Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 11Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 12Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 13Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 14Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 15Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 16Single Answer
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Question 17Single Answer
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee
Question 18Single Answer
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000
Question 19Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4
Question 20Single Answer
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A
metastable state to any lower state
B
any higher state of lower state
C
metastable state to ground state
D
any higher state to ground state
Question 21Single Answer
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A
uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B
zero only along the axis of the pipe
C
zero at any point inside the pipe
D
maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Question 22Single Answer
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A
0.45 m
B
0.15 m
C
0.30 m
D
0.6 m
Question 23Single Answer
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A
having a constant phase difference
B
of equal wavelength
C
of equal speed
D
having same shape of wavefront
Question 24Single Answer
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A
between 7 and 8
B
between 5 and 6
C
between 6 and 7
D
between 10 and 11
Question 25Single Answer
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A
1.93 A
B
9.65 A
C
19.3 A
D
0.965 A
Question 26Single Answer
The one which decreases with dilution is
A
molar conductance
B
conductance
C
specific conductance
D
equivalent conductance
Question 27Single Answer
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A
the nature of enzymes involved
B
the nature of the substrate
C
the amount of carbon dioxide released
D
the amount of oxygen utilised
Question 28Single Answer
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A
Water vapour
B
Carbon monoxide
C
Methane
D
Oxygen
Question 29Single Answer
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A
50%
B
75%
C
0%
D
25%
Question 30Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 31Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 32Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 33Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 34Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 35Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 36Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 37Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 38Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 39Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 40Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 41Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 42Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 43Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 44Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 45Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 46Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 47Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 48Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 49Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 50Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A
51:52
B
52:53
C
51:53
D
52:55
Important Questions Package
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General Ability & Intelligence
Question 51Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A
√49
B
0.125
C
√2
D
22/7
Question 52Single Answer
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A
35600
B
34500
C
9630
D
93600
Question 53Single Answer
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A
3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B
7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C
3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D
5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Question 54Single Answer
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A
36
B
38
C
310
D
96
Question 55Single Answer
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A
4
B
3
C
2
D
5
Question 56Single Answer
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A
3/5
B
2/3
C
4/5
Question 57Single Answer
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A
169
B
36
C
196
D
Can not say
Question 58Single Answer
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A
16
B
25
C
28
D
30
Question 59Single Answer
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A
93
B
103
C
60.5
D
121
Question 60Single Answer
"Who said, 'India was a parrot unto itself'?
A
Malik Muhammad Joyce
B
Raskhan
C
Rich Khusrow
D
Rich Hasan
Question 61Single Answer
What was the real name of Amir Khusro?
A
Muhammad Hasan
B
Muhammad Hussain
C
Muhammad Khusrow
D
Muhammad Mine
Question 62Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
A
1946
B
1947
C
1948
D
1950
Question 63Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A
Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
C
Jawaharlal Nehru
D
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Question 64Single Answer
Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Renaissance" ?
A
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B
Swami Vivekananda
C
Rabindranath Tagore
D
Mahatma Gandhi
Question 65Single Answer
Which classical dance form is associated with Tamil Nadu ?
A
Kathak
B
Kuchipudi
C
Bharatanatyam
D
Odissi
Question 66Single Answer
Who became the longest-serving continuous Finance Minister of India and presented her ninth straight Union Budget on February 1, 2026?
A
Nirmala Sitharaman
B
Arun Jaitley
C
Pranab Mukherjee
D
P. Chidambaram
Question 67Single Answer
How many Ramsar sites does India now have after adding two new ones (in Uttar Pradesh and Gujarat) in early February 2026?
A
98
B
97
C
96
D
100
Question 68Single Answer
In which rank did India stand in the Global Soft Power Index 2026, as reported around February 2026?
A
25th
B
32nd
C
28th
D
35th
Question 69Single Answer
What did the Supreme Court of India declare as a fundamental right in schools around February 2026?
A
Free education up to class 12
B
Sports infrastructure
C
Digital literacy programs
D
Menstrual health facilities
Question 70Single Answer
Which organization plans to launch India's first-ever National Household Income Survey (NHIS) and Annual Survey of Incorporated Service Sector Enterprises (ASISSE) starting April 2026?
A
RBI
B
SEBI
C
NITI Aayog
D
NSO (National Statistical Office)
Question 71Single Answer
Where was India's first-ever LNG-diesel dual-fuel DEMU train launched in early 2026?
A
Delhi
B
Mumbai
C
Ahmedabad
D
Chennai
Question 72Single Answer
Which country's first indigenous submarine was highlighted in news around February 2026?
A
India
B
Taiwan
C
South Korea
D
Japan
Question 73Single Answer
What rare natural phenomenon was observed in Ladakh around early February 2026?
A
Solar eclipse
B
Volcanic eruption
C
Meteor shower
D
Red aurora
Question 74Single Answer
Who became Maharashtra's first woman Deputy Chief Minister around February 2026?
A
Supriya Sule
B
Oormila Matondkar
C
Pankaja Munde
D
Sunetra Pawar
Question 75Single Answer
Which city hosted the 6th National Crop Nutrition Summit on February 5-6, 2026?
A
Delhi
B
Mumbai
C
Hyderabad
D
Bengaluru
Professional Skill
Question 76Single Answer
What is the primary goal of industrial security?
A
To facilitate smooth production processes.
B
To ensure the safety of workers.
C
To protect assets, personnel, and information from threats.
D
To comply with environmental regulations.
Question 77Single Answer
A systematic process to identify potential security risks and their impact is known as:
A
Security audit.
B
Threat assessment.
C
Vulnerability analysis.
D
Risk management.
Question 78Single Answer
Which of the following is a common physical security measure in an industrial facility?
A
Data encryption.
B
Access control systems.
C
Intrusion detection software.
D
Security awareness training.
Question 79Single Answer
Perimeter security primarily aims to:
A
Control access to specific departments.
B
Detect and deter unauthorized entry to the facility.
C
Monitor employee movement within the plant.
D
Safeguard sensitive information.
Question 80Single Answer
What is the purpose of a security audit in an industrial setting?
A
To train security personnel.
B
To test emergency response procedures.
C
To evaluate the effectiveness of existing security measures.
D
To update safety regulations.
Question 81Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of an internal threat to industrial security?
A
Sabotage by an external group.
B
Theft of company assets by an employee.
C
Cyber attack originating from outside the organization.
D
Espionage by a foreign entity.
Question 82Single Answer
What does the acronym CCTV stand for in the context of industrial security?
A
Centralized Circuit Television.
B
Closed-Circuit Television.
C
Computerized Control and Tracking Vision.
D
Comprehensive Camera Telemetry System.
Question 83Single Answer
The principle of "defense in depth" in security refers to:
A
Relying on a single, strong security measure.
B
Implementing multiple layers of security controls.
C
Keeping security measures secret to maximize effectiveness.
D
Focusing security efforts on the most valuable assets only.
Question 84Single Answer
Background checks are primarily conducted for personnel to:
A
Assess their technical skills.
B
Evaluate their physical fitness.
C
Verify their past conduct and reliability.
D
Determine their salary expectations.
Question 85Single Answer
What is the role of security liaison with local law enforcement agencies?
A
To handle minor internal security breaches.
B
To provide security training to employees.
C
To coordinate responses to major security incidents and threats.
D
To manage the facility's access control system.
Question 86Single Answer
The primary aim of industrial safety regulations is to:
A
Increase production efficiency.
B
Minimize the risk of accidents and injuries to personnel.
C
Reduce operational costs.
D
Ensure compliance with labor laws.
Question 87Single Answer
What is a Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment (HIRA)?
A
A method to calculate insurance premiums.
B
A process to identify potential hazards and evaluate associated risks.
C
A technique for emergency evacuation planning.
D
A tool for investigating past accidents.
Question 88Single Answer
Which of the following is a common cause of industrial fires?
A
Proper grounding of electrical equipment.
B
Regular maintenance of machinery.
C
Improper storage of flammable materials.
D
Use of approved safety equipment.
Question 89Single Answer
What does the acronym PPE stand for in industrial safety?
A
Plant Protective Equipment.
B
Personal Protective Equipment.
C
Process Performance Evaluation.
D
Pollution Prevention Equipment.
Question 90Single Answer
Which of the following is an example of PPE commonly used in industrial settings?
A
Office stationery.
B
Computer keyboards.
C
Safety helmets and gloves.
D
Standard work uniforms.
Question 91Single Answer
What is the significance of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)?
A
They provide information on employee contact details.
B
They detail the safety and handling procedures for chemical substances.
C
They outline the company's production targets.
D
They describe the layout of the industrial facility.
Question 92Single Answer
The "fire triangle" consists of which three elements?
Which class of fire involves flammable liquids such as oil and petrol?
A
Class A
B
Class B
C
Class C
D
Class D
Question 94Single Answer
Which type of fire extinguisher is generally most effective for Class A fires (ordinary combustibles)?
A
Carbon dioxide extinguisher.
B
Dry chemical extinguisher.
C
Water extinguisher.
D
Foam extinguisher.
Question 95Single Answer
What type of fire extinguisher is suitable for Class C fires (electrical fires)?
A
Water extinguisher.
B
Foam extinguisher.
C
Carbon dioxide extinguisher.
D
Halon extinguisher (if permitte)
Question 96Single Answer
What is the purpose of a fire drill in an industrial facility?
A
To test the fire alarm system.
B
To train employees on emergency evacuation procedures.
C
To inspect fire extinguishers.
D
To update the fire safety plan.
Question 97Single Answer
What is the role of a fire warden in an industrial emergency?
A
To operate firefighting equipment.
B
To direct and assist with the safe evacuation of personnel.
C
To investigate the cause of the fire.
D
To communicate with external emergency services.
Question 98Single Answer
What is the importance of regular inspection and maintenance of firefighting equipment?
A
To improve the aesthetic appearance of the equipment.
B
To ensure the equipment is functional and ready for use in an emergency.
C
To comply with insurance requirements.
D
To provide training opportunities for fire personnel.
Question 99Single Answer
What is the significance of "means of escape" in fire safety planning?
A
The location of fire extinguishers.
B
Clearly marked and unobstructed routes for evacuation.
C
The assembly point after evacuation.
D
The procedure for reporting a fire.
Question 100Single Answer
What is the role of a safety officer in an industrial organization?
A
To manage production targets.
B
To oversee financial operations.
C
To develop, implement, and monitor safety policies and procedures.
D
To handle employee grievances.
Question 101Single Answer
Integrating security measures with safety protocols helps to:
A
Increase the workload of security and safety personnel.
B
Create a more comprehensive and effective protective environment.
C
Reduce the budget allocated for security and safety.
D
Complicate emergency response procedures.
Question 102Single Answer
Security personnel often play a role in safety by:
A
Operating heavy machinery.
B
Conducting safety inspections.
C
Controlling access to hazardous areas.
D
Providing first aid.
Question 103Single Answer
Emergency response plans should address:
A
Only security threats.
B
Only fire-related emergencies.
C
A wide range of potential incidents, including security breaches and safety accidents.
D
Only minor incidents that can be handled internally.
Question 104Single Answer
The principle of "see, hear, smell, feel" is important for:
A
Operating security surveillance equipment.
B
Early detection of potential hazards or security breaches.
C
Using firefighting equipment effectively.
D
Conducting safety audits.
Question 105Single Answer
What is the importance of communication during a security or safety emergency?
A
To delay the response to allow for internal assessment.
B
To provide timely and accurate information for effective response and coordination.
C
To assign blame for the incident.
D
To restrict information flow to avoid panic.
Question 106Single Answer
Under Section 35 of the BNSS, a police officer can arrest a person without a warrant if:
A
The person has a bad reputation.
B
The officer has a reasonable suspicion that the person has committed a cognizable offense.
C
The person refuses to provide their name and address.
D
The person is merely suspected of a non-cognizable offense.
Question 107Single Answer
According to Section 39 of the BNSS, the person arrested shall:
A
Be immediately released without any conditions.
B
Not be informed of the grounds of arrest.
C
Be informed of the grounds of arrest and the right to bail if the offense is bailable.
D
Be detained indefinitely for questioning.
Question 108Single Answer
As per Section 41 of the BNSS, every police officer making an arrest without a warrant shall forthwith:
A
Inform their senior officer only.
B
Communicate to the arrested person's relative or friend about the arrest and place of detention.
C
Release the arrested person after initial questioning.
D
Produce the arrested person before the nearest magistrate within 72 hours.
Question 109Single Answer
Section 43 of the BNSS deals with the arrest of a person who has committed a non-cognizable offense. In such cases, an arrest can generally be made:
A
Without a warrant, if the officer has a reasonable suspicion.
B
Only with a warrant issued by a magistrate.
C
If the person voluntarily surrenders.
D
If the offense is punishable with imprisonment for more than three years.
Question 110Single Answer
Under Section 46 of the BNSS, when a police officer requires a woman to be searched, the search shall be made by:
A
Any male police officer.
B
Another woman police officer or a woman authorized for this purpose.
C
Any respectable person in the locality.
D
The investigating officer, irrespective of gender.
Question 111Single Answer
Section 50 of the BNSS mandates that the arrested person shall be produced before the nearest Judicial Magistrate:
A
Within 48 hours of the arrest.
B
Without unnecessary delay, and in no case exceeding 24 hours excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the Magistrate's Court.
C
Within 72 hours of the arrest.
D
At the convenience of the investigating officer.
Question 112Single Answer
According to Section 53 of the BNSS, a police officer has the power to take the measurements and photographs of an arrested person:
A
Only if the person consents.
B
If the person is arrested in connection with a cognizable offense.
C
If ordered by a magistrate.
D
In all cases of arrest.
Question 113Single Answer
Section 57 of the BNSS provides for medical examination of the arrested person:
A
Only if the arrested person requests it.
B
Whenever the arrested person is produced before a magistrate.
C
If the police officer has reason to believe that the medical examination will afford evidence as to the commission of any offense by the arrested person or if such examination is necessary for the reasons mentioned therein.
D
Only if the arrested person is injured during arrest.
Question 114Single Answer
Under Section 59 of the BNSS, no person who is arrested shall be detained in custody beyond a period of:
A
24 hours without being produced before a magistrate.
B
48 hours without being produced before a magistrate.
C
15 days in police custody in total.
D
Such period as the police officer deems necessary for investigation.
Question 115Single Answer
Section 60 of the BNSS deals with the procedure when police officer deputes subordinate to make arrest without warrant. The subordinate officer:
A
Can arrest anyone they deem suspicious.
B
Must have a written order specifying the person to be arrested and the offense.
C
Can use their discretion regarding whom to arrest.
D
Only needs a verbal instruction from the senior officer.
Question 116Single Answer
According to Section 96 of the BNSS, a search warrant can be issued by:
A
Any police officer.
B
Only a police officer not below the rank of Superintendent of Police.
C
Only a Magistrate.
D
Any gazetted officer.
Question 117Single Answer
Under Section 97 of the BNSS, a Magistrate can issue a search warrant for a place suspected to contain:
A
Stolen property only.
B
Any property with respect to which an offense has been committed, or which is intended to be used for the commission of an offense.
C
Any property that the police officer wants to inspect.
D
Any property belonging to a suspect.
Question 118Single Answer
Section 100 of the BNSS mandates that the officer conducting a search shall:
A
Allow only police officers to be present during the search.
B
Call upon two or more independent and respectable inhabitants of the locality to attend and witness the search.
C
Not prepare a list of things seized during the search.
D
Detain all persons found in the place being searched.
Question 119Single Answer
As per Section 102 of the BNSS, any police officer may, without a warrant, enter any place for the purpose of conducting a search if:
A
They have a general suspicion.
B
They have reason to believe that any delay occasioned by obtaining a search warrant may result in the secreting of evidence.
C
They have the permission of the owner of the place.
D
The offense is non-cognizable.
Question 120Single Answer
Section 103 of the BNSS deals with the power to seize certain property. A police officer seizing property under this section:
A
Can keep the property indefinitely.
B
Shall give a receipt specifying the things seized to the person from whom the property was seized.
C
Is not required to make a list of the property seized.
D
Can dispose of the property immediately if they deem it necessary.
Question 121Single Answer
Under Section 105 of the BNSS, a Magistrate may issue a search warrant to search for persons wrongfully confined:
A
Only if the confinement is for more than 24 hours.
B
If there is reason to believe that any person is confined under such circumstances that the confinement amounts to an offense.
C
Only if the confined person is a minor.
D
Only if the confinement is for ransom.
Question 122Single Answer
Section 107 of the BNSS provides for the search of a place outside the jurisdiction of the issuing Magistrate. In such cases:
A
The warrant is invalid.
B
The warrant can be endorsed by a Magistrate within whose local jurisdiction such place is situated.
C
The police officer must obtain a fresh warrant.
D
The search can be conducted without any endorsement.
Question 123Single Answer
According to Section 109 of the BNSS, the provisions relating to search warrants shall, so far as may be, apply to:
A
General diaries maintained at police stations.
B
Summons to produce documents.
C
Search otherwise than under a warrant.
D
Routine police patrolling.
Question 124Single Answer
Section 110 of the BNSS grants certain powers to officers in charge of police stations regarding search:
A
To search any place within their jurisdiction without a warrant at their discretion.
B
To require an officer in charge of another police station to cause a search to be made in that officer’s jurisdiction.
C
To issue search warrants.
D
To conduct searches only in the presence of a Magistrate.
Question 125Single Answer
According to Section 148 of the BNSS, an assembly of five or more persons is designated an "unlawful assembly" if the common object of the persons composing that assembly is:
A
To engage in peaceful protest.
B
To commit any offense.
C
To discuss matters of public interest.
D
To celebrate a festival.
Question 126Single Answer
What is the primary goal of computer security?
A
To make computers faster.
B
To protect computer systems and data from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction.
C
To improve software functionality.
D
To enhance user interface.
Question 127Single Answer
What is unauthorized access to a computer system called?
A
Data mining
B
Hacking
C
Phishing
D
Social engineering
Question 128Single Answer
A program that can replicate itself and spread to other computers is known as a:
A
Firewall
B
Antivirus
C
Virus
D
Spyware
Question 129Single Answer
Malicious software designed to infiltrate and damage a computer system without the user's knowledge or consent is called:
A
Freeware
B
Shareware
C
Malware
D
Firmware
Question 130Single Answer
A self-replicating malware that doesn't need a host program to spread is called a:
A
Virus
B
Worm
C
Spyware
D
Adware
Question 131Single Answer
A type of malware disguised as legitimate software is a:
A
Virus
B
Worm
C
Trojan horse
D
Ransomware
Question 132Single Answer
Malware that encrypts a victim's files and demands a ransom to restore them is known as:
A
Spyware
B
Adware
C
Ransomware
D
Keylogger
Question 133Single Answer
Software that secretly monitors and collects user information is called:
A
Antivirus
B
Firewall
C
Spyware
D
Utility software
Question 134Single Answer
A technique used to trick users into revealing sensitive information, often through deceptive emails or websites, is called:
A
Hacking
B
Phishing
C
Denial of Service
D
Data mining
Question 135Single Answer
What is a data breach?
A
A sudden increase in internet traffic.
B
A security incident in which sensitive, protected, or confidential data is copied, transmitted, viewed, stolen, or used by an individual unauthorized to do so.
C
A computer system malfunction.
D
An update to software.
Question 136Single Answer
Which cybersecurity principle focuses on granting only the necessary level of access to perform specific tasks?
A
Defense in depth
B
Least privilege
C
Confidentiality
D
Integrity
Question 137Single Answer
The principle of having multiple layers of security controls to protect a system is known as:
A
Least privilege
B
Separation of duties
C
Defense in depth
D
Availability
Question 138Single Answer
Ensuring that data is accurate and complete, and that unauthorized modifications are prevented, relates to the cybersecurity principle of:
A
Confidentiality
B
Integrity
C
Availability
D
Non-repudiation
Question 139Single Answer
Protecting information from unauthorized disclosure is the goal of:
A
Integrity
B
Availability
C
Confidentiality
D
Authentication
Question 140Single Answer
Making sure that authorized users have timely and reliable access to data and resources relates to:
A
Confidentiality
B
Integrity
C
Availability
D
Authorization
Question 141Single Answer
The Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 are applicable to:
A
All employees of the Central Government.
B
All members of the Armed Forces.
C
All employees of Public Sector Undertakings.
D
All employees of State Governments.
Question 142Single Answer
Under the CCS (CCA) Rules, Central Government servants are classified into how many groups?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Four
D
Five
Question 143Single Answer
The classification of Central Government servants under CCS (CCA) Rules is based on:
A
Their pay scale only.
B
The nature of their duties only.
C
Their pay scale and the nature of their duties.
D
Their seniority in service.
Question 144Single Answer
Rule 3 of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964 emphasizes on:
A
Promptness and courtesy.
B
Maintenance of discipline.
C
Integrity, devotion to duty, and acting in public interest.
D
Observance of rules regarding attendance.
Question 145Single Answer
Under the CCS (CCA) Rules, which of the following is not a prescribed penalty?
A
Censure
B
Fine
C
Reduction in rank
D
Dismissal
Question 146Single Answer
A minor penalty under the CCS (CCA) Rules includes:
A
Reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale of pay for a specified period.
B
Withholding of increments of pay.
C
Reduction in rank to a lower post.
D
Compulsory retirement.
Question 147Single Answer
A major penalty under the CCS (CCA) Rules includes:
A
Censure.
B
Withholding of promotion.
C
Reduction to a lower stage in the time-scale of pay for a specified period with further directions regarding the postponement of future increments.
D
Suspension.
Question 148Single Answer
Rule 14 of the CCS (CCA) Rules deals with the procedure for:
A
Imposing minor penalties.
B
Imposing major penalties.
C
Suspension of a government servant.
D
Appeals against penalties.
Question 149Single Answer
Before imposing a major penalty, a government servant is entitled to:
A
Only a verbal warning.
B
A charge sheet and an opportunity to defend himself.
C
An immediate dismissal order.
D
A transfer to another department.
Question 150Single Answer
The Disciplinary Authority for Group 'C' employees in CISF is usually: