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Latest UPSC AE Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Mathematics, General Intelligence & Reasoning, General Awareness, General Science
Question Bank UPSC Assistant Engineer Exam - English
Mathematics
Q 1 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A.2 hours
B.3 hours
C.4 hours
D.5 hours
Q 2 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A.69
B.96
C.78
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 3 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.None of these
Q 4 :
Mr. Sinha distributes a certain sum of money among his five sons, one daughter and his wife in such a way that each son gets double the amount of his daughter and the wife gets double the amount of each son. If each son gets Rs. 15000, what was the total amount distributed ?
A.Rs. 123000
B.Rs. 112500
C.Rs. 138500
D.Rs. 132500
Q 5 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
Q 6 :
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A.42
B.38
C.32
D.72
E.None of these
Q 7 :
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A.18
B.16
C.19
D.17
E.None of these
Q 8 :
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A.45
B.35
C.40
D.30
E.None of these
Q 9 :
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A.2024
B.2104
C.2004
D.2014
E.None of these
Q 10 :
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A.38
B.42
C.44
D.34
E.None of these
Q 11 :
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A.20
B.22
C.21
D.23
E.None of these
Q 12 :
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A.50
B.75
C.57
D.60
E.None of these
Q 13 :
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A.52
B.54
C.56
D.48
E.None of these
Q 14 :
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
Q 15 :
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A.118
B.95
C.110
D.100
E.None of these
Q 16 :
What is 234 time 167 ?
A.48768
B.41184
C.40581
D.39078
E.None of these
Q 17 :
The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
A.62
B.71
C.66
D.65
E.None of these
Q 18 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
Q 19 :
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
A.47
B.38
C.28
D.25
E.None of these
Q 20 :
What is 147 times 329 ?
A.48069
B.48363
C.49021
D.48723
E.None of these
Q 21 :
The sum of 5 consecutive even number A, B, C, D and E is 410. What is the product of A and E ?
A.6708
B.6880
C.6552
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 22 :
The product of two consecutive odd number is 6399. What is the smaller number ?
A.83
B.79
C.81
D.77
E.None of these
Q 23 :
If the fractions are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
E.None of these
Q 24 :
What is 394 times 113 ?
A.44402
B.44632
C.44802
D.44522
E.None of these
Q 25 :
What is the least number to be added to 7700 to make it a perfect square ?
A.131
B.221
C.77
D.98
E.None of these
Q 26 :
What least number should be added to 8602 to make if a perfect square ?
A.234
B.47
C.128
D.36
E.None of these
Q 27 :
What is 846 times 323 ?
A.280872
B.276488
C.273258
D.272412
E.None of these
Q 28 :
The sum of the two digits of a two digit number is 15 and the difference between the two digits of the two digit number is 3 . What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number ?
A.72
B.56
C.54
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 29 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, Which fraction will be the fifth ?
E.None of these
Q 30 :
The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 4623. What is the product of the next two consecutive odd numbers ?
A.4899
B.4891
C.5037
D.5183
E.None of these
Q 31 :
What is the least number to be added to 2600 to make it a perfect square ?
A.1
B.5
C.3
D.9
E.None of these
Q 32 :
The product of two consecutive even numbers is 45368 . What is the greater number ?
A.212
B.216
C.210
D.208
E.None of these
Q 33 :
What is 304 times 141 ?
A.39640
B.45942
C.38760
D.42864
E.None of these
Q 34 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values. Which one will be the fourth ?
E.None of these
Q 35 :
What is the least number to be added to 666 to make it a perfect suare?
A.10
B.20
C.30
D.40
E.none of these
Q 36 :
What is the least number to be added to 8008 to make It a perfect square?
A.273
B.87
C.264
D.92
E.None of These
Q 37 :
What is 519 times 176?
A.91168
B.91344
C.91520
D.91696
E.none of these
Q 38 :
The average of 5 consecutive odd numbers A, B, C, D and E is 55 What is the product of B and D ?
A.2915
B.3127
C.3021
D.2703
E.None of these
Q 39 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order their values which one will be the third ?
Q 40 :
8 litres are drawn from a cask full of wine and is then filled with water. This operation is performed three more times. The ratio of the quantity of wine now left in cask to that of the water is 16 : 65. How much wine the cask hold originally ?
A.18 litres
B.24 litres
C.32 litres
D.42 litres
General Intelligence & Reasoning
Q 41 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 42 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 43 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 44 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 45 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 46 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 47 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 48 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 49 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 50 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
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UPSC Assistant Engineer Exam Question Bank Book - English
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 52 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 53 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 54 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 55 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 56 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 57 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 58 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 59 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 60 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 61 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 62 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 63 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 64 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A.P
B.Q
C.B
D.K
E.None of these
Q 65 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A.None
B.One
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than Four
Q 66 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 67 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 68 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 69 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 70 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 71 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 72 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, BONDING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 73 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARGES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 74 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EDSU using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 75 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RTOU using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 76 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENGULFED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 77 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 78 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, fifth and sixth letters of the word ‘EDUCATION’, which would be the last letter of the word? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A.T
B.X
C.A
D.E
E.K
Q 79 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 80 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFIRM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 81 :
If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD, then GEORGE will be coded as
A.CAKNCA
B.CADMNO
C.CAKNIT
D.JAKINS
Q 82 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TAILSPIN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 83 :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter is in the middle of 13th letter from the left and 4th letter from the right ?
A.R
B.I
C.J
D.S
Q 84 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MINORITY each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 85 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARIOT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 86 :
If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, second, fourth, and the sixth letters of the word ’STARVING’ . Which would be the second letter of the word from the right end? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A.T
B.S
C.X
D.I
E.K
Q 87 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ELUSIVE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 88 :
If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, third, fifth, and the ninth letters of the word ’CURVATURE’ . Which would be the second letter of the word ? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A.R
B.D
C.X
D.I
E.K
Q 89 :
If in certain code MONKEY is written as ZFLOPN then in the same code how CHARACTER is written ?
A.SFUBIDDBS
B.SFUDBSBID
C.SFUDBSCID
D.SFUDBEBID
Q 90 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters NNEO using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 91 :
If MADRAS can be written as NBESBT, how can BOMBAY be written in that code ?
A.CPNCBX
B.CPNCBZ
C.CPOCBZ
D.CQOCBZ
Q 92 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONSUMER each of which has as many pairs of letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 93 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SEAMING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 94 :
If each vowel in the word DEFAULTS is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, how many alphabets will appear twice in the new formation?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 95 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word RATIONS each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 96 :
If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, fifth, seventh, and the eleventh letters of the word ’RECIPROCATE’. Which would be the second letter of the word from the left? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give Z as your answer.
A.R
B.P
C.E
D.X
E.Z
Q 97 :
How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters EAP, using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.four
Q 98 :
If each vowel of the word SILVER is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and then the alphabets thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A.M
B.S
C.T
D.H
E.W
Q 99 :
The positions of how many alphabets well remain the same if each of the alphabets in the word PROFIT is rearranged in the alphabetical order from the left to right?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 100 :
If MADRAS can be written as ARSARS, how can ARKONAM be written in that code ?
A.ROAAKNM
B.ROAKANM
C.ROAKNNM
D.ROKANAM
E.ROANKNM
Q 101 :
If each of the alphabets in the word FAINTED is arranged in alphabetical order from left to right and then each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series. Which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the new rearrangement thus formed?
A.F
B.E
C.J
D.I
E.O
Q 102 :
The positions of how many alphabets will remain the same if each of the alphabets in the word FRIENDS is rearranged in the alphabetical order from the left to right?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 103 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters SWA using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 104 :
The positions of the first and the fourth letters of the word WORTHLY are interchanged, similarly, the positions of second and fifth letters and third and sixth letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many letters are there between the letter which is third from the right and the letter which is third from the left, in the English alphabetical order?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 105 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters UOT using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 106 :
If each of the alphabets of the word COMPARE is arranged in alphabetical order from the left to right and then each vowel in the new word thus formed is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series which of the following will be the fifth from the right?
A.F
B.P
C.L
D.E
E.O
Q 107 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FORCES, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 108 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters STIF starting with F. using each letter-only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 109 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word RELUCTANCE each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 110 :
If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, fifth, seventh, and the eighth letters of the word SPONTANEOUS, then the second letter from the left is your answer. If no such word can be formed, then your answer is X and if more than word such can be formed your answer is Y.
A.X
B.T
C.E
D.S
E.Y
Q 111 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MERIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.FOUR
Q 112 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters IEST using each letter only once in each word?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Four
D.Five
E.None of these
Q 113 :
If the consonants in the word DROVE are first arranged alphabeticalliy and the vowels are put in between two pairs two pairs of consonants in the alphabetical order, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end after the rearrangement?
A.D
B.E
C.R
D.O
E.None of these
Q 114 :
How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters IRA, using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 115 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word INTRUDE each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 116 :
If each of the vowels in the word HONESTLY is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabetical series, and then the alphabets so formed are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many of the following alphabets will remain unchanged? (from that of before arranging in alphabetical order)
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 117 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, third, eighth, and the ninth letters of the word ABDUCTION . Which of the following would be the second letter of that word from the left end? If no such word can be made, give ‘A’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, your answer as ‘Z’?
A.A
B.O
C.N
D.B
E.Z
Q 118 :
In a certain code language COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC . How will MEDICINE be written in that code language ?
A.MFEDJJOE
B.EOJDEJFM
C.MFEJDJOE
D.EOJDJEFM
Q 119 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JOURNEY each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 120 :
How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters ONW, using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
General Awareness
Q 121 :
‘SAMPRITI’ is a joint military training exercise between India and which country ?
A.Japan
B.Sri Lanka
C.China
D.Bangladesh
Q 122 :
India recently observed ‘Martyrs Day’ on 30 th January, to pay homage to which Indian Leader ?
A.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
B.Netaji Subash Chandra Bose
C.Mahatma Gandhi
D.B.R. Ambedkar
Q 123 :
Which Indian journalist has been chosen as the recipient of 2019-20 PEN Gauri Lankesh Award ?
A.Ravish Kumar
B.Yusuf Jameel
C.N Ram
D.Prannoy Roy
Q 124 :
As per the recent Economic Outlook Survey released by FICCI, what is the estimated median GDP growth forecast for 2019-20 ?
A.5.0%
B.5.1%
C.5.2%
D.5.3%
Q 125 :
Who has been appointed as the new chairman of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, recently ?
A.Pranab Kumar Das
B.Ajay Bhushan Pandey
C.M. Ajit Kumar
D.Atanu Chakraborty
Q 126 :
Ajmal Sultanpuri, who passed away recently, was a renowned poet in which language ?
A.Hindi
B.Urdu
C.Marathi
D.Gujarati
Q 127 :
The Department of Telecom, India has recently taken over process to issue and manage the allocation of IMEI. What does IMEI Stand for ?
A.India Mobile Equipment Identity
B.International Mobile Equipment Identity
C.Indian Multimedia Equipment Identifier
D.International Multimedia Equipment Identifier
Q 128 :
Khadi wrist watches have been recently launched by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission, in association with which company ?
A.Fossil
B.Titan
C.Timex
D.Casio
Q 129 :
Who has been appointed as the next ambassador of India to Nepal ?
A.Taranjit Singh Sandhu
B.Vijay Gokhale
C.Vinay Mohan Kwatra
D.Ajit Kumar
Q 130 :
Which Indian think tank has been ranked among the top 30 think tanks globally, as per a recent report ?
A.Observer Research Foundation (ORF)
B.NITI Aayog
C.Center for Civil Society (CCS)
D.The Energy and Resource Institute (TERI)
Q 131 :
What is the GDP Growth rate of India, in 2018-19, as per the recent statement from the National Statistical Office (NSO), on January 31,2020 ?
A.6.8%
B.6.4%
C.6.2%
D.6.1%
Q 132 :
Which global tech firm has launched a short-video making application called “Tangi’, which focuses on creativity ?
A.Microsoft
B.Facebook
C.Google
D.Adobe
Q 133 :
According to the recent Economic Survey 2019-20, which state has the cheapest Vegetarian Thali (food plate) ?
A.Kerala
B.Jharkhand
C.Bihar
D.Tripura
Q 134 :
As per the recent Economic Survey 2019-20, what is the rank of India globally in number of new firms created ?
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.6
Q 135 :
Which Indian-American has been appointed as the new Chairman of the tech company International Business Machines Corporation (IBM) ?
A.Arvind Krishna
B.Abidali Neemuchwala
C.Sundar Pichai
D.Shantanu Narayen
Q 136 :
When is the Anti-leprosy day for the year 2020, observed across the world ?
A.January 26
B.January 27
C.January 28
D.January 29
Q 137 :
The European Union has how many countries in its bloc, after the exit of the United Kingdom ?
A.26
B.27
C.28
D.29
Q 138 :
The India International Leather Fair (IILF), 2020 is being held in which city ?
A.Bhopal
B.Cuttack
C.Chennai
D.Kochi
Q 139 :
Abidali Neemuchwala, who resigned recently, was the chief executive Officer of which popular Indian IT firm ?
A.Infosys
B.Tata Consultancy Services
C.Wipro
D.HCL
Q 140 :
The 250th flight operation under the RCS – UDAN scheme was recently commenced between Bhubaneswar and which Indian city ?
A.Lucknow
B.Varanasi
C.Patna
D.Prayagraj
Q 141 :
According to the recent Union Budget 2020-21 what is the disinvestment target of the Indian Government for 2020-21 ?
A.Rs.1.0 Lakh Crores
B.Rs.1.1 Lakh Crores
C.Rs.1.2 Lakh Crores
D.Rs.1.3 Lakh Crores
Q 142 :
As per the recent Union budget, what is the estimated fiscal deficit target for 2020-21, expressed in per cent of GDP ?
A.3.3%
B.3.4%
C.3.5%
D.3.6%
Q 143 :
What is the maximum insurance provided for bank deposits, as per the recent latest Union budget 20-21 ?
A.Rs. 1 Lakh
B.Rs. 2 Lakh
C.Rs. 2.5 Lakh
D.Rs. 5 Lakh
Q 144 :
What is the name of the new scheme proposed in the budget, which is to be implemented by the Aviation Ministry, for transporting agricultural products ?
A.Udan 5.0 Scheme
B.Kisan Udan Scheme
C.Krishi Udan Scheme
D.PM Kisan Udan Scheme
Q 145 :
Who clinched the men’s singles title in the recently held Australian Open Tournament, 2020 ?
A.Roger Federer
B.Rafael Nadal
C.Novak Djokovic
D.Dominic Thiem
Q 146 :
Pramod Agrawal was recently appointed as the new Chairman and Managing Director of which Public Sector Enterprises ?
A.Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)
B.Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL)
C.Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL)
D.Coal India Limited (CIL)
Q 147 :
The third private train of the IRCTC is set to run between Varanasi and which city ?
A.Indore
B.Bhopal
C.Nagpur
D.Jaipur
Q 148 :
Which Indian diplomat was recently appointed as India’s High Commissioner to Sri Lanka ?
A.Ajay Bisaria
B.Gopal Baglay
C.Vinay Mohan Kwatra
D.Taranjit Singh Sandhu
Q 149 :
Which country has national emergency to tackle the attack of locust swarms ?
A.India
B.Pakistan
C.Iran
D.Afghanistan
Q 150 :
In which Indian city, the Indian Navy conducted its costal security exercise, ‘Matla Abhiyaan’ ?
A.Cochin
B.Kolkata
C.Mumbai
D.Vishakhapatnam
Q 151 :
“Sophisticated Analytical & Technical Help Institutes (SATHI)” is an initiative of which Ministry ?
A.Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
B.Ministry of Science and Technology
C.Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
D.Ministry of Human Resource Development
Q 152 :
Which state bagged the award for ‘Best performance in Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana’, recently presented by the Union Minister of Women & Child Development ?
A.Madhya Pradesh
B.Andhra Pradesh
C.Karnataka
D.Gujarat
Q 153 :
Which Indian state has recently declared the disease caused by the novel coronavirus as a “state calamity” ?
A.Tamil Nadu
B.Kerala
C.Karnataka
D.Telangana
Q 154 :
The Hubbali to Dharwad Bus Rapid Transit System (BRTS) project was recently inaugurated in which state ?
A.Karnataka
B.Maharashtra
C.Madhya Pradesh
D.Telangana
Q 155 :
Which banker of India has been named as the Central Banker of the Year (Asia-Pacific 2020), by the Banker magazine ?
A.Raghuram Rajan
B.Shaktikanta Das
C.Urjit Patel
D.Viral Acharya
Q 156 :
The famous arts festival called ‘Kala Ghoda Arts Festival’ is celebrated annually in which Indian city ?
A.New Delhi
B. Mumbai
C.Kolkata
D.Bengaluru
Q 157 :
The third Defence Attaches conference, 2020 was recently held in which city ?
A.Ahmedabad
B.New Delhi
C.Kanpur
D.Lucknow
Q 158 :
The Scientists at Indian Veterinary Research Institute have recently developed a low-cost vaccine for which disease ?
A.Bird Flu
B.Swine Flu
C.Foot and Mouth Disease
D.Monkey Pox
Q 159 :
“Babenco: Tell Me When I Die”, which won the ‘Golden Conch Award for Best Documentary Film’ at the Mumbai International Film Festival 2020, is a film of which country ?
A.Canada
B.Brazil
C.France
D.South Korea
Q 160 :
L&T MBDA Missile Systems (LTMMSL) have recently set up a missile integration facility at which state ?
A.Maharashtra
B.Karnataka
C.Tamil Nadu
D.Kerala
General Science
Q 161 :
The waves produced by a motorboat sailing in water are :
A.Transverse
B.Longitudinal
C.Longitudinal and transverse
D.Stationary
Q 162 :
A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given time. He uses this data to estimate g; the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in measurement of the distance and the time are e1 and e2 respectively the percentage error in the estimation of g is
A.e2 – e1
B.e1 + 2e2
C.e1 + e2
D.e1 – 2e2
Q 163 :
Which of the following logic gates Is an univ eNal gate ?
A.NAND
B.AND
C.OR
D.NOT
Q 164 :
A ray of light is incident on a 60° prism at the minimum deviation position. The angle of refraction at the first face (ie, incident face) of the prism is
A.zero
B.30°
C.45°
D.60°
Q 165 :
For transistor action
(1) Base, emitter and collector regions should have similar size and doping concentrations.
(2) The base region must be very thin and lightly doped.
(3) The emitter-base junction is forward biased and base-collector junction is reverse biased.
(4) Both the emitter-base junction as well as the base collector junction are forward biased.
Which one of the following pairs of statements is correct?
A. (4) and (1)
B.(1) and (2)
C.(2) and (3)
D. (3) and (4)
Q 166 :
The velocity with which a projectile must be fired so that it escapes earth’s gravitation does not depend on :
A.Mass of the earth
B.Mass of the projectile
C.Radius of the projectile’s orbit
D.Gravitational constant
Q 167 :
The amount of heat measured in calories needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of substance by 1 degree centigrade is known as
A.heat of fusion
B.specific heat
C.coefficient of expansion
D.latent heat
Q 168 :
A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.5 × 10–4 m2 carries a current of 2.0 A. It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field 5 × 10–2 T making an angle of 30° with the axis of the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be
A.3 × 10–3 N-m
B.1.5 × 10–3 N-m
C.1.5 × 10–2 N-m
D.3 × 10–2 N-m
Q 169 :
A particle having a mass of 10–2 kg carries a charge of 5 × 10–6 C. The particle is given an initial horizontal velocity of 105 ms–1 in the presence of electric field and magnetic field . To keep the particle moving in a horizontal direction, it is necessary that
(1) should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity and should be along the direction of velocity.
(2) Both and should be along the direction of velocity.
(3) Both and are mutually perpendicular and perpendicular to the direction of velocity.
(4) should be along the direction of velocity and should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity.
Which one of the following pairs of statements is possible?
A. (1) and (3)
B.(3) and (4)
C. (2) and (3)
D. (2) and (4)
Q 170 :
The physical quantity which has the dimensional formula M1T - Is
A.Compressibility
B.Density
C.Solar constant
D.Surface tension
Q 171 :
Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of increasing atomic radii is Mg
A.Mg < Ca < Cl < P
B.Cl < P < Mg < Ca
C.P < Cl < Ca < Mg
D.Ca < Mg < P < Cl
Q 172 :
The pressure exerted by 6.0 g of methane gas in a 0.03 m3 vessel at 129° C is (Atomic masses : C = 12.01, H = 1.01 and R –8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
A.215216 Pa
B.13409 Pa
C.41648 Pa
D.31684 Pa
Q 173 :
Among the following four compounds
A. Phenol
B. Methyl pheno
C. meta-nitrophenol
D. para nitrophenol the acidity order is
A.D > C > A > B
B.C > D > A > B
C.A > D > C > B
D.B > A > C > D
Q 174 :
Among the following which one has the highest cation to anion size ratio?
A.Csl
B.CsF
C.LiF
D.NaF
Q 175 :
Three moles of an ideal gas expanded spontaneously into vacuum. The work done will be
A.Infinite
B.3 J
C.9 J
D.Zero
Q 176 :
Consider the following relations for emf of a electrochemical cell
(A) Emf of cell = (oxidation potential of anode) – (reduction potential of cathode)
(B) Emf of cell = (oxidation potential of anode) + (reduction potential of cathode)
(C) Emf of cell = (reduction potential of anode) + (reduction potential of cathode)
(D) Emf of cell = (oxidation potential anode) – (Oxidation potential of cathode)
Which of the above relations are correct?
A.(C) and (A)
B.(A) and (B)
C.(C) and (D)
D.(B) and (D)
Q 177 :
Match List I (substances) with List II (processe employe in the manufacture of the substances) and select the correct option.
List I List II
(Substances) (Processes)
A.Sulphuric acid 1. Haber’s process
B.Steel 2. Bessemer’s process
C.Sodium 3. Leblanc process hydroxide
D.Ammonia 4. Contact process
A.1 4 2 3
B.1 2 3 4
C.4 3 2 1
D.4 2 3 1
Q 178 :
When glycerol is treated with excess of HI, it produces
A.2-iodopropane
B.allyl iodide
C.propene
D.glycerol triiodide
Q 179 :
Some statements about heavy water are given below
(A) Heavy water is used as moderator in nuclear reactors.
(B) Heavy water is more associated than ordinary water.
(C) Heavy water is more effective solvent than ordinary water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.A and B
B.A, B and C
C.B and C
D.A and C
Q 180 :
Which of the following oxidation states is the most common among the lanthanoids?
A.4
B.2
C.5
D.3
Q 181 :
Fructose reduces Tollen’s reagent due to
A.Asymmetric carbons
B.Primary alcoholic group
C.Secondary alcoholic group
D.Enoiisation of fructose followed conversion to aldehyde by base
Q 182 :
hreshold frequency of a metal is 5 × 1013 s–1 upon which 1 × 1014 s–1 frequency light is focused. Then the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron is
A.3.3 × 10–21
B. 3.3 × 10–20
C.6.6 × 10–21
D.6.6 × 10–20
Q 183 :
A compound has an empirical formula CH2O . If its vapour dencity is 45, is molecular formula is
A.C8H6O8
B.C4H8O4
C.C3H6O3
D.C5H10O5
Q 184 :
How many P = O bond present in (HPO3)3?
A.0
B.3
C.6
D.9
Q 185 :
At STP, the dencity of a gas (molecular weight 45) is
A.2 g/litre
B.22.4 g/litre
C.11.2 g/litre
D.26.6 g/litre
Q 186 :
Which one of the following pairs of structures is correctly matched with their correct description?
A.Structure Description
Tibia and fibula Both form parts of knee joint
B.Cartilage and cornea No blood supply but do require oxygen for respiratory need
C.Shoulder joint and elbow joint Ball and socket type of joint
D.Premolars and molars 20 in all and 3 rooted
Q 187 :
Fastest distribution of some injectible material/medicine and with no risk of any kind can be achieved by injecting it into the
A.muscles
B.arteries
C.veins
D.lymph vessels
Q 188 :
Which one of the following statements about the particular entity is true?
A. Centromere is found in animal cells which produces aster during cell division
B.The gene for producing insulin is present in every body cell
C.Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides
D.DNA consists of a core of eight histones
Q 189 :
Which one of the following is a xerophytic plant in which the stem is modified into the flat green and succulent structure?
A.Opuntia
B.Casuarina
C.Hydrilla
D.Acacia
Q 190 :
Which of the following is used in gene cloning?
A.Nucleoids
B.Lomasomes
C.Mesosomes
D.Plasmids
Q 191 :
When domestic sewage mixes with river water
A.small animals like rats will die after drinking river water
B.the increased microbial activity releases micronutrients such as iron
C.the increased microbial activity uses up dissolved oxygen
D.the river water is still suitable for drinking as impurities are only about 0.1%
Q 192 :
In which one of the following organism, its excretory organs are correctly stated?
A.Humans — Kidneys, sebaceous glands and tear glands
B.Earthworm — Pharyngeal, integumentary and septal nephridia
C.Cockroach — Malpighian tubules and enteric caeca
D.Frog — Kidneys, skin and buccal epithelium
Q 193 :
The most apparent change during the evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced in
A. loss of body hair
B.walking upright
C.shortening of the jaws
D.remarkable increase in the brain size
Q 194 :
Which one of the following is now commercially produced by biotechnolo procedures?
A.Nicotine
B.Morphine
C.Quinine
D.Insulin
Q 195 :
If for some reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to happen?
A.The pancreatic enzymes and specially the trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently
B.The pH of stomach will fall abruptly
C.Steapsin will be more effective
D.Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones
Q 196 :
Which one of the following is most appropriately defined?
A.Host is an organism, which provides food to another organism
B.Amensalism is a relationship in which one species is benefited whereas the other is unaffected
C.Predator is an organism that catches and kills other organism for food
D.Parasite is an organism, which always lives inside the body of other organism and may kill it
Q 197 :
Read the following four statements, A, B, C and D and select the right option having both correct statements.
A. Z secheme of light reaction takes place in presence of PS-I only.
B. Only PS-I is functional in cyclic photophosphorylation.
C. Cyclic photophosphorylation results into synthesis of ATP and NADPH2.
D. Stroma lamellae lack PS-II as well as NADP.
A.B and D
B.A and B
C.B and C
D.C and D
Q 198 :
Which one of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancer?
A.Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
B. Radiography (X-ray)
C.Computed Tomography (CT)
D.Histopathological Studies
Q 199 :
Signals from fully developed foetus and placenta ultimately lead to parturition which requires the release of
A.oestrogen from placenta
B.oxytocin from maternal pituitary
C.oxytocin from foetal pituitary
D.relaxin from placenta
Q 200 :
Select the correct matching of a hormone its source and function.
A.Hormone Source Function
Vasopressin Posterior pituitary Increases loss of water through urine
B.Norepinephrine Adrenal medulla Increases heart beat, rate of respiration and alertness
C.Glucagon Beta-cells of Islets glycogenolysis Langerhans Stimulates
D.Prolactin Posterior pituitary Regulates growth and milk formation in females
th of 
th of a number and 
of 
th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
is subtracted from 
and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
are arranged in ascending order of their values, Which fraction will be the fifth ?
are arranged in ascending order of their values. Which one will be the fourth ?
are arranged in ascending order their values which one will be the third ?