Question for UPSC CGPDTM Examiner 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ

Objective Questions

Latest UPSC CGPDTM Examiner Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Knowledge & Current Affairs, General Aptitude, Elementary Mathematics, English Language Proficiency, Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs)

Question Bank UPSC CGPDTM Examiner Phase 2 Mains Exam - English

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General Knowledge & Current Affairs

Question 1Single Answer

Yojna a weekly journal

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 2Single Answer

Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by

A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission

Question 3Single Answer

Devaluation of a currency means

A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market

Question 4Single Answer

In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry

A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3

Question 5Single Answer

Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women

A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna

Question 6Single Answer

"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?

A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan

Question 7Single Answer

Which is the national game of Bhutan ?

A
badminton
B
basketball
C
football
D
archery

Question 8Single Answer

When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?

A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950

Question 9Single Answer

Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?

A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 10Single Answer

Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?

A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi

Question 11Single Answer

Where was the 8th International Solar Alliance (ISA) Assembly held in 2025?

A
Geneva, Switzerland
B
New Delhi, India
C
Paris, France
D
Abu Dhabi, UAE

Question 12Single Answer

What was a major outcome of the DRDO's SAMANVAY 2025 event in Bengaluru?

A
Launch of a new satellite
B
Transfer of 12 Licensing Agreements for Transfer of Technology
C
Signing of international arms deal
D
Development of AI drones

Question 13Single Answer

What was the focus of the first India-Sri Lanka Joint Working Group (JWG) meeting on Agriculture held in October 2025?

A
Farm mechanization and climate-resilient agriculture
B
Trade tariffs
C
Water disputes
D
Export quotas

Question 14Single Answer

Which company delivered India’s first 220kV Mobile Gas Insulated Switchgear (GIS) System in October 2025?

A
Siemens
B
ABB
C
GE
D
Toshiba

Question 15Single Answer

What is India’s total installed power capacity as of September 30, 2025?

A
500.89 GW
B
450 GW
C
400 GW
D
550 GW

Question 16Single Answer

What is Dictionary.com's Word of the Year for 2025?

A
"67"
B
"Viral"
C
"Echo"
D
"Quantum"

Question 17Single Answer

What is the key feature of the Reliance-Google partnership announced in October 2025?

A
Free Google Gemini access for Jio users aged 18-25
B
Joint satellite launch
C
Electric vehicle production
D
Blockchain development

Question 18Single Answer

Which Indian business schools received AACSB accreditation in October 2025?

A
IIM Ahmedabad and XLRI
B
JGBS and GIM
C
ISB and SPJIMR
D
FMS and NMIMS

Question 19Single Answer

What award did State Bank of India (SBI) receive at the IMF-World Bank Meetings in October 2025?

A
Best Digital Bank
B
World’s Best Consumer Bank 2025
C
Green Bank of the Year
D
Innovation Leader

Question 20Single Answer

Who was appointed as the 53rd Chief Justice of India in October 2025?

A
Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
B
Justice B.R. Gavai
C
Justice Surya Kant
D
Justice Sanjiv Khanna

General Aptitude

Question 21Single Answer

The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?

A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55

Question 22Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is irrational ?

A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7

Question 23Single Answer

356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?

A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600

Question 24Single Answer

Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4

A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4

Question 25Single Answer

What is (3^{^}{4} times 9^{^}{2}) ?

A
3⁶
B
3⁸
C
3¹⁰
D
9⁶

Question 26Single Answer

If 3⁴X^-2 = 729, then find the value of X.

Question 27Single Answer

Convert 0.6 into fraction ?

A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5

Question 28Single Answer

The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?

A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say

Question 29Single Answer

If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)^a+b-4= ?

A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30

Question 30Single Answer

If x^*y = x² + y² – xy, then value of 9^*11 is

A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121

Question 31Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
15/16
B
17/18
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 32Single Answer

If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.

Question 33Single Answer

Write the 44000 in Roman numerals

A
XLI
B
XLVI
C
XLIV
D
XLVIC

Question 34Single Answer

Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?

A
1/11
B
9/11
C
1/9
D
9/10

Question 35Single Answer

What is (98 times 102) ?

A
9996
B
10000
C
10096
D
10196

Question 36Single Answer

Which is smaller ?

A
9/11
B
7/9
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Question 37Single Answer

Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?

A
26/45
B
52/90
C
13/22
D
5/9

Question 38Single Answer

Convert 0.81 into fraction ?

A
81/100
B
9/10
C
8/9
D
9/11

Question 39Single Answer

(63)² – (12)² =?

A
3528
B
3852
C
3582
D
3825

Question 40Single Answer

Which is greater ?

A
13/17
B
11/14
C
Equal
D
Cannot compare

Elementary Mathematics

Question 41Single Answer

If a * b = a² + b² and a ∙ b = a² − b², then the value of (5 * 2) ∙ 25 is ?

A
225
B
226
C
216
D
215

Question 42Single Answer

When the number 3⁹⁸ is divided by 5, the remainder is ?

Question 43Single Answer

3 ÷ [(4 ÷ 5) ÷ 6],C = [3 ÷ (4 ÷ 5)] ÷ 6 and D = 3 ÷ 4( 5 ÷ 6), then ?

A
A and D are equal
B
All are equal
C
A and B are equal
D
A and C are equal

Question 44Single Answer

In 2010, the population of a city is 30.3 million. This number is same as ?

A
3030000
B
30030000
C
30300000
D
303000000

Question 45Single Answer

The number of integers less than − 3 but greater than – 8 is ?

Question 46Single Answer

The remainder obtained when 231 is dividd by 5 ?

Question 47Single Answer

1.66 x 1.66 + 0.66 x 0.66 – 1.32 x 1.66 is equal to ?

A
0.1
B
1
C
10
D
101

Question 48Single Answer

In Roman system, 98 is written as ?

A
CXVIII
B
XLVIII
C
XCVIII
D
LXVIII

Question 49Single Answer

the sum of the digits a and b is ?

A
13
B
12
C
15
D
14

Question 50Single Answer

The product of two whole numbers is 24. The smallest possible sum of these numbers is ?

A
10
B
12
C
9
D
9

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Elementary Mathematics

Question 51Single Answer

The remainder obtained when 496 is divided by 6 is ?

Question 52Single Answer

Which of the following numbers is divisible by both 4 and 9 ?

A
2368
B
2736
C
3954
D
3814

Question 53Single Answer

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

A
Sum of two prime numbers is always a prime number
B
1 is the smallest prime number
C
A composite number can be odd
D
There is no even prime number

Question 54Single Answer

The values of y for which the 4 - digit number 51 y³ is divisible by 9 is ?

A
2 or 3
B
0 or 9
C
0 or 3
D
3 or 9

Question 55Single Answer

The product of integers between − 7 and – 3 is ?

A
120
B
− 360
C
− 120
D
840

Question 56Single Answer

If the sum of five successive integers are S, then the value of largest integer in terms of S will be ?

Question 57Single Answer

The smallest value of y in the number 9y8071, so that it is divisible by 11 is ?

A
2
B
3
C
1
D
Zero

Question 58Single Answer

The additive inverse of S, where S = 1 − 2 + 3 – 4 + 5 – 6 + 7 − 8 + ........ + 49 – 50 is ?

A
− 25
B
1
C
Zero
D
25

Question 59Single Answer

If AB x BA = BCD, where A, B and C represent only one digit such that A ≠ B ≠ C. Then, value of A + B + C is ?

A
9
B
8
C
6
D
10

Question 60Single Answer

If sum of three consecutive multiples of 7 is 777, then least multiple will be ?

A
252
B
259
C
272
D
266

English Language Proficiency

Question 61Single Answer

I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express

A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the

Question 62Single Answer

Have the car stolen!

A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car

Question 63Single Answer

The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.

A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.

Question 64Single Answer

I had to stop all my work to complete this project.

A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me

Question 65Single Answer

They have published the names of all the successful candidates.

A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.

Question 66Single Answer

The online shopping site lowered the prices.

A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site

Question 67Single Answer

Who taught you to drive a truck ?

A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?

Question 68Single Answer

We shall invite Suresh.

A
Suresh would be invited by us
B
Suresh would have been invited by us
C
Suresh will be invited by us
D
Suresh will have been invited by us

Question 69Single Answer

Dark clouds have overcast the evening sky.

A
By the dark clouds the evening sky was overcast.
B
The evening sky has been overcast by the dark clouds.
C
Dark clouds overcastted the evening sky.
D
The sky of the evening was overcasted by dark clouds.

Question 70Single Answer

The partners will celebrate their triumph tomorrow.

A
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day before
B
The triumph would be celebrated by the partners a day after
C
The triumph would have been celebrated by the partners a day after
D
The triumph will have been celebrated by the partners tomorrow

Question 71Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.

A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold

Question 72Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.

Assets

A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits

Question 73Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Affidavit

A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony

Question 74Single Answer

Passage :

Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Hollow

A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid

Question 75Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Cosset

A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle

Question 76Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Ogle

A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk

Question 77Single Answer

Passage :

Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Intrinsic

A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired

Question 78Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Coalesce

A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate

Question 79Single Answer

Passage :

Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it

Loiter

A
lag
B
Hasten
C
Amble
D
Loii

Question 80Single Answer

Passage :

Direction : Question below has two blanks, blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

The protests were......... at ......... awareness among the elite and the educated.

A
held, generating
B
aimed, creating
C
targeted, awakening
D
focused, building
E
concentrated, producing

Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs)

Question 81Single Answer

A prior art document published on 5 January 2022 discloses compound X for treating hypertension. The applicant claims compound X for treating diabetes with in-vivo data. This is anticipated under Section 13 because:

A
Different therapeutic use constitutes novelty
B
Same compound, different medical use is still anticipated
C
Only if same use is anticipation
D
Medical use claims are always novel

Question 82Single Answer

In Bishwanath Prasad Radhey Shyam v. Hindustan Metal Industries (1979), the Supreme Court held that inventive step consists of:

A
Only technical advance
B
Technical advance OR economic significance OR both + non-obviousness
C
Only economic significance
D
Mere workshop improvement

Question 83Single Answer

A claim directed to “use of aspirin for reducing risk of second heart attack” (where aspirin is known for pain relief) is now patentable in India as:

A
Method of treatment – not patentable
B
Only if new formulation
C
Product claim for second medical use
D
Swiss-type claim – allowed post-2005 amendment allowed

Question 84Single Answer

The Supreme Court in Novartis v. Union of India (2013) interpreted “enhanced efficacy” in Section 3(d) to mean:

A
Only thermodynamic stability
B
Mere increase in solubility
C
Any improvement in bioavailability
D
Therapeutic efficacy in case of medicines

Question 85Single Answer

A composition claim contains known ingredients A, B, C in ratio 1:2:3 showing 300% synergistic activity. It is still hit by Section 3(e) unless synergy is:

A
Expected
B
Only quantitative
C
Unexpected and surprising to the skilled person
D
Obvious

Question 86Single Answer

The application is deemed abandoned under Section 9(1) because:

A
Complete specification not filed within 12 months
B
No request for examination
C
No foreign filing licence
D
Fees not paid

Question 87Single Answer

Publication of patent application under Section 11A occurs:

A
Immediately on filing
B
After grant
C
18 months from priority date
D
Only on request

Question 88Single Answer

Request for Early Publication under Section 11A(2) can be made:

A
Only within 12 months
B
Any time before 18 months
C
After examination
D
Not permitted

Question 89Single Answer

First Examination Report (FER) must be responded within:

A
4 months
B
12 months from priority
C
6 months from date of FER
D
9 months

Question 90Single Answer

Pre-grant opposition under Section 25(1) can be filed by:

A
Only Indian citizen
B
Only interested person
C
Any person
D
Only after publication

Question 91Single Answer

Post-grant opposition under Section 25(2) must be filed within:

A
6 months from grant
B
Any time before expiry
C
2 years
D
1 year from grant

Question 92Single Answer

In Dr. Snehlata Gupte v. Union of India (2015), the Bombay High Court held that pre-grant opposition:

A
Can be filed even after grant
B
Must be decided before grant
C
Is a continuation of examination
D
Only by interested person

Question 93Single Answer

The period for placing an application in order for grant after final reply to FER is:

A
12 months under Rule 24B(6)
B
6 months
C
3 months
D
No time limit

Question 94Single Answer

An application for compulsory licence under Section 84 can be filed only after:

A
1 year from grant
B
2 years from grant
C
3 years from grant
D
Immediately

Question 95Single Answer

The only compulsory licence ever granted in India (Nexavar case, 2012) was based on which primary ground?

A
Public non-availability
B
High price
C
Non-working in India (Section 84(1)(c))
D
All

Question 96Single Answer

The Intellectual Property Appellate Board in Bayer v. Natco (2013) held that “working” under Section 83(c) primarily means:

A
Manufacture in India to the fullest extent reasonably possible
B
Importation is sufficient
C
Export is working
D
Only R&D is working

Question 97Single Answer

Revocation petition under Section 64(1)(m) for non-working can be filed in:

A
High Court only
B
IPAB (now High Court)
C
Controller
D
Both

Question 98Single Answer

The maximum royalty rate fixed in the Natco–Bayer compulsory licence was:

A
15%
B
7%
C
10%
D
6% of net sales

Question 99Single Answer

Under Section 48(b), for a process patent, the patentee can prevent third parties from using the process and from using, offering for sale, selling or importing the product obtained directly by that process in India. “Directly” means:

A
Immediate product without further processing
B
Any downstream product
C
Only first product
D
Product after purification

Question 100Single Answer

The Delhi High Court in Roche v. Cipla (2015) upheld the principle of:

A
No exhaustion
B
National exhaustion
C
International exhaustion under Section 107A
D
Regional exhaustion

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Latest UPSC CGPDTM Examiner Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

General Knowledge & Current Affairs

General Aptitude

Elementary Mathematics

UPSC CGPDTM Examiner Exam Online Question Bank Package

Elementary Mathematics

English Language Proficiency

Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs)

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