Latest UPSC CGPDTM Examiner Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General English, Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude, General Knowledge & Current Affairs, General Science, IP Legislation in India, WIPO, and related treaties
Question Bank UPSC CGPDTM Examiner Phase 1 Prelims Exam - English
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 4Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 5Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 6Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 7Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 8Single Answer
We shall invite Suresh.
A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us
Question 9Single Answer
Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.
A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.
Question 10Single Answer
The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.
A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow
Question 11Single Answer
Why did break the vase?
A
why is the vase broken by him
B
why was the vase broken by him
C
why had been the vase broken by him
D
why has been the vase broken by him
Question 12Single Answer
Mariam was writing a note to her boss.
A
A note was written to her boss by Mariam
B
A note was wrote by Mariam to her boss
C
A note was being written by Mariam to her boss
D
A note was written by Mariam to her boss
Question 13Single Answer
The baby really enjoys that music.
A
That music was really enjoyed by the baby.
B
That music was really being enjoyed by the baby.
C
That music is really enjoyed by the baby.
D
This music was really enjoyed by the baby.
Question 14Single Answer
The weather disrupted the final match.
A
The final match has been disrupted by the weather.
B
The final match had been disrupted by the weather.
C
The final match was disrupted by the weather.
D
The final match was being disrupted by the weather.
Question 15Single Answer
The management committee is required to publish a report every year.
A
report would be published by the management committee every year.
B
A report would have been published by the management committee every year.
C
A report requires to be published by the management committee every year.
D
Every year the report would be published by the management committee.
Question 16Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 17Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 18Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 19Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 20Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 21Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 22Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 23Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 24Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Loiter
A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii
Question 25Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.
A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing
Question 26Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Deep-seated
A
Chronic
B
Temporary
C
inbred
D
Subconscious
Question 27Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Vibrant
A
Drab
B
Gaudy
C
Jazzy
D
Vivid
Question 28Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
To scowl
A
To glower
B
To smirk
C
To Grimace
D
To grin
Question 29Single Answer
Passage :
In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error .
I used (A)/ a pair of black trousers (B) / for a week (C)/ No error (D)
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Question 30Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Atheist
A
Skeptic
B
Pagan
C
Disciple
D
Agnostic
Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude
Question 31Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 32Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 33Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 34Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 35Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 36Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 37Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 38Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 39Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Question 40Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 41Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 42Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 43Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 44Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 45Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 46Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 47Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 48Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 49Single Answer
Which is greater ?
A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare
Question 50Single Answer
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A
3
B
4
C
5
D
7
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Reasoning & Quantitative Aptitude
Question 51Single Answer
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC
Question 52Single Answer
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10
Question 53Single Answer
What is (98 times 102) ?
A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196
General Knowledge & Current Affairs
Question 54Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 55Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 56Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 57Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 58Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 59Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 60Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 61Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 62Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 63Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 64Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 65Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 66Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery
Question 67Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 68Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 69Single Answer
Where was the 8th International Solar Alliance (ISA) Assembly held in 2025?
A
Geneva, Switzerland
B
New Delhi, India
C
Paris, France
D
Abu Dhabi, UAE
Question 70Single Answer
What was a major outcome of the DRDO's SAMANVAY 2025 event in Bengaluru?
A
Launch of a new satellite
B
Transfer of 12 Licensing Agreements for Transfer of Technology
C
Signing of international arms deal
D
Development of AI drones
Question 71Single Answer
What was the focus of the first India-Sri Lanka Joint Working Group (JWG) meeting on Agriculture held in October 2025?
A
Farm mechanization and climate-resilient agriculture
B
Trade tariffs
C
Water disputes
D
Export quotas
Question 72Single Answer
Which company delivered India’s first 220kV Mobile Gas Insulated Switchgear (GIS) System in October 2025?
A
Siemens
B
ABB
C
GE
D
Toshiba
Question 73Single Answer
What is India’s total installed power capacity as of September 30, 2025?
A
500.89 GW
B
450 GW
C
400 GW
D
550 GW
Question 74Single Answer
What is Dictionary.com's Word of the Year for 2025?
A
"67"
B
"Viral"
C
"Echo"
D
"Quantum"
Question 75Single Answer
What is the key feature of the Reliance-Google partnership announced in October 2025?
A
Free Google Gemini access for Jio users aged 18-25
B
Joint satellite launch
C
Electric vehicle production
D
Blockchain development
Question 76Single Answer
Which Indian business schools received AACSB accreditation in October 2025?
A
IIM Ahmedabad and XLRI
B
JGBS and GIM
C
ISB and SPJIMR
D
FMS and NMIMS
Question 77Single Answer
What award did State Bank of India (SBI) receive at the IMF-World Bank Meetings in October 2025?
A
Best Digital Bank
B
World’s Best Consumer Bank 2025
C
Green Bank of the Year
D
Innovation Leader
Question 78Single Answer
Who was appointed as the 53rd Chief Justice of India in October 2025?
A
Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
B
Justice B.R. Gavai
C
Justice Surya Kant
D
Justice Sanjiv Khanna
Question 79Single Answer
What is the name of India’s first defense electric vehicle unveiled by Pravaig in October 2025?
A
VEER
B
DEFENDER
C
WARRIOR
D
SENTINEL
Question 80Single Answer
What breakthrough did Google achieve with its Willow chip in October 2025?
A
First AI supercomputer
B
Blockchain integration
C
Verifiable quantum advantage
D
6G network
Question 81Single Answer
Who became India’s 90th Chess Grandmaster on October 30, 2025?
A
Praggnanandhaa
B
Gukesh D
C
Arjun Erigaisi
D
Ilamparthi A R
Question 82Single Answer
Which former Indian hockey player, known as "Tiger," passed away on October 31, 2025?
A
Dhanraj Pillay
B
Leslie Claudius
C
Balbir Singh Sr.
D
Manuel Frederick
Question 83Single Answer
What is the Hindi translation of the Lithuanian novel “The Last Day” released by Sahitya Akademi in October 2025?
A
Antim Din
B
Aakhri Raat
C
Shesh Sandhya
D
Kal Ka Ant
General Science
Question 84Single Answer
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
A
length and mass
B
mass and time
C
length, mass and time
D
None of these
Question 85Single Answer
Electron volt is a unit of
A
potential difference
B
charge
C
energy
D
capacity
Question 86Single Answer
Dimensions of impulse are
A
[MLT –1]
B
[MLT²]
C
[MT–2]
D
[ML–1T–3]
Question 87Single Answer
Potential is measured in
A
joule/coulomb
B
watt/coulomb
C
newton–second
D
None of these
Question 88Single Answer
One Nanometer is equal to
A
10–9m
B
10–6m
C
10–10m
D
10–3m
Question 89Single Answer
Maxwell is the unit of
A
magnetic susceptibility
B
intensity of Magnetisation
C
magnetic Flux
D
magnetic Permeability
Question 90Single Answer
Which of the following is derived physical quantity ?
A
Mass
B
Velocity
C
Length
D
Time
Question 91Single Answer
What are the units of magnetic permeability ?
A
Wb A–1 m–1
B
Wb–1 Am
C
Wb A m–1
D
Wb A–1 m
Question 92Single Answer
The dimensions of pressure gradient are
A
[ML–2 T–2]
B
[ML–2 T–1]
C
[ML–1 T–1]
D
[ML–1 T–2]
Question 93Single Answer
The dimensions of Rydberg's constant are
A
[M0L–1T]
B
[MLT–1]
C
[M0 L–1T0]
D
[ML0 T2]
Question 94Single Answer
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
A
Anygora
B
Rayon
C
Nylon
D
Polyster
Question 95Single Answer
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
A
Ca3Al2O6
B
Ca3SiO5
C
Ca2SiO4
D
Ca3(PO4)2
Question 96Single Answer
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
A
It does not contain carbon
B
It does not contain silicon
C
It does not contain iron
D
It does not contain calcium
Question 97Single Answer
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
A
Super phosphate
B
Nitrolim
C
Muriate of Potash
D
Humus
Question 98Single Answer
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
A
Aluminium sulphate
B
Copper sulphate
C
Cobalt sulphate
D
Nickel sulphate
Question 99Single Answer
What is a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal and sulphur called ?
A
Glass
B
Cement
C
paint
D
Gun powder
Question 100Single Answer
Which one of the following chemicals is used in beauty parlours for hair – setting ?
A
Sulphur based
B
Phosphorus based
C
Silicon based
D
Iron based
Question 101Single Answer
Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry ?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Magnesium carbonate
C
Magnesium chloride
D
Magnesium sulphate
Question 102Single Answer
Which one of the following substances is used in the manufacture of safety matches ?
A
Red phosphorus
B
White phosphorus
C
Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3)
D
Black phosphorus
Question 103Single Answer
Which one of the following polymeric materials is used for making bullet proof jacket ?
A
Nylon –6, 6
B
Rayon
C
Kevlar
D
Dacron
Question 104Single Answer
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
A
Dictyosomes
B
Endoplasmic reticulum
C
lysosomes
D
Mitochondria
Question 105Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
A
Cell membrane
B
Plasma membrane
C
Cell wall
D
Nucleus
Question 106Single Answer
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
A
Manganese
B
Potassium
C
Phosphorus
D
Calcium
Question 107Single Answer
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
A
Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
B
Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
C
Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
D
Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
Question 108Single Answer
For which among the following is not a true fruit ?
A
Apple
B
Date
C
Grape
D
Plum
Question 109Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane ?
A
Cholesterol
B
Glycoplids
C
Proline
D
Phospholipids
Question 110Single Answer
The replication of DNA is a pre-requisite for a eukaryotic cell to undergo division. During the cell cycle, the DNA replicates in
A
S–phase
B
G1–phase
C
G2–phase
D
M-phase
Question 111Single Answer
During which stage of mitosis does cytokinesis usually occur in animals ?
A
Phophase
B
Metaphase
C
Anaphase
D
Telophase
Question 112Single Answer
Lysosome arises from
A
endoplasmic reticulum
B
golgi apparatus
C
nucleus
D
mitochondria
Question 113Single Answer
The correct sequence of cell cycle is
A
S, G1, G2, M
B
S, M, G1, G2
C
G1, S, G2, M
D
M, G1, G2, S
IP Legislation in India, WIPO, and related treaties
Question 114Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT included in the statutory definition of “invention” under Section 2(1)(j) of the Patents Act, 1970 after the 2005 amendment?
A
A new product only
B
A new process only
C
Any manner of new manufacture
D
A new product or a new process involving inventive step and capable of industrial application
Question 115Single Answer
An invention relating to a “method of playing a game on a mobile phone using only mental steps” was refused by the Patent Office. Under which exact clause of Section 2(1)(j) was it primarily rejected?
A
Not an invention because it is not a manner of manufacture
B
Lack of inventive step
C
Lack of novelty
D
Incapable of industrial application
Question 116Single Answer
What is the legally recognized date of filing of the application?
A
15 March 2022
B
14 June 2023
C
14 June 2022
D
Date of grant
Question 117Single Answer
Which of the following is NOT a recognised type of patent application under the Patents Act, 1970 and Rules?
A
Divisional application filed suo-moto by the Controller
B
Convention application claiming priority from multiple priorities
C
Patent of addition
D
National phase PCT application
Question 118Single Answer
A claim recites “A machine substantially as herein described with reference to accompanying drawings”. Such a claim is most likely to be objected under which section for non-patentable subject matter?
A
Section 3(k)
B
Section 3(i)
C
Section 3(d)
D
Section 3(p)
Question 119Single Answer
The term “new invention” in Section 2(1)(l) is defined with reference to which cut-off date?
A
Priority date
B
Date of filing of complete specification
C
Date of publication
D
Date of grant
Question 120Single Answer
An invention relates to “a new polymorphic form of known compound X having enhanced bioavailability by 5% over the known form”. It is most likely to be hit by which provision?
A
Section 3(c)
B
Section 3(f)
C
Section 3(e)
D
Section 3(d)
Question 121Single Answer
Under Section 3(d), the mere discovery of a new form of a known substance is not patentable unless it results in enhancement of:
A
Stability only
B
Colour or odour
C
Solubility only
D
Known efficacy
Question 122Single Answer
Which of the following is expressly non-patentable under Section 4?
A
Inventions relating to atomic energy useful for defence
B
Inventions relating to atomic energy for power generation
C
All inventions relating to atomic energy
D
Inventions relating to atomic energy falling under Section 20(1) of Atomic Energy Act
Question 123Single Answer
The term of every patent granted after the 2005 amendment for a pharmaceutical compound is:
A
14 years from date of sealing
B
20 years from date of grant
C
20 years from priority date
D
20 years from date of filing
Question 124Single Answer
When will this patent normally expire?
A
4 July 2024
B
9 October 2030
C
4 July 2025
D
9 October 2028
Question 125Single Answer
Under Section 53, the term of a patent in respect of a divisional application filed on 15 Jan 2020 (parent filed on 10 Jan 2005) will expire on:
A
14 Jan 2040
B
20 years from divisional filing
C
Same date as parent patent
D
20 years from grant
Question 126Single Answer
Exclusive marketing rights (EMR) were available under the Patents Act during the transitional period from:
A
1999–2005
B
1995–2005
C
2005–2010
D
Never after 2005
Question 127Single Answer
Which of the following rights is NOT conferred on a patentee under Section 48 for a product patent?
A
Right to prevent third parties from making the product
B
Right to prevent third parties from offering for sale
C
Right to prevent third parties from importing
D
Right to use the patented product personally without licence
Question 128Single Answer
For a process patent under Section 48, the patentee has exclusive right to prevent others from using the process and from:
A
Selling the direct product only
B
Using, offering for sale, selling or importing the product obtained directly by that process in India
C
Exporting the product obtained directly
D
All of the above
Question 129Single Answer
A patentee of a pharmaceutical compound licensed it to company A for manufacture in India. Company B imports the same compound from China. Which right is violated?
A
Right to import
B
Right to use
C
Right to sell
D
Right to export
Question 130Single Answer
The expression “known substance” in Explanation to Section 3(d) has been judicially interpreted to mean:
A
Substance known only to the applicant
B
Substance disclosed in Indian traditional knowledge only
C
Substance disclosed in any document in India only
D
Substance known anywhere in the world before priority date
Question 131Single Answer
A claim directed to “use of compound X for treating diabetes” (where compound X is known but not known for treating diabetes) is hit by:
A
Section 3(d)
B
Section 3(e)
C
Swiss-type claim is allowed
D
First medical use is allowed
Question 132Single Answer
Essentially biological processes for production of plants or animals are excluded under Section 3(j) except:
A
Micro-organisms
B
Microbiological processes
C
Non-biological processes
D
All of the above
Question 133Single Answer
Traditional knowledge or aggregation or duplication of known properties of traditionally known component(s) is excluded under:
A
Section 3(q)
B
Section 3(p)
C
Section 3(k)
D
Section 3(j)
Question 134Single Answer
A method of agriculture performed on open fields by a farmer is non-commercially is not considered an invention under:
A
Section 3(k)
B
Section 3(i)
C
Section 3(j)
D
Section 3(h)
Question 135Single Answer
Which of the following is patentable after Novartis AG v. Union of India (2013)?
A
Beta-crystalline form of Imatinib Mesylate
B
Salts of known substances without enhanced therapeutic efficacy
C
Imatinib free base
D
New dosage form without efficacy data
Question 136Single Answer
The term of patent for an application filed under PCT national phase in India on 30 June 2022 (international filing 30 Dec 2020) expires on:
A
29 June 2042
B
29 Dec 2040
C
30 June 2042
D
20 years from Indian filing
Question 137Single Answer
A claim for “a machine for converting heat directly into electricity at 100% efficiency” is rejected primarily under:
A
Section 3(d)
B
Section 3(m)
C
Section 3(f)
D
Section 4
Question 138Single Answer
The expression “capable of industrial application” in Section 2(1)(ac) means the invention is capable of being:
A
Made only
B
Used only
C
Sold commercially
D
Made or used in an industry
Question 139Single Answer
A patentee’s right under Section 48 is subject to:
A
Compulsory licensing only
B
Opposition only
C
Revocation only
D
Other provisions of the Act and conditions in Section 47
Question 140Single Answer
Government use of a patented invention without payment during emergency is permitted under:
A
Section 100
B
Section 47
C
Section 102
D
Section 84
Question 141Single Answer
When does this patent expire?
A
31 December 2019
B
24 February 2029
C
31 December 2018
D
25 February 2030
Question 142Single Answer
The term of the divisional patent will expire on:
A
19 March 2038
B
14 May 2043
C
20 years from divisional grant
D
Same as parent only if granted earlier
Question 143Single Answer
The Supreme Court in Novartis v. Union of India (2013) interpreted “efficacy” under Section 3(d) in the context of pharmaceutical inventions to mean primarily: