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Latest UPSC CAPF AC Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Ability & Intelligence
Question Bank UPSC CAPF AC Paper - 1 Exam - English
General Ability & Intelligence
Q 1 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 2 :
What is active desktop ?
A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C.both a and b above mentioned
D.A software
E.None of these
Q 3 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 4 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 5 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 6 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 7 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 8 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 9 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 10 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 11 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 12 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 13 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 14 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 15 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 16 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 17 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 18 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 19 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 20 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 21 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 22 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 23 :
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A.5
B.6
C.7
D.8
Q 24 :
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A.2001
B.2010
C.2012
D.2011
Q 25 :
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A.1 only
B.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
D.1,2, and 3
Q 26 :
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
A.2007-12
B.2008-13
C.2010-15
D.2012-17
Q 27 :
A closed economy is an economy in which
A.the money supply is fully controlled
B.deficit financing takes place
C.only exports take place
D.neither exports nor imports take place
Q 28 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 29 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 30 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 31 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 32 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 33 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 34 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 35 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 36 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 37 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 38 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 39 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 40 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 41 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 42 :
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.SUM
B.BIG
C.Both BIG and THE
D.FOR
E.Both FOR and BIG
Q 43 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A.AND
B.FOR
C.THE
D.BIG
E.SUM
Q 44 :
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 45 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 46 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 47 :
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.Four
Q 48 :
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A.Both CAT and OWN
B.Both BRU and INK
C.Only CAT
D.Only INK
E.Only LEG
Q 49 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A.OWN
B.LEG
C.BRU
D.CAT
E.INK
Q 50 :
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
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UPSC CAPF AC Paper-1 Exam Question Bank Book - Hindi
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A.HID
B.SON
C.Both LAP and BUT
D.CAR
E.Both CAR and LAP
Q 53 :
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be fourth from the left?
A.LAP
B.BUT
C.CAR
D.SON
E.HID
Q 54 :
If in each of given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 55 :
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the third letter of the word which is third from the right and the first letter of the word which is first from the left of the given word?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Six
D.Nine
E.Three
Q 56 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 57 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 58 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 59 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 60 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 61 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 62 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 63 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 64 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 65 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 66 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 67 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 68 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 69 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 70 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 71 :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 72 :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 73 :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 74 :
What is the value of x ?
(I) If 10 is added to x, the result is 34.
(II) If x is multiplied by y, the result is 38.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 75 :
What was the total compound interest on a sum after three years ?
(I) The interest after one year was Rs. 100 and the sum after was Rs.1000.
(II) The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum of Rs.1000 at the end of two years was Rs.10.
A.Statement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.EACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Q 76 :
Among Japanese Yen, Australian Dollar, Hong Kong Dollar and Singapore Dollar, which currency has the lowest value in terms of Indian rupees ?
(1) One rupee is equal to 2.56 Japanese Yen, 0.338 Australian Dollar, and 0.465 Hong Kong Dollar.
(2) Value of Australian Dollar is equal to Singapore Dollar.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 77 :
What is the value of a two-digit number ?
(1) The sum of the two digits is 4.
(2) The difference between the two digits is 2.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 78 :
What was the population of State ‘A’ in 1999 ?
(1) Population of the State increases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1,20,000.
(2) Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 79 :
What is the speed of the boat in still water ?
(1) It takes 2 hours to cover the distance between A and B downstream.
(2) It takes 4 hours to cover the distance between A and B upstream.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 80 :
How many vinyl squares with sides 5 inches long will be needed to cover the rectangular floor of a room ?
(1) The floor is 5ft long.
(2) The floor is 3 ft wide.
A.Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) alone is not sufficient
B.Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
C.BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
D.Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient
Q 81 :
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A.1946
B.1947
C.1948
D.1950
Q 82 :
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A.Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B.Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 83 :
The idea of the Constituent Assembly was first put forward by:
A.Mahatma Gandhi
B.M.N. Roy
C.Jawaharlal Nehru
D.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Q 84 :
The Cabinet Mission Plan for India was proposed in:
A.1942
B.1945
C.1946
D.1947
Q 85 :
The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A.15th August 1947
B.26th January 1950
C.26th November 1949
D.30th January 1948
Q 86 :
What is the lithosphere composed of ?
A.Water and gases
B.Rocks and minerals
C.Living organisms
D.Air and gases
Q 87 :
The lithosphere includes :
A.Only the Earth's crust
B.The Earth's crust and upper mantle
C.Only the Earth's mantle
D.The Earth's crust, mantle, and core
Q 88 :
The process of soil formation is called :
A.Erosion
B.Weathering
C.Deposition
D.Lithification
Q 89 :
Who is known as the "Missile Man of India"?
A.Dr. Homi J. Bhabha
B.Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
C.Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
D.Dr. Satish Dhawan
Q 90 :
Which of the following is a component of the cytoskeleton?
A.Microtubules
B.Ribosomes
C.Lysosomes
D.Mitochondria
Q 91 :
Which is the longest river in India?
A.Yamuna
B.Ganges
C.Brahmaputra
D.Godavari
Q 92 :
The Western Ghats are also known as:
A.Sahyadris
B.Vindhyas
C.Satpuras
D.Aravallis
Q 93 :
Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’?
A.Ganges
B.Kosi
C.Son
D.Gandak
Q 94 :
Which mountain range separates Northern India from Southern India?
A.Aravallis
B.Vindhyas
C.Eastern Ghats
D.Himalayas
Q 95 :
The Deccan Plateau is bordered by which two mountain ranges?
A.Himalayas and Western Ghats
B.Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats
C.Vindhyas and Satpuras
D.Aravallis and Satpuras
Q 96 :
Which of the following is NOT a key indicator of economic growth?
A.GDP (Gross Domestic Product)
B.Inflation rate
C.Unemployment rate
D.Per capita income
Q 97 :
What is inflation?
A.A sustained increase in the general price level of goods and services.
B.A decrease in the general price level of goods and services.
C.A period of economic recession.
D.An increase in unemployment.
Q 98 :
Which of the following is a leading economic indicator?
A.Unemployment rate
B.Consumer Price Index (CPI)
C.Industrial production
D.Interest rates
Q 99 :
What is the primary function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
A.To regulate the banking system in India.
B.To manage the fiscal deficit.
C.To implement government policies.
D.To provide social security benefits.
Q 100 :
What is monetary policy?
A.Government spending and taxation policies.
B.Policies that control the money supply and interest rates.
C.Policies related to international trade.
D.Policies aimed at reducing poverty.
Q 101 :
Which of the following was the main cause of the Carnatic Wars?
A.British vs. Marathas for control over the Deccan
B.French vs. British for control over the Carnatic region
C.Invasion by the Mughals
D.Disputes between the Marathas and Nizam of Hyderabad
Q 102 :
The Battle of Plassey (1757) was fought between the British and:
A.Marathas
B.Nizam of Hyderabad
C.Mughals
D.Siraj-ud-Daula
Q 103 :
The Treaty of Paris (1763) ended which of the following conflicts?
A.First Anglo-Maratha War
B.First Carnatic War
C.Seven Years' War
D.Anglo-Mysore War
Q 104 :
Which British general played a key role in the victory at the Battle of Plassey?
A.Robert Clive
B.Warren Hastings
C.Richard Wellesley
D.Lord Cornwallis
Q 105 :
The Battle of Buxar (1764) was fought between the British and:
A.Marathas
B.Mughals
C.Nawab of Oudh, Mir Qasim, and Shuja-ud-Daula
D.Sikhs
Q 106 :
What major global sporting event is scheduled from 11 June to 19 July 2026?
A.Winter Olympics
B.FIFA World Cup 2026
C.Asian Games
D.Commonwealth Games
Q 107 :
Ethanol blending-related amendments to Central Motor Vehicles Rules in 2026 include:
A.Only E20
B.E85, E100, and B100 biodiesel
C.Electric vehicles only
D.CNG mandates
Q 108 :
What is the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0 related to?
A.Defence procurement
B.Urban development
C.Performance assessment of over 2.5 lakh panchayats
D.Export promotion
Q 109 :
Rajya Sabha passed the Central Armed Police Forces (General Administration) Bill in early April 2026 to:
A.Merge forces
B.Increase salaries
C.Reduce recruitment age
D.Create a unified legal framework for CAPF personnel
Q 110 :
US President Donald Trump commented on considering exiting NATO, calling it a:
A.Paper tiger
B.Strong alliance
C.Economic burden
D.Peacekeeper
Q 111 :
Which Indian state saw clashes between Aboriginal community and police in Alice Springs (international news context)?
A.Canada
B.New Zealand
C.Australia
D.South Africa
Q 112 :
The Iran war and closure of the Strait of Hormuz led to:
A.Oil prices hitting four-year high
B.Record low oil prices
C.Increased Indian exports
D.Rupee appreciation
Q 113 :
From 1 April 2026, RBI shifted processing of overseas investment references to:
A.Only Mumbai office
B.SEBI
C.7 Regional Offices via PRAVAAH portal
D.Ministry of Finance
Q 114 :
What new framework did the RBI announce plans for regarding NBFCs in April 2026?
A.Complete deregulation
B.Classification into upper, middle, and lower layers
C.Merger with banks
D.Ban on new NBFCs
Q 115 :
Vaishnath (Railway Minister) flagged off the first direct Vande Bharat Express between:
A.Delhi and Mumbai
B.Jammu and Srinagar
C.Chennai and Bengaluru
D.Kolkata and Guwahati
Q 116 :
What major defence-related development was highlighted on 1 May 2026 involving India and Italy?
A.Joint naval exercise in the Indian Ocean
B.Purchase of Rafale jets
C.Rajnath Singh-Italy Defence Pact
D.Signing of a nuclear agreement
Q 117 :
Neeraj Chopra began his pre-season training for 2026 in which country?
A.Germany
B.South Africa (Potchefstroom)
C.USA
D.Australia
Q 118 :
Which initiative or mission was linked to Tatya Tope’s letter discovery?
A.Swachh Bharat
B.Namami Gange
C.Digital India
D.Gyan Bharatam Mission
Q 119 :
RBI's April 2026 Monetary Policy kept the repo rate unchanged at:
A.6.5%
B.6.0%
C.4.75%
D.5.25%
Q 120 :
Indian airlines (Air India, IndiGo, SpiceJet) informed the government about potential operational issues due to:
A.Pilot shortage
B.High fuel prices and Strait of Hormuz closure amid Iran war
C.New DGCA regulations
D.Airport congestion
Q 121 :
A wall collapse at a hospital in which city killed seven people around early May 2026?
A.Bengaluru, Karnataka
B.Mumbai
C.Hyderabad
D.Chennai
Q 122 :
A tragic road accident in Dhar, Madhya Pradesh on or around 1 May 2026 resulted in how many deaths?
A.At least 16 (including 6 children and 7 women)
B.8
C.25
D.12
Q 123 :
UAE announced its exit from OPEC, with the decision taking effect from:
A.1 May 2026
B.1 January 2026
C.1 July 2026
D.31 December 2026
Q 124 :
What is Prerna 2.0, launched/introduced in the news on 1 May 2026?
A.A new defence missile system
B.Green hydrogen mission
C.AI Tutoring initiative
D.Digital payment platform
Q 125 :
Which satellite was launched by ISRO around early May 2026?
