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Latest UPSSSC Mandi Inspector Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Intelligence, General Knowledge, General Science, Arithmetic, General Hindi
Question Bank UPSSSC Mandi Inspector Exam - English
General Intelligence
Q 1 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 2 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 3 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 4 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 5 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 6 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 7 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 8 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 9 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 10 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
Q 11 :
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 12 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 13 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 14 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 15 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 16 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 17 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 18 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 19 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 20 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 21 :
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A.X
B.W
C.I
D.H
Q 22 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MEASURE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 23 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LMAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 24 :
If each consonant in the word EXPLORATION is replaced by previous the alphabet and each vowel replaced by alphabet following it in the English alphabetic series, and then the order of the alphabets thus formed is reversed, which of the following from the right?
A.P
B.Q
C.B
D.K
E.None of these
Q 25 :
If the letters in the word AMONGST are arranged in the English alphabetical order, the position of how many letters will remain unchanged?
A.None
B.One
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than Four
Q 26 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters ACRS using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 27 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, UNWANTED, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 28 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EIND using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 29 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word, ‘TROUBLE’, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 30 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word DOUBTS each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 31 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ESDO using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 32 :
How many such pairs of letters there in the word, BONDING each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 33 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARGES each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 34 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters EDSU using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 35 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters RTOU using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 36 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ENGULFED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 37 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 38 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, fifth and sixth letters of the word ‘EDUCATION’, which would be the last letter of the word? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A.T
B.X
C.A
D.E
E.K
Q 39 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ‘OEHM’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 40 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFIRM each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 41 :
If JOSEPH is coded as FKOALD, then GEORGE will be coded as
A.CAKNCA
B.CADMNO
C.CAKNIT
D.JAKINS
Q 42 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TAILSPIN each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 43 :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter is in the middle of 13th letter from the left and 4th letter from the right ?
A.R
B.I
C.J
D.S
Q 44 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word MINORITY each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 45 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CHARIOT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 46 :
If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, second, fourth, and the sixth letters of the word ’STARVING’ . Which would be the second letter of the word from the right end? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A.T
B.S
C.X
D.I
E.K
Q 47 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ELUSIVE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabets?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 48 :
If it is possible to make only one meaning word with the first, third, fifth, and the ninth letters of the word ’CURVATURE’ . Which would be the second letter of the word ? If more than one such word can be formed, give X as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give K as your answer.
A.R
B.D
C.X
D.I
E.K
Q 49 :
If in certain code MONKEY is written as ZFLOPN then in the same code how CHARACTER is written ?
A.SFUBIDDBS
B.SFUDBSBID
C.SFUDBSCID
D.SFUDBEBID
Q 50 :
How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters NNEO using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
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General Knowledge
Q 51 :
What is the name of the underwater waterfall located between Greenland and Iceland, in the news in 2025?
A.Denmark Strait Cataract
B.Victoria Falls
C.Angel Falls
D.Niagara Falls
Q 52 :
Which Indian state amended the Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act (COTPA) in 2024 to reduce tobacco use?
A.Madhya Pradesh
B.Karnataka
C.Odisha
D.Bihar
Q 53 :
Where was the first National Mediation Conference 2025 inaugurated?
A.Hyderabad
B.Mumbai
C.New Delhi
D.Chennai
Q 54 :
Which Indian state achieved 100% functional literacy status under the ULLAS initiative in May 2025?
A.Goa
B.Kerala
C.Tamil Nadu
D.Himachal Pradesh
Q 55 :
What is the IUCN status of the Indian Pangolin, which was in the news in 2025?
A.Endangered
B.Critically Endangered
C.Vulnerable
D.Least Concern
Q 56 :
Which city hosted the ‘Yoga Mahotsav 2025’ as part of the International Day of Yoga countdown?
A.Varanasi
B.Rishikesh
C.Nashik
D.Ahmedabad
Q 57 :
Which organization inaugurated the Quantum Technology Research Centre (QTRC) in New Delhi in May 2025?
A.ISRO
B.CSIR
C.DRDO
D.BARC
Q 58 :
Which airport ranked 10th in the ACI Asia-Pacific & Middle East Air Connectivity Ranking 2024?
A.Bengaluru Kempegowda International Airport
B.Mumbai Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport
C.Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi
D.Hyderabad Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
Q 59 :
What is the projected wheat production for India for the year ending June 2025?
A.110 million metric tons
B.130 million metric tons
C.117.5 million metric tons
D.125 million metric tons
Q 60 :
What is the theme of World No Tobacco Day 2025?
A.Tobacco-Free Youth
B.Quit Tobacco Now
C.Health Over Harm
D.Bright Products, Dark Intentions
Q 61 :
Who launched the AyushSuraksha Portal to track misleading ads in traditional medicine in 2025?
A.Jagat Prakash Nadda
B.Prataprao Jadhav
C.Mansukh Mandaviya
D.Anupriya Patel
Q 62 :
Which country’s researchers detected a gravitational wave background using the MeerKAT radio telescope in 2025?
A.Australia
B.South Africa
C.Russia
D.China
Q 63 :
Which Indian state announced a pilot study for regulated cannabis cultivation in 2025?
A.Himachal Pradesh
B.Uttarakhand
C.Jammu & Kashmir
D.Sikkim
Q 64 :
Which country topped the medal tally at the Asian Athletics Championships 2025 held in Gumi, Republic of Korea?
A.India
B.South Korea
C.Japan
D.China
Q 65 :
Which Indian city will host the BRICS Youth Council Entrepreneurship Working Group meeting in March 2025?
A.Mumbai
B.New Delhi
C.Bengaluru
D.Hyderabad
Q 66 :
Which platform launched the SBM ZET Credit Card for first-time borrowers in May 2025?
A.Paytm
B.ZET and SBM Bank India
C.PhonePe
D.Google Pay
Q 67 :
What is the forecasted rice production for India for the year ending June 2025?
A.149 million tons
B.140 million tons
C.130 million tons
D.155 million tons
Q 68 :
Which Indian state’s tableau featured at the Republic Day Parade 2025 depicted the Kumbh Mela?
A.Rajasthan
B.Madhya Pradesh
C.Uttar Pradesh
D.Gujarat
Q 69 :
Which ministry oversees the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, mentioned in the context of literacy goals for 2030?
A.Ministry of Culture
B.Ministry of Education
C.Ministry of Home Affairs
D.Ministry of Social Justice
Q 70 :
Which organization developed the Akashteer air defense system, highlighted in 2025?
A.DRDO
B.ISRO
C.HAL
D.BARC
Q 71 :
Who was the UPSC AIR 1 Topper for 2024, announced in 2025?
A.Aditya Srivastava
B.Shakti Dubey
C.Animesh Pradhan
D.Donuru Ananya Reddy
Q 72 :
What is the target for India’s leather and footwear exports by 2030, as per the new Uttar Pradesh policy?
A.$10 billion
B.$20 billion
C.$50 billion
D.$100 billion
Q 73 :
Which ministry organized the closing event of a year-long legal awareness drive at Prayagraj’s Maha Kumbh in 2025?
A.Ministry of Culture
B.Ministry of Education
C.Ministry of Home Affairs
D.Ministry of Law and Justice
Q 74 :
Where will the BRICS Youth Council Entrepreneurship Working Group meeting be held in 2025?
A.Brazil
B.India
C.Russia
D.China
Q 75 :
What type of disease is rabies, which was in the news in 2025?
A.Zoonotic disease
B.Bacterial infection
C.Fungal infection
D.Genetic disorder
Q 76 :
When is the International Day of Education observed annually?
A.26 January
B.25 January
C.24 January
D.27 January
Q 77 :
Which organization developed the K-6 hypersonic Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM) tested in 2025?
A.ISRO
B.HAL
C.Bharat Dynamics Limited
D.DRDO
Q 78 :
Which ministry established the Passport Seva Portal to streamline passport services in 2025?
A.Ministry of Home Affairs
B.Ministry of Corporate Affairs
C.Ministry of External Affairs
D.Ministry of Electronics and IT
Q 79 :
What is the primary goal of the Digital Payment Intelligence Platform (DPIP) launched by the RBI in 2025?
A.Promote cash transactions
B.Enhance cybersecurity in digital payments
C.Reduce ATM usage
D.Increase bank branch networks
Q 80 :
Which Indian state topped the vulture population census in 2025?
A.Rajasthan
B.Gujarat
C.Madhya Pradesh
D.Maharashtra
Q 81 :
Who was appointed as the first Indian-origin Director of the FBI in February 2025?
A.Ajit Pai
B.Neal Katyal
C.Kash Patel
D.Preet Bharara
Q 82 :
What was the theme of the Pusa Krishi Vigyan Mela 2025 held in New Delhi?
A.Organic Agriculture
B.Advanced Agriculture – Developed India
C.Digital Farming
D.Sustainable Irrigation
Q 83 :
Which space agency launched the ‘Artemis III’ mission to the Moon in 2025?
A.ESA
B.CNSA
C.ISRO
D.NASA
Q 84 :
Which Indian city hosted the 9th National Summit on Public Healthcare in February 2025?
A.Odisha
B.Maharashtra
C.Telangana
D.Karnataka
Q 85 :
Who was appointed as the Chairman of SEBI in February 2025?
A.Mani Shankar
B.Jitendra Kumar
C.Tuhin Kanta Pandey
D.Balbeer Singh
Q 86 :
Which ministry launched the ‘One Nation-One Port Process’ (ONOP) in 2025?
A.Ministry of Defence
B.Ministry of Finance
C.Ministry of Commerce
D.Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways
Q 87 :
Which team won the Ranji Trophy 2024-25 title?
A.Kerala
B.Mumbai
C.Tamil Nadu
D.Vidarbha
Q 88 :
What is Neonatal Sepsis, which was in the news in 2025?
A.A viral infection
B.A bacterial infection in newborns
C.A genetic disorder
D.A respiratory disease
Q 89 :
Which Indian state launched the ‘Green Energy Villages’ initiative in 2025 to promote renewable energy?
A.Uttar Pradesh
B.Rajasthan
C.Tamil Nadu
D.Gujarat
Q 90 :
Which Indian state’s folk dance, Jhumur, was performed by 8,600 dancers at the Jhumoir Binandini 2025 event?
A.Assam
B.Odisha
C.Jharkhand
D.West Bengal
Q 91 :
Which site in Sonbhadra, Uttar Pradesh, was added to UNESCO’s tentative World Heritage List in 2025?
A.Madihan Caves
B.Chunar Fort
C.Salkhan Fossils Park
D.Vindhyachal Temple
Q 92 :
Which country launched the world’s first ship tunnel project, set to be completed by 2025-26?
A.Sweden
B.Denmark
C.Norway
D.Finland
Q 93 :
Which ministry launched the Bhasha Sangam initiative for schools in 2025?
A.Ministry of Culture
B.Ministry of Home Affairs
C.Ministry of Education
D.Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Q 94 :
Which Indian city hosted the 81st IATA Annual General Meeting in 2025?
A.New Delhi
B.Mumbai
C.Bengaluru
D.Hyderabad
Q 95 :
How many judges were appointed to the Supreme Court of India in May 2025 to reach its full strength of 34?
A.Two
B.Five
C.Four
D.Three
Q 96 :
What was the RBI’s net income growth percentage for the fiscal year ending March 2025?
A.15%
B.20.5%
C.33%
D.27.5%
Q 97 :
Which companies received RBI’s in-principle approval to operate as cross-border payment aggregators in 2025?
A.Paytm and Razorpay
B.Stripe and PayU
C.PayPal and Worldline ePayments
D.PhonePe and Google Pay
Q 98 :
Which Indian state opposed Tamil Nadu’s Cauvery-South Vellar Link Project in 2025?
A.Karnataka
B.Kerala
C.Andhra Pradesh
D.Telangana
Q 99 :
Who launched the BHARATPOL portal in January 2025 to enhance law enforcement cooperation?
A.Nitin Gadkari
B.Amit Shah
C.Rajnath Singh
D.Jagat Prakash Nadda
Q 100 :
What is the theme of the ‘Sanskriti Utsava’ organized by Uttar Pradesh in 2025?
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 102 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 103 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 104 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 105 :
Three resistors 1 Ω, 2 Ω, 3Ω resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 Ω resistor is -
A.0.75 A
B.1 A
C.2 A
D.1.5 A
Q 106 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 107 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 108 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 109 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A.28 mm
B.56 mm
C.70 mm
D.140 mm
Q 110 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A.1 M solution of glucose
B.0.05 M solution of glucose
C.6% solution of glucose
D.25% solution of glucose
Q 111 :
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B.to minimise the snow fall
C.to minimise pollution
D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Q 112 :
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A.AB2
B.A2B
C.AB
D.AB3
Q 113 :
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B.decreases electron density at meta position
C.increases electron density at meta position
D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
Q 114 :
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A.PCI5
B.PCI3
C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Q 115 :
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
B.same as in C2H4
C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
Q 116 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 117 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 118 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 119 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 120 :
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Q 121 :
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Q 122 :
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A.B,C and D
B.A and D
C.B and D
D.A, B and C
Q 123 :
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Q 124 :
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A.Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B.Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C.Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D.Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Q 125 :
Stoma opens, when
A.guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B.guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C.guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D.guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Arithmetic
Q 126 :
A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream .
A.2 hours
B.3 hours
C.4 hours
D.5 hours
Q 127 :
Sum of digit of a two-digit number is 15 and the difference between the digits is 3. What is the two digit number ?
A.69
B.96
C.78
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 128 :
The sum of three consecutive integers is 30. Which of the following is the largest among the three ?
A.12
B.13
C.14
D.10
E.None of these
Q 129 :
Mr. Sinha distributes a certain sum of money among his five sons, one daughter and his wife in such a way that each son gets double the amount of his daughter and the wife gets double the amount of each son. If each son gets Rs. 15000, what was the total amount distributed ?
A.Rs. 123000
B.Rs. 112500
C.Rs. 138500
D.Rs. 132500
Q 130 :
Which is the largest of the following fractions ?
Q 131 :
The sum of 3 consecutive even numbers is 198. Which of the following will be the smallest number among them ?
A.42
B.38
C.32
D.72
E.None of these
Q 132 :
Two third of half of a number is 18. What is one third of that number ?
A.18
B.16
C.19
D.17
E.None of these
Q 133 :
The difference between th of th of a number and of th of the same number is 9. What in the number.
A.45
B.35
C.40
D.30
E.None of these
Q 134 :
If is subtracted from and the difference is multiplied by 504, what will be the number ?
A.2024
B.2104
C.2004
D.2014
E.None of these
Q 135 :
‘a’ is greater than ‘b’ by 2 and ‘b’ is greater than ‘c’ by 10. If a+b+c = 130 then (b+c) - a = ?
A.38
B.42
C.44
D.34
E.None of these
Q 136 :
The product of two successive positive integers is 462. Which is the smaller integer ?
A.20
B.22
C.21
D.23
E.None of these
Q 137 :
If the difference between a number and two fifth of the number is 30, find the number .
A.50
B.75
C.57
D.60
E.None of these
Q 138 :
IF the sum of four consecutive even number is 228. Which is the smallest of the number ?
A.52
B.54
C.56
D.48
E.None of these
Q 139 :
If the following fractions are arranged in descending order which will be the last in the series ?
Q 140 :
What is the least number to be added to 3986 to make it a perfect square ?
A.118
B.95
C.110
D.100
E.None of these
Q 141 :
What is 234 time 167 ?
A.48768
B.41184
C.40581
D.39078
E.None of these
Q 142 :
The product of two consecutive even number is 4488. Which is the smaller number ?
A.62
B.71
C.66
D.65
E.None of these
Q 143 :
If the fractions are arranged in ascending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
Q 144 :
What is the least number to be added to 1416 to make it perfect square ?
A.47
B.38
C.28
D.25
E.None of these
Q 145 :
What is 147 times 329 ?
A.48069
B.48363
C.49021
D.48723
E.None of these
Q 146 :
The sum of 5 consecutive even number A, B, C, D and E is 410. What is the product of A and E ?
A.6708
B.6880
C.6552
D.Cannot be determined
E.None of these
Q 147 :
The product of two consecutive odd number is 6399. What is the smaller number ?
A.83
B.79
C.81
D.77
E.None of these
Q 148 :
If the fractions are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will be the fourth ?
E.None of these
Q 149 :
What is 394 times 113 ?
A.44402
B.44632
C.44802
D.44522
E.None of these
Q 150 :
What is the least number to be added to 7700 to make it a perfect square ?
A.131
B.221
C.77
D.98
E.None of these
General Hindi
Q 151 :
'ऋ' अर् में बदलता है -
A. गुण संधि के अनुसार
B. यण संधि के अनुसार
C. वृद्धि संधि के अनुसार
D. अयादि संधि के अनुसार
Q 152 :
निम्न में कौनसा नासिक्य व्यंजन है -
A. त्
B. न्
C. द्
D. भ्
Q 153 :
निम्न में से उत्क्षिप्त व्यंजन है -
A. ल
B. ष
C. ड़
D. न
Q 154 :
निम्न में से अल्प प्राण नहीं है -
A. ख
B. ग
C. च
D. द
Q 155 :
तालव्य व्यंजन है-
A. ट ड द ढ
B. च छ ज झ
C. त थ द ध
D. प फ ब भ
Q 156 :
'अ' स्वर का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है -
A. मूर्धा
B. कण्ठ
C. तालु
D. ओष्ठ
Q 157 :
निम्लखित मे कंट- तालव्य स्वर कौनसे है ?
A. ए - ऐ
B. ए - ओ
C. ए - ऊ
D. त - द
Q 158 :
जो धातु या शब्द के अंत में जोड़ा जाता है उसे कहते है ?
A. समास
B. अव्यय
C. उपसर्ग
D. प्रत्यय
Q 159 :
प्रख्यात में प्रयुक्त उपसर्ग है -
A. प्र
B. त
C. प्रख
D. आत
Q 160 :
'साखी' शब्द का तत्सम रूप है -
A. सखी
B. शाखा
C. राखी
D. साक्षी
Q 161 :
किस क्रम में वृत्तमुखी स्वर नहीं है -
A. आ
B. ऊँ
C. ओ
D. औ
Q 162 :
उपसर्ग का प्रयोग होता है -
A. शब्द के आदि में
B. शब्द के मध्य में
C. शब्द के अंत में
D. इनमे से कोई नहीं
Q 163 :
'पंडित दूध पीता है' इस वाक्य में कारक है -
A. कर्म, करण
B. सम्प्रदान, सम्बन्ध
C. कर्ता, कर्म
D. इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q 164 :
'ने' किस कारक का चिह्न है -
A. कर्ता
B. करण
C. सम्प्रदान
D. कर्म
Q 165 :
'वह जहाँ चाहे, जाये; मुझे क्या लेना-देना।' यह कैसा वाक्य है -
A. संयुक्त वाक्य
B. सरल वाक्य
C. मिश्रित वाक्य
D. संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य
Q 166 :
व्याकरण के नियमानुसार किस वाक्य में पदक्रम सही है -
A. रावण को राम ने मारा।
B. राम ने रावण को मारा।
C. मारा राम ने रावण को।
D. संयुक्त-मिश्रित वाक्य।
Q 167 :
'अधिकरण' कारक का चिह्न है -
A. अरे
B. में
C. से
D. को
Q 168 :
स्वर होते हैं -
A. घोष
B. अघोष
C. अल्पप्राण
D. महाप्राण
Q 169 :
निम्नलिखित में से वर्त्स्य है -
A. ल्
B. ड
C. ढ़
D. स्
Q 170 :
'दित्व' का प्रयोग किस शब्द में नहीं हुआ है ?
A. सच्चा
B. कुत्ता
C. बल्गा
D. बग्गा
Q 171 :
उच्चारण स्थान की दृष्टि से इनमें कौनसा व्यंजन तालव्य है
A. त
B. प
C. ज
D. ब
Q 172 :
पंचांग शब्द में उच्चरित ध्वनियों का लेखन निम्नलिखित में से किसमें हुआ -
A. पन्चाङग
B. पञ्चान्य
C. पङ्चाङ्ग
D. पच्चाड़ग
Q 173 :
निम्नलिखित में से कौनसा कथन गलत है ?
A. 'ध' सघोष, महाप्राण, दन्त्य है।
B. 'ब' सघोष, ओष्ट्य, महाप्राण है।
C. 'च' अघोष, तालव्य, अल्प्राण है।
D. 'ख' कंदय, महाप्राण अघोष
Q 174 :
किस क्रमांक वाली ध्वनि अक्षर ध्वनि है ?
A. ष
B. इ
C. च
D. त
Q 175 :
स्वर रहित 'र' का प्रयोग हुआ है -
A. ट्रक में
B. पुनर्निर्माण में
C. त्राटक में
D. शत्रु में
Q 176 :
यदि नीचे का होठ पूरी तरह काट दिया जाये तो किस ध्वनि के उच्चारण में कठिनाई होगी?
A. ल
B. ब
C. ध
D. ख
Q 177 :
उत्क्षिप्त ध्वनि का प्रयोग हुआ है -
A. आरजू में
B. खसरा में
C. पढ़ाई में
D. ज़फर में
Q 178 :
संयुक्तों को छोड़कर हिन्दी में मूल वर्णों की संख्या कितनी है?
A. 36
B. 44
C. 48
D. 53
Q 179 :
किस क्रमांक में 'ई' स्वर का सही उच्चारण स्थान है ?
A. कण्ठ
B. तालु
C. ओष्ठ
D. मूर्धा
Q 180 :
निम्नलिखित ध्वनियों में से बताइये कि कौनसा वर्ण औष्ठ्य नहीं है -
A. म
B. प
C. फ
D. ञ
Q 181 :
निम्नलिखित शब्दों में से उस शब्द को चुनिए जिसमें अनुस्वार का प्रयोग होता है -
A. सगंति
B. अत्यंत
C. पंङित
D. पजांब
Q 182 :
'ए' , 'ऐ' वर्ण क्या कहलाते हैं ?
A. नासिक्य
B. मुर्द्धन्य
C. ओष्ठ्य
D. कंठ-तालव्य
Q 183 :
"क्ष" ध्वनि किसके अन्तर्गत आती है ?
A. मूल शब्द
B. घोष वर्ण
C. संयुक्त वर्ण
D. तालव्य
Q 184 :
इनमें संयुक्त व्यंजन कौनसा है ?
A. ढ
B. ज्ञ
C. कृ
D. ड़
Q 185 :
वर्ण कितने प्रकार के हैं?
A. एक
B. दो
C. तीन
D. चार
Q 186 :
'ज्ञ' किसके योग से बना है ?
A. ज् + ग
B. ज् + अ
C. ग + य
D. ज् + ञ
Q 187 :
किस क्रमांक में सघोष व्यंजन है ?
A. क, ख
B. य, र
C. त, थ
D. प, फ
Q 188 :
किस क्रमांक में अन्तस्थ व्यंजन है ?
A. श, स
B. र, ल
C. ट, ढ
D. व, स
Q 189 :
किस क्रमांक में स्पर्श व्यंजन नहीं है ?
A. ष, ह
B. ख, ग
C. त,थ
D. द, ध
Q 190 :
'प' और 'फ' का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है?
A. कंठ्य
B. तालव्य
C. दन्त्य
D. ओष्ठ्य
Q 191 :
किस क्रम में अघोष व्यंजन है ?
A. य, र
B. व, ह
C. ड,ण
D. श, स
Q 192 :
किस व्यंजन के उच्चारण में जिह्वा तालु से नहीं टकराती है ?
A. च
B. य
C. घ
D. श
Q 193 :
किस क्रमांक में अन्तस्थ वर्ण नहीं है ?
A. य
B. व
C. प
D. र
Q 194 :
किस क्रमांक में मूल स्वर है ?
A. उ
B. ई
C. औ
D. ए
Q 195 :
किस क्रमांक में मूर्धन्य व्यंजन हैं ?
A. च
B. ख
C. प
D. ट
Q 196 :
किस क्रमांक में अघोष व्यंजन है ?
A. त,थ
B. न, ब
C. ट, ठ
D. व, ह
Q 197 :
किस शब्द की संधि सही है -
A. स्त्री + उचित = स्त्रीयोचित
B. नदी + अर्पण = नद्यार्पण
C. एक + एक = एकेक
D. पितृ + अनुमति = पित्रनुमति
Q 198 :
किस क्रम में सघोष महाप्राण काकल्य व्यंजन है?
A. क
B. छ
C. ह
D. ल
Q 199 :
किस क्रम में ड़, ढ़ व्यंजन के लिए सटीक बात कहीं गई है ?