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Latest UPSC Assistant Director Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Current issues of national and international importance, Aptitude covering logical reasoning and analytical ability, Mathematics and Numerical Ability, Basics of Energy and Environment, Basics of Project Management, Basics of Material Science, Information and Communication Technologies (ICT), Human Values and Professional Ethics
Question Bank UPSC Assistant Director Exam - English
Current issues of national and international importance
Q 1 :
According to the Economic Survey 2025–26, the principal objective of India’s medium-term economic strategy is to:
A.Reduce private investment
B.Eliminate international trade
C.Replace manufacturing with agriculture
D.Push the growth frontier while maintaining macroeconomic stability
Q 2 :
Which institution is primarily responsible for conducting monetary policy in India?
A.SEBI
B.NITI Aayog
C.Reserve Bank of India
D.Finance Commission
Q 3 :
Fiscal consolidation primarily refers to:
A.Increasing fiscal deficit indefinitely
B.Reducing government revenue
C.Eliminating all public expenditure
D.Managing government deficit and debt in a sustainable manner
Q 4 :
Capital expenditure by the government is particularly important because it generally:
A.Reduces productive capacity
B.Creates productive assets and infrastructure
C.Eliminates employment opportunities
D.Increases only administrative expenditure
Q 5 :
Which of the following is included in India’s Gross Domestic Product?
A.Only agricultural output
B.Value of final goods and services produced domestically
C.Only government expenditure
D.Only exports
Q 6 :
Higher infrastructure investment can contribute to economic growth mainly by:
A.Increasing logistics costs
B.Discouraging private investment
C.Reducing market access
D.Improving productivity and connectivity
Q 7 :
Inflation refers to:
A.Sustained decline in the general price level
B.Increase only in share prices
C.Sustained increase in the general price level
D.Decrease in national income
Q 8 :
Core inflation generally excludes highly volatile items such as:
A.Housing and education
B.Clothing and footwear
C.Banking services
D.Food and fuel
Q 9 :
A rise in crude oil prices is particularly significant for India because India is:
A.A non-consumer of petroleum
B.Completely self-sufficient in crude oil
C.A major net importer of crude oil
D.The world's only petroleum exporter
Q 10 :
Which measure can help improve India’s resilience against external economic shocks?
A.Adequate foreign exchange reserves
B.Complete dependence on one export market
C.Elimination of domestic production
D.Persistent high external debt
Q 11 :
According to the World Bank’s April 2026 India Development Update, India’s growth for FY27 was projected at approximately:
A.2.6%
B.4.1%
C.6.6%
D.9.8%
Q 12 :
One major external risk identified for the Indian economy in 2026 was:
A.Complete disappearance of energy demand
B.Permanent deflation
C.Zero global trade
D.Higher energy prices and supply-chain disruptions
Q 13 :
Diversification of international trade helps an economy by:
A.Increasing dependence on one country
B.Reducing vulnerability to country-specific shocks
C.Preventing exports
D.Eliminating competition
Q 14 :
The term “crowding-in” of private investment refers to:
D.Replacement of all private capital by foreign aid
Q 15 :
A current account deficit occurs when, broadly speaking:
A.Current external payments exceed receipts
B.Current external receipts exceed payments
C.Fiscal revenue exceeds expenditure
D.Exports always exceed imports
Aptitude covering logical reasoning and analytical ability
Q 16 :
Find the next number in the series: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
A.48
B.46
C.50
D.52
Q 17 :
Find the missing number: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
A.36
B.40
C.44
D.42
Q 18 :
Find the next term: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, ?
A.30
B.32
C.36
D.49
Q 19 :
Find the next number: 7, 14, 28, 56, ?
A.84
B.96
C.108
D.112
Q 20 :
Find the missing term: 64, 32, 16, 8, ?
A.4
B.2
C.6
D.10
Q 21 :
Find the next number: 5, 11, 23, 47, ?
A.91
B.95
C.93
D.97
Q 22 :
Find the next number: 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ?
A.18
B.19
C.20
D.21
Q 23 :
Find the missing number: 100, 81, 64, 49, ?
A.32
B.36
C.40
D.42
Q 24 :
Find the next term: 4, 10, 22, 46, ?
A.90
B.92
C.96
D.94
Q 25 :
Find the next number: 121, 100, 81, 64, ?
A.51
B.49
C.55
D.57
Q 26 :
Find the next letter in the series: A, C, F, J, O, ?
A.T
B.V
C.U
D.W
Q 27 :
Find the missing letter: Z, W, T, Q, ?
A.M
B.P
C.O
D.N
Q 28 :
Find the next term: B, E, H, K, ?
A.L
B.M
C.N
D.O
Q 29 :
Find the next letter: A, D, H, M, ?
A.Q
B.R
C.S
D.T
Q 30 :
Find the next term: C, F, J, O, ?
A.T
B.V
C.U
D.W
Mathematics and Numerical Ability
Q 31 :
What is the value of 48 ÷ 6 × 4?
A.24
B.28
C.32
D.36
Q 32 :
What is 25% of 240?
A.50
B.60
C.70
D.80
Q 33 :
What is the HCF of 24 and 36?
A.6
B.8
C.18
D.12
Q 34 :
What is the LCM of 8 and 12?
A.16
B.24
C.20
D.48
Q 35 :
Which of the following is a prime number?
A.21
B.39
C.33
D.29
Q 36 :
What is the square root of 144?
A.12
B.11
C.10
D.14
Q 37 :
What is the cube of 5?
A.125
B.75
C.100
D.25
Q 38 :
Which fraction is equal to 0.75?
A.1/2
B.3/4
C.2/3
D.4/5
Q 39 :
What is 7/8 of 64?
A.48
B.54
C.60
D.56
Q 40 :
What is the remainder when 157 is divided by 12?
A.7
B.3
C.5
D.1
Q 41 :
The smallest number divisible by 6, 8 and 12 is:
A.12
B.36
C.24
D.48
Q 42 :
What is the value of 2³ × 2⁴?
A.16
B.32
C.128
D.64
Q 43 :
What is 15² − 10²?
A.100
B.115
C.150
D.125
Q 44 :
What is the reciprocal of 5/7?
A.5/7
B.7/2
C.2/7
D.7/5
Q 45 :
What is 0.4 × 0.5?
A.0.2
B.0.02
C.0.4
D.2
Basics of Energy and Environment
Q 46 :
Energy is defined as the capacity to:
A.Produce only heat
B.Perform work
C.Generate only electricity
D.Increase mass
Q 47 :
The SI unit of energy is:
A.Joule
B.Watt
C.Newton
D.Pascal
Q 48 :
The SI unit of power is:
A.Joule
B.Volt
C.Watt
D.Ampere
Q 49 :
One kilowatt is equal to:
A.100 watts
B.1,000 watts
C.500 watts
D.10,000 watts
Q 50 :
One kilowatt-hour is a unit of:
A.Energy
B.Power
C.Force
D.Voltage
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Basics of Energy and Environment
Q 51 :
One kilowatt-hour is equal to:
A.3.6 × 10³ joules
B.3.6 × 10⁶ joules
C.360 joules
D.36 × 10⁶ joules
Q 52 :
Energy stored in an object due to its position is called:
A.Kinetic energy
B.Chemical energy
C.Potential energy
D.Nuclear energy
Q 53 :
Energy possessed by a moving body is called:
A.Thermal energy
B.Kinetic energy
C.Potential energy
D.Chemical energy
Q 54 :
The law of conservation of energy states that energy:
A.Can be created but not destroyed
B.Can be destroyed but not created
C.Always decreases to zero
D.Can neither be created nor destroyed
Q 55 :
The rate at which work is done is called:
A.Energy
B.Pressure
C.Force
D.Power
Q 56 :
Which of the following is a primary source of energy?
A.Coal
B.Hydrogen
C.Electricity
D.Battery
Q 57 :
Electricity is generally considered a:
A.Secondary energy source
B.Primary energy source
C.Fossil fuel
D.Nuclear fuel
Q 58 :
Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?
A.Solar
B.Coal
C.Wind
D.Tidal
Q 59 :
Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
A.Petroleum
B.Natural gas
C.Solar energy
D.Coal
Q 60 :
The commercial unit of electrical energy is:
A.Kilowatt-hour
B.Watt
C.Joule
D.Newton
Basics of Project Management
Q 61 :
A project is best defined as:
A.A repetitive operational activity
B.A temporary effort undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
C.A permanent organizational department
D.A routine administrative process
Q 62 :
Which of the following is a key characteristic of a project?
A.It has no defined objective
B.It continues indefinitely
C.It is temporary in nature
D.It has no resource constraints
Q 63 :
Project management primarily involves:
A.Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to meet project objectives
B.Managing only project finance
C.Performing routine operations
D.Avoiding all risks
Q 64 :
Which of the following is generally NOT considered a project constraint?
A.Scope
B.Time
C.Unlimited resources
D.Cost
Q 65 :
The traditional triple constraint in project management includes:
A.Scope, time, and cost
B.Quality, marketing, and sales
C.Finance, HR, and operations
D.Risk, procurement, and communication
Q 66 :
Project success is generally measured by achievement of:
A.Maximum project duration
B.Maximum expenditure
C.Objectives within agreed constraints
D.Minimum stakeholder involvement
Q 67 :
A project manager is mainly responsible for:
A.Performing every task personally
B.Coordinating project activities and resources
C.Eliminating all stakeholders
D.Ignoring project risks
Q 68 :
Which is an example of a project?
A.Construction of a new bridge
B.Daily payroll processing
C.Routine electricity billing
D.Regular inventory counting
Q 69 :
Which is an example of an operation rather than a project?
A.Developing a new software system
B.Building a factory
C.Regular production of automobiles
D.Launching a new product
Q 70 :
Project objectives should ideally be:
A.Vague
B.Unrelated to organizational goals
C.Measurable and clearly defined
D.Constantly changing without approval
Q 71 :
A typical project life cycle starts with:
A.Closure
B.Initiation
C.Monitoring
D.Procurement
Q 72 :
Which phase follows project initiation?
A.Closure
B.Planning
C.Auditing
D.Archiving
Q 73 :
Project execution mainly involves:
A.Cancelling all resources
B.Closing the project
C.Defining only project objectives
D.Performing the planned project work
Q 74 :
Monitoring and controlling activities are mainly concerned with:
A.Ignoring deviations
B.Comparing actual performance with planned performance
C.Ending stakeholder communication
D.Increasing scope without approval
Q 75 :
Project closure includes:
A.Developing the initial business case
B.Starting the project charter
C.Formal completion and acceptance of the project
D.Identifying only project risks
Basics of Material Science
Q 76 :
The smallest unit of an element that retains its chemical properties is:
A.Molecule
B.Ion
C.Atom
D.Crystal
Q 77 :
The nucleus of an atom contains:
A.Electrons only
B.Neutrons and electrons
C.Protons and electrons
D.Protons and neutrons
Q 78 :
The atomic number of an element is equal to the number of:
A.Neutrons
B.Protons
C.Protons and neutrons
D.Electron shells
Q 79 :
Isotopes of an element have the same number of:
A.Neutrons but different protons
B.Protons and neutrons
C.Protons but different neutrons
D.Electron shells only
Q 80 :
Valence electrons are electrons present in the:
A.Outermost shell
B.Innermost shell
C.Nucleus
D.Neutron shell
Q 81 :
An ionic bond is formed mainly by:
A.Sharing of electrons
B.Transfer of electrons
C.Sharing of protons
D.Transfer of neutrons
Q 82 :
A covalent bond involves:
A.Transfer of electrons
B.Sharing of neutrons
C.Transfer of atoms
D.Sharing of electrons
Q 83 :
Metallic bonding is characterized by:
A.Localized electrons only
B.Only ionic attraction
C.Complete absence of electrons
D.A sea of delocalized electrons
Q 84 :
Which type of bonding is dominant in sodium chloride?
A.Metallic
B.Ionic
C.Covalent
D.Hydrogen
Q 85 :
Diamond has predominantly:
A.Ionic bonding
B.Covalent bonding
C.Metallic bonding
D.Van der Waals bonding
Q 86 :
Secondary bonds are generally:
A.Stronger than primary bonds
B.Nuclear in nature
C.Equal in strength to metallic bonds
D.Weaker than primary bonds
Q 87 :
Van der Waals forces are examples of:
A.Secondary bonding
B.Primary bonding
C.Metallic bonding
D.Ionic bonding
Q 88 :
A crystal is characterized by:
A.Random atomic arrangement
B.Long-range ordered atomic arrangement
C.Absence of atoms
D.Completely amorphous structure
Q 89 :
The smallest repeating unit in a crystal lattice is called:
A.Unit cell
B.Grain
C.Phase
D.Dislocation
Q 90 :
BCC stands for:
A.Basic Cubic Crystal
B.Base-Centred Crystal
C.Body Crystal Cell
D.Body-Centred Cubic
Information and Communication Technologies (ICT)
Q 91 :
ICT stands for:
A.International Communication Technique
B.Integrated Computer Transmission
C.Information and Communication Technology
D.Information Control Technology
Q 92 :
ICT mainly combines:
A.Finance and taxation only
B.Agriculture and transport only
C.Computing and communication technologies
D.Mechanical and civil engineering only
Q 93 :
Which of the following is an ICT tool?
A.Computer
B.Router
C.All of the above
D.Smartphone
Q 94 :
The primary purpose of ICT is to:
A.Replace all human decisions
B.Eliminate information exchange
C.Collect, process, store and communicate information
D.Restrict access to data
Q 95 :
Which of the following is an example of digital communication?
A.All of the above
B.Video conferencing
C.Instant messaging
D.Email
Q 96 :
Hardware refers to:
A.Internet protocols only
B.Programs and applications only
C.Data only
D.Physical components of a computer system
Q 97 :
Software refers to:
A.Programs and instructions used by a computer
B.Physical cables only
C.Computer casing only
D.Input devices only
Q 98 :
Which of the following is an input device?
A.Printer
B.Monitor
C.Keyboard
D.Speaker
Q 99 :
Which of the following is an output device?
A.Mouse
B.Scanner
C.Monitor
D.Keyboard
Q 100 :
CPU stands for:
A.Central Processing Unit
B.Computer Processing Utility
C.Central Program Unit
D.Core Processing Utility
Q 101 :
RAM is primarily used for:
A.Network routing
B.Permanent storage only
C.Printing documents
D.Temporary storage during processing
Q 102 :
ROM is generally used to store:
A.Audio signals only
B.Temporary files only
C.Internet traffic
D.Permanent instructions
Q 103 :
Which of the following is a storage device?
A.SSD
B.Keyboard
C.Router
D.Monitor
Q 104 :
A byte consists of:
A.2 bits
B.4 bits
C.8 bits
D.16 bits
Q 105 :
Binary numbers use the digits:
A.1 and 2
B.0 and 1
C.0 to 7
D.0 to 9
Human Values and Professional Ethics
Q 106 :
Human values primarily guide:
A.Human behaviour and decision-making
B.Mechanical processes
C.Industrial production only
D.Financial accounting only
Q 107 :
Which of the following is a core human value?
A.Deception
B.Manipulation
C.Integrity
D.Exploitation
Q 108 :
Honesty means:
A.Speaking and acting truthfully
B.Concealing facts
C.Avoiding responsibility
D.Misleading others
Q 109 :
Integrity refers to:
A.Changing principles for convenience
B.Avoiding accountability
C.Consistency between values, words and actions
D.Personal gain at any cost
Q 110 :
Empathy means:
A.Ignoring others' feelings
B.Always agreeing with everyone
C.Understanding another person's feelings and perspective
D.Avoiding communication
Q 111 :
Compassion involves:
A.Indifference to suffering
B.Concern for others combined with a desire to help
C.Personal ambition only
D.Avoiding difficult situations
Q 112 :
Respect for others requires:
A.Recognizing their dignity
B.Ignoring their rights
C.Treating everyone identically regardless of context
D.Imposing one's views
Q 113 :
Responsibility means:
A.Avoiding consequences
B.Delegating every task
C.Accepting ownership of one's duties and actions
D.Ignoring obligations
Q 114 :
Accountability requires a person to:
A.Avoid giving reasons
B.Explain and take responsibility for decisions and actions
C.Conceal failures
D.Shift blame
Q 115 :
Fairness requires:
A.Favouring friends
B.Treating powerful people differently
C.Ignoring rules
D.Impartial and just treatment
Q 116 :
Tolerance refers to:
A.Acceptance of differences and diversity
B.Rejection of all disagreement
C.Absence of principles
D.Avoidance of dialogue
Q 117 :
Self-discipline is the ability to:
A.Ignore commitments
B.Avoid all rules
C.Depend entirely on others
D.Control one's impulses and act according to goals and values
