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Latest UPSC Vice Principal Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Knowledge and Office Procedure, Hindi and English language skills, Reasoning ability and Quantitative Aptitude, Educational policies & Educational measurement and evaluation, Management and Financial administration, Pedagogy in Education, Digital Literacy

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General Knowledge and Office Procedure

Question 1Single Answer
Which provision of the Regulating Act of 1773 marked an important step toward centralizing British administration in India?
  1. A
    Establishment of a Board of Control
  2. B
    Designation of the Governor of Bengal as Governor-General of Bengal
  3. C
    Introduction of provincial autonomy
  4. D
    Creation of a federal court
Question 2Single Answer
Under the Regulating Act of 1773, the first Governor-General of Bengal was?
  1. A
    Robert Clive
  2. B
    Lord Cornwallis
  3. C
    Warren Hastings
  4. D
    William Bentinck
Question 3Single Answer
Pitt's India Act of 1784 distinguished primarily between which two functions of the East India Company?
  1. A
    Judicial and executive
  2. B
    Commercial and political
  3. C
    Provincial and federal
  4. D
    Military and judicial
Question 4Single Answer
Which Charter Act made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India?
  1. A
    Charter Act 1793
  2. B
    Charter Act 1813
  3. C
    Charter Act 1853
  4. D
    Charter Act 1833
Question 5Single Answer
Who became the first Governor-General of India under the Charter Act of 1833?
  1. A
    Lord Canning
  2. B
    Lord William Bentinck
  3. C
    Lord Dalhousie
  4. D
    Lord Auckland
Question 6Single Answer
Which Charter Act introduced a system of open competition as the basis for recruitment to the civil services, although the competitive system was implemented subsequently?
  1. A
    Charter Act 1793
  2. B
    Charter Act 1853
  3. C
    Charter Act 1833
  4. D
    Charter Act 1813
Question 7Single Answer
Which Act transferred the government of India from the East India Company to the British Crown?
  1. A
    Government of India Act 1919
  2. B
    Indian Councils Act 1861
  3. C
    Indian Councils Act 1892
  4. D
    Government of India Act 1858
Question 8Single Answer
The portfolio system received statutory recognition under which legislation?
  1. A
    Government of India Act 1919
  2. B
    Indian Councils Act 1892
  3. C
    Government of India Act 1909
  4. D
    Indian Councils Act 1861
Question 9Single Answer
Separate electorates for Muslims were introduced by which constitutional reform?
  1. A
    Indian Councils Act 1892
  2. B
    Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
  3. C
    Morley-Minto Reforms
  4. D
    Government of India Act 1935
Question 10Single Answer
Dyarchy in the provinces was introduced by which Act?
  1. A
    Government of India Act 1919
  2. B
    Government of India Act 1909
  3. C
    Government of India Act 1935
  4. D
    Indian Independence Act 1947
Question 11Single Answer
Provincial autonomy was introduced by which legislation?
  1. A
    Government of India Act 1909
  2. B
    Government of India Act 1919
  3. C
    Indian Independence Act 1947
  4. D
    Government of India Act 1935
Question 12Single Answer
Which feature proposed by the Government of India Act 1935 never became operational?
  1. A
    All-India Federation
  2. B
    Federal Court
  3. C
    Provincial autonomy
  4. D
    Bicameralism in certain provinces
Question 13Single Answer
The Indian Independence Act 1947 provided for the creation of?
  1. A
    A single federal dominion
  2. B
    A confederation of princely states
  3. C
    Three autonomous federations
  4. D
    Two independent dominions
Question 14Single Answer
The Constituent Assembly of India was constituted broadly according to the scheme proposed by?
  1. A
    Cripps Mission
  2. B
    Cabinet Mission
  3. C
    Simon Commission
  4. D
    Mountbatten Plan
Question 15Single Answer
Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
  1. A
    B. N. Rau
  2. B
    Rajendra Prasad
  3. C
    B. R. Ambedkar
  4. D
    Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Question 16Single Answer
Who served as the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly?
  1. A
    K. M. Munshi
  2. B
    N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar
  3. C
    B. N. Rau
  4. D
    H. C. Mookherjee
Question 17Single Answer
The Objectives Resolution in the Constituent Assembly was moved by?
  1. A
    Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. B
    Sardar Patel
  3. C
    B. R. Ambedkar
  4. D
    Rajendra Prasad
Question 18Single Answer
The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on?
  1. A
    15 August 1947
  2. B
    26 November 1949
  3. C
    24 January 1950
  4. D
    26 January 1950
Question 19Single Answer
Which constitutional feature was substantially influenced by the British constitutional system?
  1. A
    Fundamental Rights
  2. B
    Concurrent List
  3. C
    Directive Principles
  4. D
    Parliamentary government
Question 20Single Answer
The Directive Principles of State Policy were inspired primarily by the Constitution of?
  1. A
    Ireland
  2. B
    Canada
  3. C
    Australia
  4. D
    France

Hindi and English language skills

Question 21Single Answer
Read the passage and answer the question: “Online education has expanded access to learning by allowing students to participate regardless of geographical location. Yet access alone does not guarantee meaningful learning. Stable connectivity, appropriate devices, learner motivation, accessible content, teacher preparedness, and opportunities for interaction influence educational outcomes. Therefore, institutions that merely transfer classroom lectures to digital platforms may fail to exploit the distinctive possibilities of online learning.” What is the central idea of the passage?
  1. A
    Effective online education requires more than merely providing digital access
  2. B
    Geographical location is the only barrier to education
  3. C
    Online education should completely replace classroom teaching
  4. D
    Recorded classroom lectures guarantee meaningful learning
Question 22Single Answer
Which factor is NOT mentioned in the passage as influencing online educational outcomes?
  1. A
    Learner motivation
  2. B
    Teacher preparedness
  3. C
    Stable connectivity
  4. D
    School building architecture
Question 23Single Answer
What can reasonably be inferred from the passage?
  1. A
    Teacher involvement becomes unnecessary online
  2. B
    Online learning is necessarily inferior to classroom learning
  3. C
    Technology by itself cannot ensure effective learning
  4. D
    Every learner has equal digital access
Question 24Single Answer
The expression “access alone does not guarantee meaningful learning” implies that?
  1. A
    Access to technology is irrelevant
  2. B
    Meaningful learning occurs only in physical classrooms
  3. C
    Availability of digital education must be accompanied by other enabling conditions
  4. D
    Connectivity automatically reduces learning
Question 25Single Answer
The word “distinctive” in the passage is closest in meaning to?
  1. A
    Ordinary
  2. B
    Defective
  3. C
    Unique
  4. D
    Temporary
Question 26Single Answer
Which institutional practice is implicitly criticized in the passage?
  1. A
    Simply reproducing conventional lectures on digital platforms
  2. B
    Preparing teachers for digital instruction
  3. C
    Providing opportunities for interaction
  4. D
    Designing accessible learning materials
Question 27Single Answer
Which title best suits the passage?
  1. A
    Geography and School Buildings
  2. B
    The End of Classroom Education
  3. C
    Why Technology Always Improves Learning
  4. D
    Beyond Access: Making Online Education Effective
Question 28Single Answer
The tone of the passage is best described as?
  1. A
    Uncritically enthusiastic
  2. B
    Completely pessimistic
  3. C
    Humorous and sarcastic
  4. D
    Analytical and balanced
Question 29Single Answer
According to the passage, geographical barriers are reduced primarily because online education?
  1. A
    removes the need for teachers
  2. B
    eliminates assessment
  3. C
    guarantees free devices
  4. D
    permits participation irrespective of location
Question 30Single Answer
Which statement is most consistent with the author's argument?
  1. A
    Every classroom lecture should be uploaded unchanged
  2. B
    Digital pedagogy should exploit capabilities specific to online environments
  3. C
    Learner interaction is unnecessary in digital education
  4. D
    Connectivity has no influence on learning
Question 31Single Answer
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर प्रश्न का उत्तर दीजिए—“चाणक्य के राजनीतिक चिंतन में राज्य की शक्ति केवल सेना अथवा कोष पर निर्भर नहीं थी। वे सुशासन, योग्य मंत्रियों, सुव्यवस्थित प्रशासन और प्रजा के हित को भी राज्य की स्थिरता का आधार मानते थे। उनके अनुसार शासक का व्यक्तिगत सुख प्रजा के कल्याण से अलग नहीं हो सकता।” इस गद्यांश का केंद्रीय भाव क्या है?
  1. A
    प्रजा-कल्याण और सुशासन राज्य की स्थिरता के प्रमुख आधार हैं
  2. B
    राज्य की शक्ति केवल विशाल सेना से निर्धारित होती है
  3. C
    मंत्रियों को शासक से अधिक शक्तिशाली होना चाहिए
  4. D
    आर्थिक समृद्धि का प्रशासन से कोई संबंध नहीं है
Question 32Single Answer
उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के अनुसार चाणक्य की राज्य-दृष्टि को किस रूप में समझना सर्वाधिक उचित है?
  1. A
    बहुआयामी और लोककल्याणपरक
  2. B
    केवल अर्थप्रधान
  3. C
    केवल सैन्यवादी
  4. D
    पूर्णतः धर्मविहीन
Question 33Single Answer
उपर्युक्त गद्यांश में “स्थिरता” का निकटतम अर्थ क्या है?
  1. A
    पराधीनता
  2. B
    चंचलता
  3. C
    दृढ़ता
  4. D
    निष्क्रियता
Question 34Single Answer
उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के अनुसार कौन-सा कथन असंगत है?
  1. A
    योग्य मंत्री राज्य के लिए महत्त्वपूर्ण हैं
  2. B
    प्रशासन राज्य की स्थिरता से जुड़ा है
  3. C
    प्रजा का हित शासन का महत्त्वपूर्ण पक्ष है
  4. D
    शासक का सुख प्रजा के कल्याण से सर्वथा पृथक है
Question 35Single Answer
उपर्युक्त गद्यांश के लिए सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त शीर्षक क्या होगा?
  1. A
    प्राचीन भारतीय सेना
  2. B
    राजकोष की समस्याएँ
  3. C
    चाणक्य की लोककल्याणकारी शासन-दृष्टि
  4. D
    मंत्रियों का व्यक्तिगत जीवन
Question 36Single Answer
निम्नलिखित गद्यांश को पढ़कर उत्तर दीजिए—“इतिहास का अध्ययन केवल तिथियों, युद्धों और राजवंशों का स्मरण नहीं है। वह सामाजिक परिवर्तन, आर्थिक संरचनाओं, सांस्कृतिक संपर्कों और संस्थागत विकास की प्रक्रिया को समझने का माध्यम है। ऐतिहासिक स्रोतों का आलोचनात्मक परीक्षण किए बिना अतीत की संतुलित व्याख्या संभव नहीं है।” लेखक के अनुसार इतिहास-अध्ययन का व्यापक उद्देश्य क्या है?
  1. A
    परिवर्तन की विविध प्रक्रियाओं को समझना
  2. B
    केवल राजाओं की उपलब्धियाँ जानना
  3. C
    केवल तिथियाँ याद करना
  4. D
    युद्धों की सूची तैयार करना
Question 37Single Answer
उपर्युक्त गद्यांश में “आलोचनात्मक परीक्षण” का आशय क्या है?
  1. A
    स्रोतों को बिना जाँच स्वीकार करना
  2. B
    केवल साहित्यिक स्रोतों को स्वीकार करना
  3. C
    प्रत्येक ऐतिहासिक स्रोत को असत्य मानना
  4. D
    स्रोतों की विश्वसनीयता और संदर्भ की विवेकपूर्ण जाँच करना
Question 38Single Answer
उपर्युक्त गद्यांश से कौन-सा निष्कर्ष निकलता है?
  1. A
    इतिहास केवल राजनीतिक घटनाओं तक सीमित है
  2. B
    ऐतिहासिक व्याख्या में स्रोतों की समीक्षा आवश्यक है
  3. C
    आर्थिक संरचना इतिहास का विषय नहीं है
  4. D
    सांस्कृतिक संपर्क का ऐतिहासिक परिवर्तन से संबंध नहीं है
Question 39Single Answer
“संस्थागत विकास” में “संस्थागत” शब्द का अर्थ क्या है?
  1. A
    अस्थायी
  2. B
    व्यक्तिगत
  3. C
    काल्पनिक
  4. D
    संस्थाओं से संबंधित
Question 40Single Answer
गद्यांश के लिए सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त शीर्षक क्या है?
  1. A
    राजवंशों की सूची
  2. B
    इतिहास-अध्ययन की व्यापकता
  3. C
    युद्ध और विजय
  4. D
    प्राचीन तिथियों का संकलन

Reasoning ability and Quantitative Aptitude

Question 41Single Answer
What is the remainder when (7^{103}) is divided by 10?
  1. A
    1
  2. B
    9
  3. C
    7
  4. D
    3
Question 42Single Answer
What is the greatest number that divides 187, 233 and 325 leaving the same remainder in each case?
  1. A
    46
  2. B
    23
  3. C
    12
  4. D
    18
Question 43Single Answer
If a number leaves remainder 5 when divided by 8, what remainder will three times the number leave when divided by 8?
  1. A
    3
  2. B
    7
  3. C
    5
  4. D
    1
Question 44Single Answer
How many factors does (2^4\times3^3\times5^2) have?
  1. A
    48
  2. B
    90
  3. C
    72
  4. D
    60
Question 45Single Answer
What is the smallest positive integer which when divided by 12, 18 and 24 leaves remainder 5 in each case?
  1. A
    67
  2. B
    72
  3. C
    149
  4. D
    77
Question 46Single Answer
What is the unit digit of (3^{2026})?
  1. A
    1
  2. B
    3
  3. C
    9
  4. D
    7
Question 47Single Answer
Which greatest power of 2 divides (100!)?
  1. A
    (2^{94})
  2. B
    (2^{97})
  3. C
    (2^{96})
  4. D
    (2^{99})
Question 48Single Answer
How many trailing zeros are there in (125!)?
  1. A
    28
  2. B
    30
  3. C
    32
  4. D
    31
Question 49Single Answer
What is the least number which must be added to 1756 to make it divisible by 23?
  1. A
    12
  2. B
    15
  3. C
    20
  4. D
    18
Question 50Single Answer
If (N=1+2+3+\cdots+100), by which largest power of 5 is N divisible?
  1. A
    (5^1)
  2. B
    (5^2)
  3. C
    (5^3)
  4. D
    (5^4)
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