external field is present
  2. B.
    Increase in dipole alignment regardless of whether an external field is present
  3. C.
    No effect on dipole alignment
  4. D.
    Atoms tend to de-randomize the direction of moments 
35
The Hall effect voltage in intrinsic silicon
  1. A.
    Is positive
  2. B.
    Is zero
  3. C.
    Is negative
  4. D.
    Changes its sign based on application of magnetic field
36
Most outstanding property of indium antimonide is
  1. A.A very wide range gap
  2. B.
    High resistivity at room temperature
  3. C.
    High carrier mobility
  4. D.
    Very low conductivity at room temperature
37
Which of the following semiconducting compounds is used in photoconductive devices?
  1. A.
    Caesium antimonide
  2. B.
    Barium oxide
  3. C.
    Lead sulphide
  4. D.
    Zinc oxide
38
Consider the following transducers:
1.LVDT
2.Piezoelectric
3.Thermocouple
4.Photovoltaic cell
Which of the above are active transducers?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.
    1, 2 and 4
  3. C.
    2 and 3 only
  4. D.
    2, 3 and 4
39
Consider the following statements regarding magnetic materials:
1.A diamagnetic material has no permanent dipole
2.Paramagnetic material has anti-parallel orientation of equal moments with neighboring dipoles
3.Ferrimagnetic material has anti parallel orientation of unequal moments between neighboring dipoles
4.Anti-ferromagnetic material has negligible interaction between neighboring dipoles 
Which of these statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 2
  2. B.
    3 and 4
  3. C.
    2 and 4
  4. D.
    1 and 3 
40
Consider  the following statements regarding hysteresis loops of hard and soft magnetic materials:
1.Hysteresis loss of hard magnetic material will be less than that of soft material
2.Coercivity of hard materials will be greater than that of soft material
3.Retentivity of the two materials will always be equal
Which of these statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.
    2 only
  3. C.
    3 only
  4. D.
    1 and 3 only 
41
Loss-tangent in plane waves in lossy dielectrics will be
  1. A.
    Proportional to the Y component of the magnetic field intensity (HY)
  2. B.Inversely proportional to the Y component of the magnetic field intensity (HY)
  3. C.
    Inversely proportional to the X component of the magnetic field intensity (HX)
  4. D.
    proportional to the X component of the magnetic field intensity (HX)
42
Orientational polarization is
  1. A.
    Inversely proportional to temperature and proportional to the square of the permanent dipole moment
  2. B.
    proportional to temperature as well as to the square of the permanent dipole moment
  3. C.
    proportional to temperature and inversely proportional to the square of the permanent dipole moment
  4. D.
    Inversely proportional to temperature as well as to the square of the permanent dipole moment
43
Behavior of conductors, semiconductors and insulators is explained on the basis of
  1. A.
    Atomic nature
  2. B.
    Molecular structure
  3. C.
    Energy band structure
  4. D.
    All of the above
44
In general, for a superconductor, which of the following statements is true?
  1. A.
    A superconductor is a perfect paramagnetic material with the magnetic susceptibility equals to positive unity
  2. B.
    A superconductor is a perfect diamagnetic material with the magnetic susceptibility equals to negative one
  3. C.
    A superconductor is a perfect ferromagnetic material with the magnetic susceptibility equals to positive one
  4. D.
    A superconductor is a perfect piezoelectric material with the magnetic susceptibility equals to negative one
45
Ferro-electric materials have a
  1. A.
    High dielectric constant which varies non linearly
  2. B.
    Low dielectric constant and is non-linear
  3. C.
    High dielectric constant which varies linearly
  4. D.
    Low dielectric constant but linear
46
In the magnetic core the electromotive forces (emf) induced in accordance with Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction give rise to
  1. A.
    Eddy current
  2. B.
    Excitation current
  3. C.
    Armature current
  4. D.
    Field current
47
Consider the following characterizing parameters of a material:
1.Magnetic permeability
2.Electron relaxation time
3.Electron effective mass
4.Energy band gap
In case of metals, increase in one of the above parameter decreases its conductivity, while increase in another increases the conductivity. There are respectively
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.
    3 and 2
  3. C.
    4 and 3
  4. D.
    1 and 2
48
Some magnetic materials may be classified on the basis of
1.Susceptibility
2.Saturation
3.Spin arrangement
4.Nature of hysteresis loop
5.Domain structure
6.Critical temperature above which it behaves as a paramagnetic material 
Which of these can be used to distinguish between ferri and ferromagnetic materials?
  1. A.1, 3 and 4 only
  2. B.
    2, 3 and 6 only
  3. C.
    3, 4 and 5 only
  4. D.
    1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
49
Magnetism is mainly due to only electron spin around their axis in case of
  1. A.
    Diamagnetic materials
  2. B.
    Paramagnetic materials
  3. C.
    Ferromagnetic materials
  4. D.
    Paramagnetic and Diamagnetic materials
50
For Paramagnetic materials, the relative permeability is
  1. A.
    Less than unity but magnetic susceptibility is relatively small and positive
  2. B.
    greater than unity and magnetic susceptibility is relatively small but positive
  3. C.
    equal to unity and magnetic susceptibility is relatively large but positive
  4. D.
    Less than unity but magnetic susceptibility is relatively large and positive
51
Permalloy and Mumetal are examples of
  1. A.
    Silicon and iron alloys
  2. B.
    Nickel and iron alloys
  3. C.
    Cobalt and iron alloys
  4. D.
    Permanent magnetic materials
52
When a ferromagnetic substance is magnetized, the phenomenon of ‘magnetostriction’ causes
  1. A.
    Increase in the body temperature
  2. B.
    Change in the permeability of the substance
  3. C.
    Small change in its dimensions
  4. D.
    Decrease in the saturation flux-density
53
The resistivity of ‘Ferrites’ is very much higher than that of ferromagnetic metals, because
  1. A.
    Ferrites are chemical compounds and the electrons in them are subject to restraint of valence forces
  2. B.
    Ferrites have a low eddy current loss
  3. C.
    Ferrites have a non-homogeneous molecular structure
  4. D.
    Ferrites have varying flux-density inside the core
54
When the temperature exceeds the transition temperature, a ferromagnetic material becomes similar to
  1. A.
    Anti- ferromagnetic material
  2. B.
    Diamagnetic material
  3. C.
    ferrimagnetic material
  4. D.
    paramagnetic material
55
Einstein relation is referred between
  1. A.
    The diffusion constant and the mobility
  2. B.
    The conduction and diffusion currents
  3. C.
    The conduction and diffusion voltages
  4. D.
    None of the above 
56
In a piezoelectric crystal oscillator, the oscillation or tuning frequency is linearly proportional to the
  1. A.
    Mass of the crystal
  2. B.
    Square root of the Mass of the crystal
  3. C.
    Square of the Mass of the crystal
  4. D.
    Inverse of the Square root of the Mass of the crystal
57
Which of the following are piezoelectric substances?
1.Barium Titanate
2.Lead Titanate
3.Lead Zirconate
4.Cadmium Suplhate 
  1. A.1, 2 and 4
  2. B.
    1, 3 and 4
  3. C.
    1, 2 and 3
  4. D.
    2, 3 and 4 
58
Consider the following statements:
1.Fermi level in a p-type semiconductor lies close to the top of the valence bond.
2.The forbidden energy in Germanium at 0°K is exactly 0.75 eV.
3.When a p-n junction is reverse biased, then electrons and holes move away from the junction. 
Which of these statements are correct?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3
  2. B.
    1 and 2 only
  3. C.
    2 and 3 only
  4. D.
    1 and 3 only
59
For a fully transposed transmission line
  1. A.positive negative and zero sequence impedances are equal
  2. B.positive and negative sequence impedances are equal
  3. C.zero and positive sequence impedances are equal
  4. D.negative and zero sequence impedances are equal
60
The unit of magnetic flux density is
  1. A.
    Gauss
  2. B.
    Tesla
  3. C.
    Bohr
  4. D.
    Wber/sec
61
Skin depth is the distance from the conductor surface where the field strength has fallen to
  1. A.
    of its strength at the surface
  2. B.
    of its strength at the surface
  3. C.
    (1/ ) of its strength at the surface
  4. D.
    (1/ ) of its strength at the surface
62
The electric field in the vicinity of two oppositely charged parallel conductors is
  1. A.
    Radial uniformly
  2. B.
    In parallel lines between the two imaginary parallel planes passing through the centers of the two conductors
  3. C.
    Non uniform and its direction changes from point to point
  4. D.
    In parallel circular paths between the two conductors, with the center of the circles located at the mid-point of a line joining the two centers of the two conductors
63
Two charges are placed at a distance apart. Now, if a glass slab is inserted between them, then the force between the charges will
  1. A.
    Reduce to zero
  2. B.
    Increase
  3. C.
    Decrease
  4. D.
    Not change
64
The  transfer function of a second order real system with a perfectly flat magnitude response of unity has a pole at (2 – j3). List all the poles and zeros.                            
  1. A.Poles at (2 ± j3), no zeroes.
  2. B.Poles at (±2 - j3), no zeroes.
  3. C.Poles at (2 - j3),(-2 + j3)  zeroes at (-2 – j3), (2 + j3).     
  4. D.Poles at (2 ± j3),  zeroes at (-2 ± j3).                                     
65
The presence of one of the following materials, in iron or steel for use as a magnetic material, tends to reduce the hysteresis loss
  1. A.
    Carbon
  2. B.
    Sulphur
  3. C.
    Phosphorous
  4. D.
    Silicon
66
The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy dielectric increases with increasing
  1. A.
    Conductivity
  2. B.
    Permeability
  3. C.
    Wavelength
  4. D.
    Permittivity
67
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: 
List-I                                                        List-II
A.Carbon (Diamond)                                 1. Conducting
B.Silicon                                                  2. Semiconducting
C.Tin (Grey)                                              3. Insulating
D.Lead
  1. A.
    A         B         C         D
    3          2          1          1
  2. B.1          2          1          3
  3. C.
    3          1          2          1
  4. D.
    1          1          2          3
68
It is possible to destroy the superconductivity of a material by applying
  1. A.
    A strong magnetic field
  2. B.
    A temperature much below the transition temperature
  3. C.
    A strong electric field
  4. D.
    A pressure below that of the atmosphere 
69
Consider the following properties regarding insulation for cables: 
1. A low specific resistance
2. High temperature withstand
3. High dielectric strength
Which of the above properties of insulation are correct while using cables?
  1. A. 1 and 2 only
  2. B.1 and 3 only
  3. C.
    2 and 3 only
  4. D.
    1,2 and 3
70
The open loop poles of a third order unity feedback system are at 0, -1, -2, let the frequency corresponding to the point, where the root locus of the system transits to unstable region be K. now suppose we introduce a zero in the open loop transfer function at -3, while keeping all the earlier open loop poles intact. Which one of the following is correct about the point, where the root locus of the modified system transits to unstable region?
  1. A.it corresponds to a frequency greater than K
  2. B.it corresponds to a frequency less that K
  3. C.it corresponds to a frequency K
  4. D.Root locus of modified system never transits to unstable region   
71
Which of the following moving particles cannot be deflected by magnetic fields?
  1. A.
    α - Particles
  2. B.
    Neutrons
  3. C.
    Protons
  4. D.
    Electrons
72
The Fermi level in an n-type semiconductor at zero degree kelvin lies
  1. A.
    Below the donor level
  2. B.
    Half-way between the conduction band and the donor level
  3. C.
    Half-way between the conduction band and the valence level
  4. D.
    Close to the valence band 
73
According to free electron theory, electrons in a metal are subjected to
  1. A.Constant potential
  2. B.
    Sinusoidal potential
  3. C.
    Square wave potential
  4. D.
    Non-periodic potential
74
Controlled addition of group III element to an elemental semiconductor results in the formation of
  1. A.
    Intrinsic semiconductor
  2. B.
    n-type semiconductor
  3. C.
    p-type semiconductor
  4. D.
    Degenerate semiconductor
75
Phonons (Quanta of lattice vibration) obey
  1. A.
    Maxwell distribution
  2. B.
    Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution
  3. C.
    Fermi-Dirac distribution
  4. D.
    Bose-Einstein distribution
76
Did not you buy…………..when you went shopping?
  1. A.any paper
  2. B.much paper
  3. C.no paper
  4. D.a few paper 
77
Consider the following standard symbols for two-port parameters :
1.h12 and h21 are dimensionless.
2.h11 ohms and B have dimensions of ohms.
3.BC is dimensionless.
4.C is dimensionless. 
Which of the above are correct ?
  1. A.1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B.
    1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C.
    3 and 4 only
  4. D.
    1, 2, 3 and 4
78
An iron-cored choke coil has an equivalent resistance of 5Ω. It draws 10 A when the applied voltage is 240V, 50Hz. Its inductance and power factor respectively are
  1. A.
    7.5 mH and 0.1 (lag)
  2. B.
    74.7 mH and 0.1 (lag)
  3. C.
    74.7 mH and 0.208 (lag)
  4. D.
    7.5 mH and 0.208 (lag)
79
A voltage of 100 V is applied to an impedance of Z = (3 + j4) Ω. What are the values of active power, reactive power and volt-amperes respectively ?
  1. A.
    1200 W, 1220 VAR and 2000 VA
  2. B.
    1600 W, 1600 VAR and 2200 VA
  3. C.
    1200 W, 1600 VAR and 2000 VA
  4. D.
    1600 W, 1200 VAR and 2200 VA
80
The voltage across an impedance Z is 100∠15° V and the current through Z is 20∠-45° A. The active and the reactive powers in Z respectively are
  1. A.
    1000 W and 1732 VAR
  2. B.
    500 W and 1732 VAR
  3. C.
    1000 W and 6000 VAR
  4. D.
    500 W and 6000 VAR
81
An a.c. source of 200 V r.m.s. supplies an active power of 1200 W and a reactive power of 1600 VAR to a load. The r.m.s. current and the power factor of the load respectively are
  1. A.
    10 A and 0.6
  2. B.
    8 A and 0.8
  3. C.
    10 A and 0.8
  4. D.
    8 A and 0.6 
82
A shunt capacitor used for reactive power compensation is operated at 98% of its rated frequency and 95% of its rated voltage. The reactive power supplied by this capacitor (as compared to its rated capacity) is
  1. A.
    7.9% lower
  2. B.
    11.5% lower
  3. C.
    11.5% higher
  4. D.
    7.9% higher
83
Consider two nodes A and B connected by an impedance of j5 W. If the voltages at nodes A and B are 100∠30° V and 100∠0° V respectively, the real power that can be transferred from node A to B is
  1. A.
    2000 W
  2. B.
    1000 W
  3. C.
    2769 W
  4. D.
    276.9 W
84
The Thevenin equivalent voltage and resistance across AB shown in the figure respectively are
  1. A.5 V and 5 Ω
  2. B.
    25 V and 3 Ω
  3. C.
    35 V and 2 Ω
  4. D.
    25 V and 5 Ω
85
The theorem which states that in any linear, non-linear, passive, active, time-variant, time-invariant network, summation of instantaneous power is zero will be called as
  1. A.
    Tellegen’s theorem
  2. B.
    Compensation theorem
  3. C.
    Reciprocity theorem
  4. D.
    Superposition theorem
86
Transients are cause because
1.The load is suddenly connected to or disconnected from the supply
2.Of the sudden change in applied voltage form one finite value to the other
3.Of the change in stored energy in inductors and capacitors 
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 2 only
  2. B.
    1 and 3 only
  3. C.
    2 and 3 only
  4. D.
    1, 2 and 3
87
Which of the following can produce maximum induced voltage?
  1. A.
    1 A d.c. current
  2. B.
    50 A d.c. current
  3. C.
    1 A, 60 Hz a.c. current
  4. D.
    1 A, 490 Hz a.c. current
88
For cleat wiring and 250 volts supply, the cables will be placed _____ a part centre to centre for single corw cables. 
  1. A.4.5 cm
  2. B.2.5 cm
  3. C.3 cm 
  4. D.4 cm 
89
Which insulation is most widely used for covering wires/cables used in internal wiring ? 
  1. A.Paper
  2. B.Wood 
  3. C.
    Glass
  4. D.PVC
90
If the Q-factor of a coil at resonant frequency of 1.5 MHz is 150 for a series resonant circuit, then the corresponding bandwidth is
  1. A.
    225 MHz
  2. B.
    106 MHz
  3. C.
    50 kHz
  4. D.
    10 kHz
91
The number of p-n junctions in a thyristor (SCR) is/are: 
  1. A.1
  2. B.2
  3. C.3
  4. D.4
92
In a two-wattmeter method of measuring power in a balanced 3-phase circuit, the ratio of the two wattmeter readings is 1 : 2. The circuit power
  1. A.
    0.707
  2. B.
    0.5
  3. C.
    0.866
  4. D.
    Indeterminate
93
A balanced delta-connected load (16 + j12)Ω/phase is connected to a 3-phase 230 V balanced supply. The line current and the real power drawn respectively are
  1. A.
    19.9 A and 3.17 W
  2. B.
    11.5 A and 6.34 W
  3. C.
    19.9 A and 6.34 W
  4. D.
    11.5 A and 3.17 W
94
A balanced load of 5 + j4 is connected in delta. What is the impedance per phase of the equivalent star connection?
  1. A.
    5 + j4
  2. B.
    1.66 + j1.33
  3. C.
    15 + j12
  4. D.
    2.5 + j2
95
In an electric circuit, the number of independent meshes M is
  1. A.
    2B – N + 1
  2. B.
    B – N + 1
  3. C.
    2B – N – 1
  4. D.
    B – N – 1
96
A.d.c. voltage of 12 volts applied across an inductance in series with a switch
  1. A.Can produce the induced voltage as the current decreases when the switch is opened
  2. B.Cannot produce the induced voltage as the voltage applied has the one polarity
  3. C.Produces more induced voltage when the switch is closed than the switch is opened
  4. D.None of the above
97
The power factor of a circuit in which voltage and current waves are non-sinusoidal is defined as
  1. A.
    It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between the voltage and current waves
  2. B.
    It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between the two complex waves
  3. C.
    It is the cosine of the angle of phase difference between two equivalent sine waves having respectively r.m.s. values equal to those of the voltage and current in the circuit
  4. D.
    It is the sine of the angle of phase difference between the two complex waves 
98
The low-frequency circuit impedance and the high-frequency circuit impedance for a series resonant circuit respectively are
  1. A.
    Capacitive and inductive
  2. B.
    Inductive and capacitive
  3. C.
    Resistive and inductive
  4. D.
    Capacitive and resistive
99
Which of the following is an invalid state in an 8-4-2-1 binary codede decimal counter
  1. A.1000
  2. B.
    1001
  3. C.0011
  4. D.1100   
100
The maximum space rate of change of the function which is in increasing direction of the function is known as
  1. A.
    Curl of the vector function
  2. B.
    Gradient of the scalar function
  3. C.
    Divergence of the vector function
  4. D.
    Stokes theorem
101
The field strength at a point of finite distance from an infinitely long straight uniform charged conductor is obtained by considering the radial (R) component and the longitudinal (L) component of the forces acting on a unit charge at the point, by the charges on the elemental length of the conductor. The resultant field strength is
  1. A.
    The sum of R-components, when the sum of L-components is zero
  2. B.
    The sum of L-components, when the sum of R-components is zero
  3. C.
    The sum of both R- and L- components
  4. D.
    Average of the sums of R- and L- components
102
The input signals to control systems are not known fully ahead of time, the characteristics of control system which suddenly strain a control system are :
  1. A.Constant velocity and acceleration
  2. B.Sudden shock
  3. C.Sudden change
  4. D.All of the mentioned
103
For electromechanical energy conversion, a magnetic field is employed as the medium rather than electric field because
  1. A.
    The stored energy density for practicable field strength is low in the electric field
  2. B.
    the electric field presents insulation problem
  3. C.
    the specific magnetic loss is more than the specific dielectric loss
  4. D.none of the above
104
if the current density inside a straight conductor is uniform over its cross-section, the flux density variation inside the conductor at different distances from its center is
  1. A.
    linear
  2. B.
    square of the distance
  3. C.
    inverse of the distance
  4. D.
    exponential
105
The law which states that the line integral of the magnetic field around a closed curve is equal to the free current through a surface, is
  1. A.
    Gauss’s law
  2. B.
    Tellegen’s theorem
  3. C.
    Coulomb’s law
  4. D.
    Ampere’s law
106
(∇ × H) = J is differential form of
  1. A.
    Gauss’s law
  2. B.
    Ampere’s circuital law
  3. C.
    Poisson’s equation
  4. D.
    Laplace’s equation
107
What should be the nature of bandwidth for a good control system ?
  1. A.Small
  2. B.Medium
  3. C.Large
  4. D.All of the mentioned
108
A conductor of length 100cm moves at right angle to a uniform field flux density of 1.5 Wb/m2 with a velocity of 50 m/s. The e.m.f. induced in the conductor will be
  1. A.
    150 V
  2. B.
    75 V
  3. C.
    50 V
  4. D.
    37.5 V
109
Maxwell equations
1.Are extension of the works of Gauss, Faraday and Ampere
2.Help studying the application of electrostatic fields only
3.Can be written in integral form and point form
4.Need not be modified depending upon the media involved in the problem 
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.
    1 and 4
  3. C.
    2 and 3
  4. D.
    3 and 4
110
Fermion particles obey
  1. A.
    Maxwell-Boltzmann statistics
  2. B.
    Bose-Einstein statistics
  3. C.
    Pauli’s exclusion principle
  4. D.
    Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
111
The complex permeability and resulting wave losses are due to
  1. A.
    Free electron or ion oscillation and dipole relaxation
  2. B.
    Free electron oscillation and relaxation of free space charge
  3. C.
    Bound electron oscillation and relaxation of free space charge
  4. D.
    Bound electron or ion oscillation and dipole relaxation 
112
A 10 GHz plane wave travelling in free space has amplitude 15 V/m. The propagation coefficient β is
  1. A.
    209.4 rad/m
  2. B.
    173.6 rad/m
  3. C.
    543.5 rad/m
  4. D.
    3.97 × 10-2 rad/m
113
In time domain specification, decay ratio is the ratio of the
  1. A.
    Amplitude of the first peak and the steady-state value
  2. B.
    Amplitudes of the first two successive peaks
  3. C.
    Peak value to the steady-state value
  4. D.
    None of the above
114
A lossless transmission line has a characteristic impedance of Z0 and capacitance per unit length of C. The velocity of propagation of the travelling wave on the line is
  1. A.Z0C
  2. B.  1   
    Z0C
  3. C.Z0
    C
  4. D.C
    Z0
115
A pair of high-frequency parallel transmission lines has distributed capacitance and inductance of 0.8 F and 9.8 mH respectively. What is the characteristic impedance of the line?
  1. A.
    98.26 Ω
  2. B.
    110.68 Ω
  3. C.
    125 Ω
  4. D.
    128.2 Ω
116
The propagation constant of a transmission line is 0.15 × 10-3 + j1.5 × 10-3The wavelength of the travelling wave is
    117
    The skin effect in a transmission line is affected by
    1. A.
      The resistivity of the transmission line
    2. B.
      The current magnitude in the transmission line
    3. C.
      The cross-sectional area of the transmission line
    4. D.
      The voltage applied across the transmission line
    118
    There are no transient in pure resistance circuit because they
    1. A.
      Offer high resistance
    2. B.
      Obey Ohm’s law
    3. C.
      Have no stored energy
    4. D.Are linear circuits
    119
    As shown in the figure, 1 Ω resistance is connected across a source that has a load line v + i = 100. The current through the resistance is
    1. A.25 A
    2. B.
      50 A
    3. C.
      100 A
    4. D.
      200 A
    120
    An RLC resonant circuit has a resonance frequency of 1-5 MHz and bandwidth of 10 kHz. If C = 150 PF, then effective resistance of the circuit will be
    1. A.
      29.5 Ω
    2. B.
      14.75 Ω
    3. C.
      9.5 Ω
    4. D.
      4.7 Ω
    121
    Consider the following two types of non-identical sources:         
    1.Voltage sources e1(t) and  e2(t)
    2.Current source i1(t) and i2(t)
    Regarding the mode of their connection in a circuit,
    1. A.1 cannot be connected in parallel, and 2 cannot be connected in series
    2. B.
      1 cannot be connected in series, and 2 cannot be connected in parallel
    3. C.
      Both 1 and 2 cannot be connected in series
    4. D.
      Both 1 and 2 cannot be connected in parallel
    122
    In a series resonant circuit, maximum voltage across L occurs at
    1. A.Resonant frequency
    2. B.
      Slightly below Resonant frequency
    3. C.
      Slightly above Resonant frequency
    4. D.
      At a frequency where I is maximum
    123
    For the high voltage conductors at high pressures, if the voltage is positive then the corona appears as a
    1. A.Uniform bluish white sheath
    2. B.Reddish glowing spots
    3. C.Uniform greenish spots
    4. D.None of these
    124
    Consider the following properties attributed to state model of a system:
    1.State model is unique
    2.Transfer function for the system is unique
    3.State model can be derived from transfer function of the system 
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    1. A.1, 2 and 3
    2. B.
      1 and 2 only
    3. C.
      2 and 3 only
    4. D.
      1 and 3 only
    125
    A magnetic ring has a mean circumference of 20cm and a cross-section of 20cm2 and has 800 numbers of turns of wire. When the exciting current is 5 A, the flux is 2 mWb. The relative permeability of iron is nearly
    1. A.
      3.98
    2. B.
      398
    3. C.
      0.398
    4. D.
      39.8
    126
    The voltage and current waveforms for an element are shown in the figures:

    The circuit element and its value are
    1. A.Capacitor and 2F
    2. B.
      Inductor and 1H
    3. C.
      Inductor and 2H
    4. D.
      Resistor and 1Ω
    127
    For a series R-C circuit, the power factor corresponding to maximum power is
    1. A.
      0.5 lag
    2. B.
      0.5 lead
    3. C.
      0.707 lead
    4. D.
      0.707 lead
    128
    The power consumed by a coil is 300W when connected to a 30V dc source and 108W when connected to a 30V ac source. The reactance of the coil is
    1. A.
      3 Ω
    2. B.
      4 Ω
    3. C.
      5 Ω
    4. D.
      6.67 Ω
    129
    When a source is delivering maximum power to a load, the efficiency of the circuit is always
    1. A.
      50%
    2. B.
      75%
    3. C.
      100%
    4. D.
      Depends on the circuit parameters 
    130
    Consider the following statements:Any element connected in
    1.Series with an ideal current source is redundant.
    2.Parallel with an ideal current source is redundant.
    3.Series with an ideal voltage source is redundant.
    4.Parallel with an ideal voltage source is redundant. 
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    1. A.1 only
    2. B.
      2 and 3
    3. C.
      2 only
    4. D.
      1 and 4
    131
    A battery charger can drive a current of 5 A into a 1Ω resistance connected at its output terminals. If it is able to charge an ideal 2 V battery at 7 A rate, then Thevenin’s equivalent will be
    1. A.
      7.5 V in series with 0.5 Ω
    2. B.
      12.5 V in series with 1.5 Ω
    3. C.
      7.5 V in parallel with 0.5 Ω
    4. D.
      12.5 V in parallel with 1.5 Ω
    132
    The output power of a filter is 100 mW, when the signal frequency is 5 kHz. When the frequency is increased to 25 kHz, the output power falls to 50 mW. What is the dB change in power?
    1. A.
      – 3 dB
    2. B.
      – 5 dB
    3. C.
      – 7 dB
    4. D.
      – 2 dB
    133
    In any network the current will be seen to be consisting of a forced current and a natural current. A forced current is
    1. A.
      A steady-state current with external source but a natural current is a transient current in a closed circuit with no external source
    2. B.
      A transient current with external source but a natural current is a steady-state current in a closed circuit with no external source
    3. C.
      A steady-state current in a closed circuit without external source, while a natural current is a transient current with an external source
    4. D.
      A transient current in a closed circuit without external source, while a natural current is a steady-state current with an external source
    134
    A coil of resistance 10 Ω and inductance 0.8 H is connected to a 200 V dc supply. The initial rate of change of current is
    1. A.
      16 A/s
    2. B.
      160 A/s
    3. C.
      250 A/s
    4. D.
      4000 A/s 
    135
    Three equal impedances are first connected in delta across a 3-phase balanced supply. If the same impedances are connected in star across the same supply then,
    1. A.
      Phase current will be one-third
    2. B.
      Line current will be one-third
    3. C.
      Power consumed will be one-third
    4. D.
      Phase current will remain the same
    136
    The electric field lines and equipotential lines
    1. A.
      Are parallel to each other
    2. B.
      Are one and the same
    3. C.
      Cut each other orthogonally
    4. D.
      Can be inclined to each other at any angle
    137
    According to Gauss’s law, the surface integral of the normal component of electric flux density D over a closed surface containing charge Q is
    1. B. Q
    2. C.Q
    3. D.Q2
    138
    Consider the following statements:A current I flows through a circular coil of one turn of radius R in the counter-clock wise direction.
    1.The magnetic field at the center is inversely proportional to R
    2.The magnetic moment of the coil is directly proportional to R2
    3.The magnetic field at its center is directly proportional to R2 
    Which of the above statements are correct?
    1. A.1 and 2
    2. B.
      1 only
    3. C.
      2 and 3
    4. D.
      3 only
    139
    The depth of penetration of a wave in a lossy dielectric medium increases with
    1. A.
      Increasing wavelength
    2. B.
      Increasing conductivity
    3. C.
      Decreasing wavelength
    4. D.
      Decreasing permittivity
    140
    In practice, Earth is chosen as a place of zero electric potential because it
    1. A.
      Is non-conducting
    2. B.
      Is easily available reference
    3. C.
      Keeps losing and gaining electric charge every day
    4. D.Has almost constant potential
    141
    The capacitance of a concentric spherical capacitor of shell radii x and y (x > y) is
      142
      The frequency of the power wave associated with an electromagnetic wave having an E field as 
       is given by
        143
        When the wave travels in a conducting medium, the rate of attenuation is decided by
        1. A.
          Attenuation constant
        2. B.
          Phase constant
        3. C.
          Both attenuation constant and phase constant
        4. D.
          Neither attenuation constant nor phase constant
        144
        Uniform plane wave is
        1. A.
          Longitudinal in nature
        2. B.
          Transverse in nature
        3. C.
          Neither  longitudinal nor transverse in nature
        4. D.
          x-directed
        145
        The impedance Z offered by transmission line for a travelling wave which damps out the low frequency oscillation rapidly is called
        1. A.Surge impedance
        2. B.
          Natural impedance
        3. C.
          Both surge and natural impedance
        4. D.
          Neither surge nor natural impedance 
        146
        In a coaxial transmission line, the useful power flows through
        1. A.
          The interface of the two conductors
        2. B.
          Both inner and outer conductors
        3. C.
          Inner conductor
        4. D.
          Outer conductor
        147
        For a line to have a purely resistive characteristic impedance
        1. C.R = G
        2. D.
          GL= RC
        148
        A second order system is described by

        The damping ratio of the system is
        1. A.0.1
        2. B.
          0.25
        3. C.
          0.333
        4. D.
          0.5
        149
        When deriving the transfer function of a linear element
        1. A.
          Both initial conditions and loading are taken into account
        2. B.
          Initial conditions are taken into account but the element is assumed to be not loaded
        3. C.
          Initial conditions are assumed to be zero but loading is taken into account
        4. D.
          Initial conditions are assumed to be zero and the element is assumed to be not loaded
        150

        For the circuit shown above the value of r connected between C and D is such that the equivalent resistance of the circuit by looking into circuit through terminals A and B is r only. Then the value of r is
        1. A.2 Ω
        2. B.
          4 Ω
        3. C.
          3 Ω
        4. D.
          6 Ω

        General Studies

        1
        Yojna a weekly journal
        1. A.Ministry of Finance        
        2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
        3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
        4. D.Planning Commission
        2
        Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
        1. A.Ministry of Finance 
        2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
        3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
        4. D.Planning Commission
        3
        Devaluation of a currency means
        1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
        2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
        3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
        4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
        4
        In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
                    1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
                    2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
                    3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
        1. A.1 and 3
        2. B.2 and 3
        3. C.1 and 2
        4. D.1,2 and 3
        5
        Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
        1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
        2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
        3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
        4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
        6
        What is Net National Product
        1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
        2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
        3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
        4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
        7
        National income is the 
        1. A.net national product at market price
        2. B.net national product at factor cost
        3. C.net domestic product at market price
        4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
        8
        Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
        1. A.financial system            
        2. B.tax system
        3. C.patents and copyrights  
        4. D.Public sector undertakings
        9
        During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
        1. A.2nd plan
        2. B.3rd plan
        3. C.5th plan
        4. D.6th plan
        10
        Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
        1. A.sales tax           
        2. B.custom tax
        3. C.excise tax         
        4. D.income tax

        General Science

        1
        In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
        1. A.metastable state to any lower state
        2. B.any higher state of lower state
        3. C.metastable state to ground state
        4. D.any higher state to ground state
        2
        A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
        1. A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
        2. B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
        3. C.zero at any point inside the pipe
        4. D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
        3
        10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
        1. A.between 7 and 8
        2. B.between 5 and 6
        3. C.between 6 and 7
        4. D.between 10 and 11
        4
        In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
        1. A.1.93 A         
        2. B.9.65 A
        3. C.19.3 A        
        4. D.0.965 A
        5
        The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
        1. A.the nature of enzymes involved
        2. B.the nature of the substrate
        3. C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
        4. D.the amount of oxygen utilised

        General Awareness

        1
        Which country's Supreme Leader, Ali Khamenei, was assassinated in a joint US-Israel strike in late February 2026?
        1. A.Syria
        2. B.Iraq
        3. C.Lebanon
        4. D.Iran
        2
        What was the primary goal stated for the 2026 Israeli–United States strikes on Iran?
        1. A.Nuclear disarmament only
        2. B.Border security
        3. C.Economic sanctions enforcement
        4. D.Regime change in Tehran
        3
        Which Indian state won its maiden Ranji Trophy title recently (reported in early March 2026)?
        1. A.Mumbai
        2. B.Tamil Nadu
        3. C.Jammu & Kashmir
        4. D.Karnataka
        4
        What funding amount did Germany announce for a new climate resilience initiative with India in February 2026?
        1. A.EUR 10 million
        2. B.EUR 100 million
        3. C.EUR 50 million
        4. D.EUR 20 million
        5
        Which Indian state launched its first Dark Sky Park in Kolli Hills in February 2026?
        1. A.Kerala
        2. B.Tamil Nadu
        3. C.Uttarakhand
        4. D.Himachal Pradesh

        Reasoning

        1
        How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
        1. A.Two
        2. B.Three
        3. C.Five
        4. D.Four
        5. E.None of these
        2
        Team A has scored more goals than Team B
        Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
        Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
        If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
        1. A.True
        2. B.False
        3. C.Uncertain
        4. D.None
        3
        If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
        1. A.A
        2. B.E
        3. C.T
        4. D.X
        5. E.Y
        4
        How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
        1. A.None            
        2. B.One         
        3. C.Two       
        4. D.Three        
        5. E.More than three
        5
        How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
        1. A.None
        2. B.One
        3. C.Two
        4. D.Three
        5. E.More than three
        6
        How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
        1. A.None
        2. B.One
        3. C.Two
        4. D.Three
        5. E.More than three
        7
        If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
        1. A.T
        2. B.L
        3. C.E
        4. D.Y
        5. E.X
        8
        If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
        1. A.None
        2. B.One
        3. C.Two
        4. D.Three
        5. E.More than three
        9
        How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
        1. A.None
        2. B.One
        3. C.Two
        4. D.Three
        5. E.More than three
        10
        If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
        1. A.V
        2. B.T
        3. C.E
        4. D.A
        5. E.B
        11
        If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
        1. A.N
        2. B.Q
        3. C.J
        4. D.M
        5. E.None of these
        12
        How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
        1. A.None
        2. B.One
        3. C.Two
        4. D.Three
        5. E.None of these
        13
        Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
        Arguments :
        I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
        II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
        1. A.The only argument I is strong
        2. B.Only argument II is strong
        3. C.Either I or II is strong
        4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
        14
        If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
        1. A.P
        2. B.L
        3. C.T
        4. D.X
        5. E.Y
        15
        How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
        1. A.None
        2. B.One
        3. C.Two
        4. D.Three
        5. E.More than three
        16
        How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
        1. A.One
        2. B.Two
        3. C.Three
        4. D.Four
        5. E.More than four
        17
        If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can  be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
        1. A.I
        2. B.A
        3. C.L
        4. D.M
        5. E.N
        18
        How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
        1. A.None
        2. B.One
        3. C.Two
        4. D.Three
        5. E.More than three
        19
        If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
        1. A.26
        2. B.28
        3. C.30
        4. D.32
        5. E.None of these
        20
        How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
        1. A.None
        2. B.One
        3. C.Two
        4. D.Three
        5. E.More than three

        Hindi

        1
        'ऋ' अर् में बदलता है -
        1. A. गुण संधि के अनुसार   
        2. B. यण संधि के अनुसार
        3. C. वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार  
        4. D. अयादि संधि के अनुसार 
        2
        निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है - 
        1. A. त्
        2. B. न् 
        3. C. द् 
        4. D. भ्
        3
        निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है -
        1. A. ल
        2. B. ष
        3. C. ड़
        4. D. न
        4
        निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है -
        1. A. ख
        2. B. ग
        3. C. च
        4. D. द
        5
        तालव्य व्यंजन है-
        1. A. ट ड द ढ
        2. B. च छ ज झ
        3. C. त थ द ध
        4. D. प फ ब भ
        6
        'अ' स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है -
        1. A. मूर्धा
        2. B. कण्ठ
        3. C. तालु
        4. D. ओष्ठ
        7
        निम्लखित मे कंट- तालव्य स्वर कौनसे है ?
        1. A. ए - ऐ
        2. B. ए - ओ
        3. C. ए - ऊ
        4. D. त - द
        8
        जो धातु या शब्द के अंत में जोड़ा जाता है उसे कहते है ?
        1. A. समास
        2. B. अव्यय
        3. C. उपसर्ग
        4. D. प्रत्यय
        9
        प्रख्यात में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग है -
        1. A. प्र
        2. B. त
        3. C. प्रख
        4. D. आत
        10
        'साखी' शब्द का तत्सम रूप है -
        1. A. सखी
        2. B. शाखा
        3. C. राखी
        4. D. साक्षी