One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
A
30 l
B
35 l
C
40 l
D
45 l
Question 2Single Answer
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
A
1 : 1 : 1
B
1 : 2 : 3
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
1 : 3 : 4
Question 3Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls.
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks?
A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 3 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 4 and 5
Question 4Single Answer
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
A
10
B
20
C
25
D
30
Question 5Single Answer
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
A
11.8
B
12.4
C
14.2
D
14.8
Question 6Single Answer
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4
Question 7Single Answer
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
1 and 3
C
2 and 3
D
3 and 4
Question 8Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 9Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 5 only
C
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Question 10Single Answer
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
A
165 l
B
205 l
C
245 l
D
285 l
Question 11Single Answer
Which IS code is used for classification of timber for seasoning purposes?
A
IS : 4970-1973
B
IS : 1708-1969
C
IS : 1141-1958
D
IS : 399-1963
Question 12Single Answer
Consider the following with regard to the application of preservation of timber:
1.Increase in the life span of the member
2.Increase in the strength of the timber
3.Removal of moisture
4.Prevention of growth of fungi by killing them
Which of the above are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 4 only
C
1 and 4 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 13Single Answer
The plies in plywood are so placed that the grains of each ply are
A
Parallel to each other
B
At right angle to one another
C
45° oblique to adjacent grain
D
Not constrained by any consideration
Question 14Single Answer
Which of the following is an ODD one as regards ‘requirement of good brick-earth’?
A
It must be free from lumps of lime
B
It should not be mixed with salty water
C
It must be non-homogeneous
D
It should not contain vegetable and organic matter
Question 15Single Answer
The compressive strength of heavy-duty bricks, as per IS : 2980-1962, should not be less than
A
440 kg/cm2
B
175 kg/cm2
C
100kg/cm2
D
75kg/cm2
Question 16Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.Brickwork will have high water tightness.
2.Brickwork is preferred for monument structures.
3.Bricks resist fire better than stones
4.Bricks of good quality shall have thin mortar bonds.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4
Question 17Single Answer
Consider the following statements:A good soil for making bricks should contain
1.30% alumina
2.10% lime nodules
3.Only small quantity of iron oxides
4.15% magnesia
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4
Question 18Single Answer
Which compound of cement is responsible for strength of cement?
A
Magnesium oxide
B
Silica
C
Alumina
D
Calcium sulphate
Question 19Single Answer
Which type of cement is recommended in large mass concrete works such as a dam?
A
Ordinary Portland
B
High Alumina
C
Low-heat Portland
D
Portland Cement
Question 20Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding ‘setting of cement’:
1.Low-heat cement sets faster than OPC.
2.Final setting time decides the strength of cement
3.Initial setting time of Portland Pozzollona is 30 minutes
4.Air-induced setting is observed when stored under damp conditions.
4.Addition of gypsum retards the setting time.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
3, 4 and 5
D
2, 3 and 5
Question 21Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding ‘strength of cement’:
1.Strength test on cement is made on cubes of cement-sand mix.
2.Water to be used for the paste is 0.25 P, where P is the water needed for normal consistency.
3.The normal consistency is determined on Le Chatelier’s principle.
4.Cubes are cast in two layers in leak-proof moulds further compacted in each layer by vibration on a machine.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 4
D
3 and 4
Question 22Single Answer
Which of the following ingredients refer to binding material of mortar?
1.Cement
2.Lime
3.Sand
4.Ashes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A
1 and 4
B
3 and 4
C
1 and 2
D
2 and 3
Question 23Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.Bricks in masonry are bound by mortar.
2.Mortars make brick damp-proof.
3.Strength of brick in masonry is improved by plastering.
4.Addition of lime improves workability.
5.Marine construction needs sulphate-resistant cement mortar.
Which of the above statements are relevant for ‘cement mortar’?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 3 and 4
C
1, 4 and 5
D
3, 4 and 5
Question 24Single Answer
Consider the following parameters of concrete:
1.Impermeability
2.Compactness
3.Durability
4.Desired consistency
5.Workability
Which of the above parameters are relevant for ‘water-cement ratio’?
A
4 and 5
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 4
D
3 and 5
Question 25Single Answer
Consider the following statements:Presence of Na2O and K2O in concrete leads to
1.Expansive reaction in concrete
2.Cracking of concrete
3.Disruption of concrete
4.Shrinkage of concrete
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 and 4
Question 26Single Answer
The maximum total quantity of dry aggregate by mass per 50 kg of cement, to be taken as the sum of the individual masses of fine and coarse aggregates (kg), for M20 grade of concrete is
A
625
B
480
C
330
D
250
Question 27Single Answer
Absorption capacity of an aggregate refers to the difference expresses in appropriate proportion in water content between
A
A wet aggregate and a dry aggregate
B
A dry aggregate and a wet aggregate
C
A saturated surface-dry aggregate and a dry aggregate
D
A saturated surface-dry aggregate and an over dry aggregate
Question 28Single Answer
Consider the following statements concerning ‘elasticity of concrete’:
1.Stress-strain behavior of concrete is a straight line up to 10% ultimate stress.
2.Strain determination is obtained from tangent modulus.
3.Modulus of elasticity of concrete is also called as secant modulus.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 3 only
C
1 and 2 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 29Single Answer
Consider the following statements :The addition of CaCl2 in concrete results in
1.Increased shrinkage
2.Decreased setting time
3.Decreased shrinkage
4.Increased setting time
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 2
Question 30Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.Knots in a tree affect the continuity of fibres.
2.Nail knots do not influence the strength of timber.
3.Druxiness of wood is not a defect.
4.Tall trees with twisted fibers give good timber for poles.
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 31Single Answer
Excrescences in wood are
1.Defects found in trees
2.Formed due to injuries inflicted on trees when they are growing
3.Defects which render wood suitable as firewood only
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
2 and 3 only
Question 32Single Answer
What treatment is adopted for making timber fire-resistant?
A
ASCU treatment
B
Abel’s process
C
Creosoting
D
Tarring
Question 33Single Answer
Deterioration of structure of timber due to dry rot is:
1.Caused by fungi
2.Due to dry-spell after heavy rains
3.Due to attack of termites
4.ndicated by surface stripes on scantlings
A
1 and 2
B
3 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 4
Question 34Single Answer
Alternate wetting and drying of timber :
1.Results in shrinkage and swelling
2.Brings about wet rot onset
3.Increases the durability
4.Causes transmission of spores from germination
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 3 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 35Single Answer
As per I.S. classification, the minimum compressive strength of a first class brick should be
A
75 kg/cm3
B
100kg/cm3
C
125 kg/cm3
D
150 kg/cm3
Question 36Single Answer
When provided with alternating courses of (a) all headers and (b) all stretchers, the front elevation of such brick masonry is designated as
A
English bond
B
Single Flemish bond
C
Double Flemish bond
D
Rat-trap bond
Question 37Single Answer
I.S. code specifies that the compressive strength of brick shall be determined by keeping the brick:
1.On edge
2.On bed
3.After soaking in water for 2 hrs
4.After soaking in water for 24 hrs
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
2 and 4
Question 38Single Answer
Soundness test of cement is carried out to determine its
A
Alumina content
B
Iron oxide content
C
Free lime content
D
Durability under sea water
Question 39Single Answer
The objectives of producing cement include:
1.Incorporating industrial wastes
2.Increasing free lime
3.Increasing fineness
4.Saving energy needed in the process
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1, 3 and 4 only
C
1, 2 and 4 only
D
2, 3 and 4 only
Question 40Single Answer
A mild steel rod tapers uniformly from 24 mm mm dia. over its length of 400 mm. The rod when held vertical is subjected to an axial tensile load of 12 kN. E = 2 × 105 N/mm2. The extension of the rod in mm would be:
A
3
2
B
2
3
C
3
D
1
3
Question 41Single Answer
Two different liquids are flowing through different pipes of the same diameter. In the first pipe, the flow is laminar with centerline velocity,Vmax.1,Whereas in the second pipe, the flow is turbulent. For turbulent flow, the average velocity is 0.82 times the centerline velocity,vmax.2 . For equal volumetric flow rates in both the pipes, the ratio Vmax.1/Vmax.2(up to two decimal place) is_____.
A
1.64
B
2.45
C
0.25
D
1.44
Question 42Single Answer
Poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.3. Then the ratio of Young’s modulus to bulk modulus is
A
0.6
B
0.8
C
1.2
D
1.4
Question 43Single Answer
For a gas phase cracking reaction A→B+C at 300℃ , the Gibbs free energy of the reaction at this temperature is ∆G°= -2750J/mol . The pressure is 1 bar and the gas phase can be assumed to be ideal. The universal gas constant =8.314J/mol. K. The fractional molar conversion of A at equilibrium is________.
A
0.44
B
0.50
C
0.64
D
0.80
Question 44Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct ?
1.In a ductile material elastic deformation is more predominant than plastic one.
2.Brittleness is not an absolute property of a metal.
3.Rate of loading has no influence in changing the behavior of a metal from ‘ductile’ to ‘brittle’ at low temperatures
4.Under hydrostatic compression, a brittle metal may change into a ductile one.
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
2 and 4
Question 45Single Answer
The total deflection of a structure when subjected simultaneously to different sets of loading is equal to the sum of the deflections under each such set of loads as if acting separately on the structure. Which one the following justifies this statement?
A
Elastic limit is not exceeded
B
Elastic limit including buckling is not exceeded
C
Limit state is not exceeded
D
Proportional limit without buckling is not exceeded
Question 46Single Answer
A rectangular bar of cross-sectional area a is subjected to an axial tensile load P. The maximum shear stress will occur on a plane at X° to any normal cross-section where X° is
A
90°
B
27°
C
180°
D
45°
Question 47Single Answer
A solid circular shaft has been subjected to a pure torsion moment. The ratio of maximum shear stress to maximum normal stress at any point would be
A
1 : 2
B
1 : 1
C
2 : 3
D
2 : 1
Question 48Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1.All load carrying members transmit load through basic modes of tension, compression, torsion and shear only.
2.Beams carry transverse loads.
3.Combined loading is a complicated loading.
4.Nature of internal forces decides the aspect of combines loading.
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
2 and 4
Question 49Single Answer
Identify the WRONG statement amongst the following:
A
steam distillation is used for mixtures that re immiscible with water.
B
Vacuum distillation is used for mixtures that are miscible with water.
C
Steam distillation is used for mixtures that are miscible with water.
D
vacuum distillation columns have larger diameter as compared to atmospheric columns for the same throughout
Question 50Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1.Experimental results on thin-walled tubes show that maximum normal stress theory is valid.
2.Normal-stress theory is valid in case of brittle materials.
3.In case of pure shear, St. Venant’s theory is more valid than other theories.
4.Tresca’s theory is very closely substantiated by experimental results.
5.In maximum stress theory, the yield locus is a hexagon.
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2, 4 and 5
C
1, 2 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4
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Civil Engineering
Question 51Single Answer
A thin cylindrical shell made of mild steel plate is 1000 mm in diameter. It is to be subjected to an internal pressure of 2 N/mm2. If the material yields at 200N/mm2, the thickness of the plate in mm on the basis of Rankine’s theory of failure with assuming a factor of safety of 3 would be
A
10
B
12
C
15
D
18
Question 52Single Answer
Which of the following can change if only the catalyst is changed for a reaction system?
A
Enthalpy of reaction
B
Activation energy
C
Free Energy of the reaction
D
Equilibrium constant
Question 53Single Answer
Which of the following loads should be applied on a simply supported beam, so that the shear force is constant throughout its span?
A
U.D.L. over the entire span.
B
Two concentrated loads equally spaced in the span.
C
A central concentrated load and a U.D.L. over the entires pan.
D
A couple anywhere in the span.
Question 54Single Answer
A simply supported rolled steel joist of I-section has flange width 250 mm and overall depth 600 mm. Its moment of inertia IXX = 12 × 106 mm4. The steel joist is used as a beam over a simply supported span of 6m. It carries a load of 40 kN/m including its self weight throughout the span. The maximum stress induced in the beam in N/mm2 due to bending would be
A
30
B
90
C
45
D
60
Question 55Single Answer
Which of the following terms represents the torque that produces a twist of one radian in a shaft of unit length?
A
Torsional stress
B
Torsional rigidity
C
Flexural rigidity
D
Moment of resistance
Question 56Single Answer
A 60 mm dia. shaft is subjected to a torque of 6 kN-m. C = 8 × 104 N/mm2. The maximum shear stress induced in the shaft in N/mm2will be
A
8000
92
B
4000
9
C
12000
9
D
16000
9
Question 57Single Answer
A water main 160 cm dia. contains water at a pressure head of 200m. Take weight of water to be 1000 kg/m3. The thickness of the metal shell required for the water main, given that the maximum permissible stress in the metal is 400kg/cm2, will be
A
1 cm
B
2 cm
C
3 cm
D
4 cm
Question 58Single Answer
The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are known as
A
Star shakes
B
Annular rings
C
Cup shakes
D
Hear shakes
Question 59Single Answer
Consider the following distinguishing characteristics of hardwood:
1.They have distinct annular rings.
2.They are not resinous.
Which of these characteristics of hardwood is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 60Single Answer
Consider the following statements on the specific gravity of wood:
1.It is always greater than 2.
2.It is less than 1.
3.It is not dependent upon temperature and equilibrium moisture content.
Which of these statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
2 and 4 only
Question 61Single Answer
The age of a log of timber can be estimated by
A
Diameter of pith
B
Thickness of bark
C
Number of annular rings
D
Number of medullary rays
Question 62Single Answer
Consider the following statements:Seasoning of timber results in
1.Increased strength
2.Increased durability
3.Reduced resilience
4.Increased dimensional stability
Which of these statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3
C
1, 3 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4
Question 63Single Answer
Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I List-II
Plywood 1. Furniture
Fiberboard 2. Cantilever arches
Laminated lumber 3. Insulation
Commercial blockboard 4. Lining of form-work in concrete Codes:
A
A B C D
1 2 3 4
B
4 3 2 1
C
4 2 3 1
D
4 2 3 1
Question 64Single Answer
Consider the following statements:Perforated bricks are preferred in construction since
1.They are lighter
2.They are stronger than class 1 bricks
3.They have heat-insulating properties
4.They are cheaper and need less mortar
Which of these statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
3 and 4 only
Question 65Single Answer
The standard size of a brick is
A
20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
B
19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
C
18 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
D
18 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
Question 66Single Answer
Consider the following statements:More than 6% magnesium oxide by weight in cement results in
1.High early strength and high heat generation
2.Less tendency towards volume change and formation of cracks
Which of these statements is/are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Neither 1 nor 2
D
Both 1 and 2
Question 67Single Answer
Fineness if cement is measured in the units of
A
Volume/mass
B
Mass/volume
C
Area/mass
D
Mass/area
Question 68Single Answer
The initial setting time of cement depends most on
A
Tricalcium aluminate
B
Tricalciumaluminoferrite
C
Dicalcium silicate
D
Dicalcium silicate
Question 69Single Answer
Consider the following statements:Sand in cement mortar is used for
1.Increasing the strength
2.Reducing the shrinkage
3.Decreasing the surface area of the binding material
4.Decreasing the quantity of cement
Which of these statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 4
B
1, 2 and 3
C
1, 3 and 4
D
2, 3 and 4
Question 70Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1.The compressive strength of concrete decreases with increase in water-cement ratio of the concrete mixture.
2.Water is added to the concrete mix for hydration of cement and workability.
3.Creep and shrinkage of concrete are independent of the water-cement ratio in the concrete mix.
Which of these statements are correct?
A
1 and 4 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 71Single Answer
According to the Indian Standard Specifications, concrete should be cured under a humidity of
A
90%
B
80%
C
60%
D
70%
Question 72Single Answer
Consider the following statements:In a typical compression test with a cylindrical concrete specimen, failure is initiated by
1.Crushing in compression
2.Inclined shear failure
3.Longitudinal tensile cracks
Which of these statements are correct?
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 73Single Answer
If one intends to obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of aggregate is
A
Round
B
Annular
C
Triangular
D
Flinty
Question 74Single Answer
Consider the following statements as regards rheology of concrete:
1.It deals with strength of concrete.
2.It deals with deformation in concrete.
3.It is the study of deformation and flow of concrete.
4.It deals with rate of shear and shear stress in concrete.
Which of these statements are correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4
B
3 and 4 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1 and 2 only
Question 75Single Answer
Consider the following for durability of well-graded concrete:
1.The environment
2.Cover to embedded reinforcement
3.Shape and size of concrete member
Which of these are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
2 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 76Single Answer
Consider the common methods related to testing of concrete:
1.Consistency
2.Compacting factor
3.Vee-Bee
4.Setting time
5.Slump
Which of these methods refer to measuring workability ofconcrete?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 5
C
2, 3 and 4
D
2, 3 and 5
Question 77Single Answer
Gypsum is added into the raw materials during manufacture of cement so that the final product exhibits
A
Retarded initial setting time
B
Improved mouldability for cornices, etc
C
Increases compressive strength
D
Augmented bond strength
Question 78Single Answer
Consider the following constituents of a high performance concrete (HPC):
1.Cement
2.Fine aggregate
3.Coarse aggregate
4.Water
5.Mineral admixture
6.Chemical admixture
Which of these constituentsare relevant for HPC?
A
1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
B
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
C
2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
D
1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
Question 79Single Answer
A specimen is subjected to a pure shear stress regime of intensity.The resulting tensile and compressive stresses, which occur on planes inclined at 45° to the direction of the shear stresses, would be
A
T
B
T
2
C
T2
D
T3
Question 80Single Answer
For a given elastic material, the Elastic modulus E is 210 GPa and its Poisson’s ratio is 0.27. What is the approximate value if its modulus of Rigidity ?
A
105 GPa
B
83 GPa
C
159 GPa
D
165 GPa
Question 81Single Answer
Which of the following is not a basic type of strain ?
A
Compressive strain
B
Shear strain
C
Area strain
D
Volume strain
Question 82Single Answer
Young's Modulus of elasticity is
A
Tensile stress / Tensile strain
B
Shear stress / Shear strain
C
Tensile stress / Shear strain
D
Shear stress / Tensile strain
Question 83Single Answer
Which of the following stresses is measured on inclined surface in Mohr’s Circle Method ?
A
Principal stress
B
Normal stress
C
Tangential stress
D
Maximum stress
Question 84Single Answer
Hooke's law is applicable within
A
Elastic limit
B
Plastic limit
C
Fracture point
D
Ultimate strength
Question 85Single Answer
Lead, as a material used in construction, has E = 15 GPa and K = 50 GPa. What is its Poisson’s ratio?
A
0.225
B
0.30
C
0.40
D
0.45
Question 86Single Answer
Crushing strength of good building stone should be more than:
A
500 kg/cm2
B
1000 kg/cm2
C
1400 kg/cm2
D
2000 kg/cm2
Question 87Single Answer
Two planks each of 50 mm × 50 mm section are glued together along the length to form as section 50 mm × 100 mm; and used as a beam. If the shear force at the section is 1000 N, what is the maximum shear stress on the glue?
A
0.15 MPa
B
0.3MPa
C
0.6MPa
D
2.4MPa
Question 88Single Answer
The probability distribution taken to represent the completion time in PERT analysis is
A
Gamma distribution
B
Normal distribution
C
Beta distribution
D
Log-normal distribution
Question 89Single Answer
The state of stress at a point in 2-D stress system is characterized by direct stresses of 40 MPa compressive and 80 MPa tensile, on mutually perpendicular planes. Shear stress is absent on these planes. The maximum shear stress sat this point (along a duly identified plane) is
A
20 MPa
B
40MPa
C
60MPa
D
80MPa
Question 90Single Answer
An electrical resistance strain rosette indicates strain of -400, +800 and +500 along the x,y and 45° axes. What is the shearing ratio yxy?
A
100
B
800
C
600
D
-200
Question 91Single Answer
In a diagonal scale only
A
Units can be shown
B
Units, tenths can be shown
C
Units, tenths, hundredths can be shown
D
Units, tenths, hundredths and thousandths can be shown
Question 92Single Answer
A cylindrical pressure vessel is 1200 mm in diameter. It is made of rolled mild steel plate. The vessel is subjected to an internal pressure of 2 N/mm2. If the material yields at 200 N/mm2, what should be the minimum safe thickness of the plate, based on Maximum Principle Stress Theory?
A
18 mm
B
15 mm
C
12 mm
D
9 mm
Question 93Single Answer
The constituent compound in Portland cement which reacts immediately with water, and also sets earliest, is
A
Tricalcium silicate
B
Dicalcium silicate
C
Tricalcium aluminate
D
Tetracalcium aluminoferrite
Question 94Single Answer
A simply subjected beam of length 4 m is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 2 kN/m. What is the maximum shear stress is the cross-section is rectangular, 100 mm wide and 200 mm deep?
A
0.2 N/mm2
B
0.1 N/mm2
C
0.4 N/mm2
D
0.3 N/mm2
Question 95Single Answer
A mild steel structural section is an unsymmetrical I-section, with the greater width at the top and the smaller width at the bottom. The overall depth of the beam is 300 mm, and the flange stresses at the top and the bottom of the beam are 150 N/mm2and 50 N/mm2 respectively. What is the height of the neutral axis of the beam from its bottom?
A
125 mm
B
100 mm
C
75 mm
D
50 mm
Question 96Single Answer
The surveying used to determine additional details such as boundaries of fields, is called
A
City surveying
B
Location surveying
C
Cadastral surveying
D
Topographical surveying
Question 97Single Answer
A circular shaft of diameter ‘D’ is made of a material for which the Young’s modulus of elasticity is ‘E’ and Poisson’s ratio is ‘v’. the ratio of flexural rigidity to torsional rigidity for the shaft is
A
4(1+v)
B
1.5(1-2v)
C
(1+v)
D
0.25(1+v)
Question 98Single Answer
A closely coiled helical spring of round steel wire 5mm in diameter having 12 complete coils of 50 mm mean diameter is subjected to an axial load of 100 N. Modulus of rigidity of the spring is 80kn/mm2. What is the deflection of the spring?
A
12 mm
B
24 mm
C
36 mm
D
48 mm
Question 99Single Answer
What is the shear stress at the neutral axis in a beam of isosceles triangular section with a base of 40 mm and height 20 mm subjected to a shear force of 2 kN?
A
3 MPa
B
6MPa
C
10MPa
D
20MPa
Question 100Single Answer
A beam of square cross-section is placed such that its neutral axis coincides with its diagonal, and it is subjected to a shear force F. What is the ratio of the maximum shear stress to the shear stress at the neutral axis?
A
9
8
B
8
9
C
7
8
D
8
7
Question 101Single Answer
The intensity of u.d.l. which , when it acts over the entire span of 1 m of a cantilever beam of rectangular cross-section of width 100 mm and depth 200 mm, would produce a maximum shear stress of 1.5N/mm2, is
A
20 kN/m
B
30kN/m
C
26.6 kN/m
D
36.6 kN/m
Question 102Single Answer
In a simply supported beam AB with a concentrated load W at a distance 'a' from support A and 'b' from support B, the deflection under the load is
A
wa^2 b^2 / 3EIL
B
wa^2 / 3EI
C
wa^2 b^2 /3EI
D
wa^2 b + 2/EIL
Question 103Single Answer
Two closely coiled helical springs A and B are equal in all respects but for the number of turns, with A having just half the number of turns of that of B. What is the ratio of deflections in terms of spring A to spring B?
A
1/8
B
1/4
C
1/2
D
2/1
Question 104Single Answer
A rigid prop provided for a beam
A
brings the bending for a beam
B
brings the deflection at the prop to zero
C
brings the slopes at the section to zero
D
brings the shear force at the section to zero
Question 105Single Answer
What is the diameter d of a solid circular shaft when subjected to a Torque T with a corresponding maximum shear stress of magnitude fS?
A
B
C
D
Question 106Single Answer
A metal shaft of solid circular section rotates at 160 rpm and is subjected to a torque of 1500 Nm. What is the power, in kW, transmitted by the shaft?
A
B
C
D
Question 107Single Answer
The limits of percentage of the longitudinal reinforcement in a column is given by
A
0.15% to 2%
B
0.8% to 4%
C
0.8% to 6%
D
0.8% to 8%
Question 108Single Answer
In the beam shown in the figure, if the displacement at C due to load W at B is 5mm, the displacement at B due to a load of 0.2 W at C will be
A
1 mm
B
2 mm
C
5 mm
D
25 mm
Question 109Single Answer
Two simply supported beams are made up of the same material and are of the same cross-section. Both beams carry uniformly distributed loads of equal intensities. One beam is 2 m long and other is 4 m long. The 2
m long beam shows a central deflection of 1 mm. What is the central deflection of the 4 m long beam?
A
16 mm
B
2 mm
C
8 mm
D
1 mm
Question 110Single Answer
A simply supported beam is subjected to a couple at a section within its span. It will produce
1.SF diagram of zero magnitude
2.Uniformly varying triangular diagram
3.Sudden change in sign of BM at the point of application of the couple.
4.Equal and supports opposite reactions at
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
3 and 4
D
1 and 4
Question 111Single Answer
If the deflection at the free hand of a uniformly loaded cantilever beam is 15 mm and the slope of the deflection curve at the free end is 0.02 radian, then the length of the beam is
A
0.8 m
B
1.0 m
C
1.2 m
D
1.5 m
Question 112Single Answer
A beam of overall length l, with equal overhangs on both sides, carries a uniformly distributed load over the entire length. To have numerically equal bending moments at the center of the beam and at its supports, the distance between the supports should be
A
0.277 l
B
0.403 l
C
0.586 l
D
0.707 l
Question 113Single Answer
The value of the ordinates, at the quarter span of the influence line diagram for the midspan bending moment of a simply supported beam, is 0.5 m. If the span of the beam is doubled, what will be the ordinates at the midspan of the influence line ?
A
2.0 m
B
1.0 m
C
0.5 m
D
None of the above
Question 114Single Answer
In considering Plastic Analysis which of the following is a valid comprehensive statement?
A
Shape factor is the ratio of Plastic section modulus to the Elastic section modulus
B
Shape factor is the ratio of Elastic section modulus to the Plastic section modulus
C
Shape factor is the ratio of Plastic section modulus to the Elastic section modulus and its value is always greater than 1.0
D
Shape factor is the ratio of Elastic section modulus to the Plastic section modulus and its value is always less than 1.0
Question 115Single Answer
The cat and the dog have a ……. enemy in the rat .
A
same
B
common
C
mutual
D
similar
Question 116Single Answer
A solid shaft transmits 150 kW at a shear stress of 70 MPa running at a frequency of 3 Hz. What will be the shear stress when the frequency is 1.5 Hz?
A
35 MPa
B
50MPa
C
57MPa
D
140MPa
Question 117Single Answer
Which one of the following Mohr’s circles represents the state of pure shear?
A
B
C
D
Question 118Single Answer
Consider the following statements:The design depth of the footing for an isolated column is governed by
1.Maximum bending moment
2.Maximum shear force
3.Punching shear
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1 and 2 only
B
1 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3 only
Question 119Single Answer
Spalling stresses are produced in post-tensioned pre-stresses concrete members at
A
Locations of maximum bending moment only
B
Locations of maximum shear zone
C
Anchorage zone
D
Bond-developing zone
Question 120Single Answer
In a pre-stresses member, it is advisable to use
A
Low-strength concrete
B
High-strength concrete
C
High-strength concrete and high-tension steel
D
High-strength concrete and low-tension steel
Question 121Single Answer
If aggregate size of 50-40 mm is to be tested for determining the proportion of elongated aggregates, the slot length of the gauge should be
A
45 mm
B
53 mm
C
81 mm
D
90 mm
Question 122Single Answer
If the Poisson’s ratio for a material is 0.5, then the elastic modulus for the material is
A
Three times its shear modulus
B
Four times its shear modulus
C
Equal to its shear modulus
D
Not determinable
Question 123Single Answer
A metal bar of 10mm diameter when subjected to a pull of 23.5 kN gave as elongation of 0.3 mm on a gauge length of 200 mm. The Young’s modulus of elasticity of the metal will nearly be
A
200 kN/mm2
B
300kN/mm2
C
360kN/mm2
D
400kN/mm2
Question 124Single Answer
In a two hinged parabolic arch
A
An increase in temperature will decrease the horizontal thrust
B
An increase in temperature will increase the bending moment
C
An increase in temperature will increase the horizontal thrust
D
If the UDL is placed over the entire span of arch, it will give zero bending anywhere on the span
Question 125Single Answer
At what depth and rate is a hypabyssal rock formed ?
A
Slow cooling of magma at considerable depth
B
Quick cooling of magma at a shallow depth
C
Rapid cooling of magma at Earth’s surface
D
Rapid cooling of magma at a shallow depth
Question 126Single Answer
Consider the following statements:If the plane at right angles carry only shear stress of magnitude q in a certain instance, then the
1.Diameter of Mohr’s circle would be equal to 2q
2.Centre of Mohr’s circle would lie at the origin
3.Principle stresses are unlike and are of magnitude q each
4.Angle between the principle plane and the plane of maximum shear would be 45°
Which of the above statements are correct?
A
1, 2 and 3 only
B
1, 2 and 4 only
C
3 and 4 only
D
1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 127Single Answer
According to IS 456 – 2000, which of the following criteria is/are not valid for a column ?
A
Minimum diameter of longitudinal bar is 12 mm
B
The maximum compressive strain in concrete in axial compression is 0.002
C
To find out load carrying capacity of column grade of concrete, grade of steel, cross section area of column & diameter of longitudinal reinforcement required
D
For a circular column with lateral ties load carrying capacity is increased by 5%
Question 128Single Answer
Which one of the following is not a classification of stones ?
A
Physical Classification
B
Mineralogical Classification
C
Chemical Classification
D
Practical Classification
Question 129Single Answer
Which factor disturbs the equilibrium of rocks, commencing metamorphism ?
A
Increase in temperature
B
Decrease in temperature and pressure
C
Increase in temperature and pressure
D
Decrease in pressure
Question 130Single Answer
At a point in the web of a girder, the bending and the shearing stresses are 90 N/mm2(tensile) and 45N/mm2 respectively. The principlestresses are
A
108.60N/mm2 (tensile) and 18.64 N/mm2 (compressive)
B
107.60N/mm2 (compressive) and 18.64 N/mm2 (tensile)
C
108.60N/mm2 (compressive) and 18.64 N/mm2 (tensile)
D
0.64N/mm2 (tensile) and 0.78 N/mm2 (compressive)
Question 131Single Answer
An unrestrained reinforced concrete slab of effective dimension 4.5m x 6.0 m is simply supported on all four walls. It has to carry a characteristic live load of 10kN/sq.m in addition to the dead load. Assuming M25 and Fe415, thickness of the slab being 200 mm and fishing load of 1kN/sq.m, what should be the design load as per the limit state method ?
A
16 kN/sq.m
B
24 kN/sq.m
C
20 kN/sq.m
D
22 kN/sq.m
Question 132Single Answer
A simply supported beam has uniform cross-section, b= 100 mm, d = 200 mm, throughout its length. The beam is subjected to a maximum bending moment of 6×107 N/mm. The corresponding bending stress developed in the beam is
A
30 N/mm2
B
60 N/mm2
C
90 N/mm2
D
120 N/mm2
Question 133Single Answer
A steel plate is bent into a circular arc of radius 10m. If the plate section be 120 mm wide and 20 mm thick, with E = 2 × 105 N/mm2, then the maximum bending stress induced is
A
210 N/mm2
B
205 N/mm2
C
200 N/mm2
D
195 N/mm2
Question 134Single Answer
A solid shaft of 80 mm diameter is transmitting 100 kW of power at 200 r.p.m. The maximum shear stress induced in the shaft will nearly be
A
60 N/mm2
B
56 N/mm2
C
52 N/mm2
D
48 N/mm2
Question 135Single Answer
The power transmitted by a 75 mm diameter shaft at 140 r.p.m., subjected to a maximum shear of 60 N/mm2 , is nearly
A
68 kW
B
70 kW
C
73 kW
D
76 kW
Question 136Single Answer
A circular shaft of diameter D is subjected to a torque T. The maximum shear stress of the shaft will be
A
Proportional to D3
B
Proportional to D4
C
Inversely proportional to D3
D
Inversely proportional to D4
Question 137Single Answer
A hollow shaft of 16 mm outside diameter and 12 mm inside diameter is subjected to a torque of 40 N-m. The shear stresses at the outside and inside of the material of the shaft are respectively
A
62.75 N/mm2and 50.00 N/mm2
B
72.75N/mm2 and 54.54N/mm2
C
79.75N/mm2 and 59.54N/mm2
D
80.00 N/mm2 and 40.00N/mm2
Question 138Single Answer
The hot molten material occurring naturally below the surface of the Earth is called :
A
Lava
B
Slag
C
Magma
D
Tuff
Question 139Single Answer
IfA = Cross-sectional area
E = Young’s modulus of elasticity
G = Modulus of rigidity
I = Moment of inertia
J = Polar moment of inertia
then torsional rigidity is given by
A
AE
B
GE
C
EI
D
GJ
Question 140Single Answer
If a material has identical elastic properties in all directions, it is said to be
A
Elastic
B
Isotropic
C
Orthotropic
D
Homogeneous
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following rocks are hard and durable ?
A
Argillaceous rocks
B
Siliceous rocks
C
Calcareous rocks
D
Carbonaceous rocks
Question 142Single Answer
In the two-dimensional stress system, the radius of the Mohr’s circle represents
A
Maximum normal stress
B
Minimum normal stress
C
Minimum shear stress
D
Maximum shear stress
Question 143Single Answer
Steel has proportionality limit of 200 MPa in simple tension. It is subjected to principal stresses of 120 MPa (tensile), 60 MPa (tensile) and 30 MPa (compressive). What is the factor of safety according to maximum stress theory?
A
1.5
B
1.75
C
1.8
D
2.0
Question 144Single Answer
Gantt charts indicate
A
Comparison of actual progress with the scheduled progress
B
Balance of work to be done
C
Progressive costs of project
D
Inventory costs
Question 145Single Answer
The polar moment of inertia of the cross-section of the member is required to assess the strength of the member in
A
Bending
B
Torsion
C
Axial force
D
Shear
Question 146Single Answer
There are 3 parallel paths in a part of a network between a bursting node and the next merging node with only one activity in each path. Minimum number of required dummies will be
A
0
B
1
C
2
D
3
Question 147Single Answer
A cylindrical shell of 100 cm diameter made of mild steel plate is to be subjected to an internal pressure of 10 kg/cm2. If the material yields at a stress of 200kg/cm2, assuming factor of safety as 4 and using maximum principal stress theory, the requisite thickness of the plate will be
A
8 mm
B
10 mm
C
12 mm
D
12 mm
E
15 mm
Question 148Single Answer
According to maximum shear stress failure theory, yielding occurs in the material when
A
Maximum shear stress = yield stress
B
Maximum shear stress = 2 times yield stress
C
Maximum shear stress = of yield stress
D
Maximum shear stress = time yield stress
Question 149Single Answer
For the design of a cast iron member, the most appropriate theory of failure is
A
Mohr’s theory
B
Rankine’s theory
C
Maximum stress theory
D
Maximum shear energy theory
Question 150Single Answer
A simply supported beam of span L carries a concentrated load W at its mid-span. If the width b of the beam is constant throughout the span, then, with permissible stress as , he depth of the beam at mid-span will be
A
B
C
D
General Knowledge
Question 151Single Answer
Which country’s Foreign Minister met counterparts from Egypt and Turkiye in March 2026 to discuss West Asia tensions?
A
Pakistan
B
Saudi Arabia
C
Jordan
D
Qatar
Question 152Single Answer
Which bridge/axis was restored and inaugurated by Raksha Rajya Mantri in North Sikkim in early March 2026?
A
Zojila Tunnel
B
Chungthang–Lachen Axis and Taram Chu Bridge
C
Dhola-Sadiya Bridge
D
Bogibeel Bridge
Question 153Single Answer
What was the projected GDP growth for India in FY26 as per the Economic Survey 2026?
A
6.5%
B
6.8%
C
8.0%
D
7.4%
Question 154Single Answer
What warning did Iran issue in March 2026 regarding attacks on its power plants?
A
Economic sanctions
B
Irreversible damage to regional infrastructure
C
Nuclear escalation
D
Oil price hike
Question 155Single Answer
Which global summit in New Delhi (23-24 March 2026) featured PM Modi’s keynote and focused on “India and the World”?
A
G20 Summit
B
BRICS Summit
C
What India Thinks Today Summit 2026
D
SCO Summit
Question 156Single Answer
What US policy regarding Russian oil purchases by India was extended until early April 2026?
A
Complete ban
B
Export restrictions
C
Tariff imposition
D
Permission to buy until 4 April
Question 157Single Answer
Which Indian state’s Chief Minister Nitish Kumar announced his resignation in March 2026 to contest Rajya Sabha elections?
A
Uttar Pradesh
B
Jharkhand
C
Bihar
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 158Single Answer
What lunar event occurred in March 2026 visible in parts of eastern Asia, Oceania, Pacific, and the Americas?
A
Total lunar eclipse
B
Solar eclipse
C
Meteor shower peak
D
Supermoon
Question 159Single Answer
In March 2026, PM Modi chaired a high-level meeting to review supplies of which sectors amid West Asia developments?
A
Defence and IT
B
Education and health
C
Agriculture and MSMEs
D
Petroleum, crude, gas, power, and fertiliser
Question 160Single Answer
What was a key focus area in the Union Budget 2026-27 regarding manufacturing?
A
Textiles only
B
Heavy industries only
C
Semiconductors, biopharma, and renewables
D
Automobile sector exclusively
Question 161Single Answer
What astronomical discovery was announced by astronomers in March 2026?
A
New planet in solar system
B
Discovery related to 1,900 light-years away (specific object)
C
Black hole merger
D
Exoplanet with life signs
Question 162Single Answer
What major international sporting hosting rights did India receive in March 2026?
A
2028 World Athletics Indoor Championships
B
2028 Olympics
C
2030 Asian Games
D
2027 Cricket World Cup
Question 163Single Answer
Which airport or port received a critical LPG shipment (Pyxis Pioneer) in March 2026 amid West Asia tensions?
A
Mundra Port
B
Paradip Port
C
New Mangalore Port
D
Kandla Port
Question 164Single Answer
What significant diplomatic agreement was announced between India and Canada in early March 2026?
A
Defence pact
B
Free Trade Agreement
C
Strengthened economic partnership
D
Climate alliance
Question 165Single Answer
What defence-related development was noted in the context of India’s preparedness amid global tensions in March 2026?
A
Reduction in capex
B
Withdrawal from international exercises
C
Complete self-reliance achieved
D
Surge in defence budget and modernisation push
Question 166Single Answer
What was the total expenditure estimated in the Union Budget 2026-27?
A
₹49.6 lakh crore
B
₹53.5 lakh crore
C
₹55 lakh crore
D
₹60 lakh crore
Question 167Single Answer
What was the fiscal deficit target set for FY 2026-27 in the Union Budget 2026-27 presented by FM Nirmala Sitharaman?
A
4.0% of GDP
B
5.0% of GDP
C
4.5% of GDP
D
4.3% of GDP
Question 168Single Answer
What was the status of India-US trade relations highlighted in early 2026 leading into March developments?
A
Increased tariffs
B
Breakthrough deal reducing US tariffs on Indian goods to 18%
C
Complete trade halt
D
New sanctions
Question 169Single Answer
What major infrastructure project was inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi on 28 March 2026?
A
Mumbai Trans Harbour Link
B
Atal Tunnel
C
Noida International Airport
D
Chenab Bridge
Question 170Single Answer
On what date in March 2026 did Prime Minister Narendra Modi become India’s longest-serving head of government?
A
15 March
B
20 March
C
22 March
D
25 March
Reasoning
Question 171Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 172Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 173Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 174Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 175Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 176Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 177Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 178Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 179Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 180Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 181Single Answer
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A
N
B
Q
C
J
D
M
E
None of these
Question 182Single Answer
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
None of these
Question 183Single Answer
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A
The only argument I is strong
B
Only argument II is strong
C
Either I or II is strong
D
Neither I nor II is strong
Question 184Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A
P
B
L
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 185Single Answer
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 186Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A
One
B
Two
C
Three
D
Four
E
More than four
Question 187Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A
I
B
A
C
L
D
M
E
N
Question 188Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 189Single Answer
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A
26
B
28
C
30
D
32
E
None of these
Question 190Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
General Hindi
Question 191Single Answer
'ऋ' अर् में बदलता है -
A
गुण संधि के अनुसार
B
यण संधि के अनुसार
C
वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार
D
अयादि संधि के अनुसार
Question 192Single Answer
निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है -
A
त्
B
न्
C
द्
D
भ्
Question 193Single Answer
निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है -
A
ल
B
ष
C
ड़
D
न
Question 194Single Answer
निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है -
A
ख
B
ग
C
च
D
द
Question 195Single Answer
तालव्य व्यंजन है-
A
ट ड द ढ
B
च छ ज झ
C
त थ द ध
D
प फ ब भ
Question 196Single Answer
'अ' स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है -
A
मूर्धा
B
कण्ठ
C
तालु
D
ओष्ठ
Question 197Single Answer
निम्लखित मे कंट- तालव्य स्वर कौनसे है ?
A
ए - ऐ
B
ए - ओ
C
ए - ऊ
D
त - द
Question 198Single Answer
जो धातु या शब्द के अंत में जोड़ा जाता है उसे कहते है ?