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Latest UKPSC Administrative Services Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : GK
Question Bank Uttarakhand Administrative Service Prelims Exam Paper I - English
GK
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A.National Income Committee
B.Planning Commission
C.Reserve Bank Of India
D.Central Statistical Organisation
Q 12 :
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A.April 1951
B.April 1955
C.April 1957
D.April 1978
Q 13 :
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A.2008
B.2009
C.2010
D.2012
Q 14 :
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A.treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B.Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C.attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D.increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Q 15 :
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A.President
B.Prime Minister
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 16 :
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A.they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B.they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C.they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D.their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Q 17 :
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A.Dutt committee
B.Lakdawala committee
C.Cheliah Committee
D.Chakravorty Committee
Q 18 :
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A.1975
B.1981
C.1991
D.2000
Q 19 :
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A.1,2 and 3
B.1,2 and 4
C.1,3 and 4
D.2,3 and 4
Q 20 :
When was first human development report of India issued
A.April 2001
B.March 2000
C.June 2002
D.April 2002
Q 21 :
How many censuses have been carried out since independence
A.5
B.6
C.7
D.8
Q 22 :
For which year the latest census is being conducted in India
A.2001
B.2010
C.2012
D.2011
Q 23 :
Which of the following are the features of 12th Five Year Plan -
1. Average growth target has been set up 8.2%
2. Areas of main thrust are infrastructure, health and education
3. it seeks to achieve 4% agriculture sector growth during five year period
A.1 only
B.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
D.1,2, and 3
Q 24 :
The period of 12th Five Year Plan
A.2007-12
B.2008-13
C.2010-15
D.2012-17
Q 25 :
A closed economy is an economy in which
A.the money supply is fully controlled
B.deficit financing takes place
C.only exports take place
D.neither exports nor imports take place
Q 26 :
Consider the following statements
1. a plan for the current year which includes the annual budget
2. a plan for a fixed number of years, say 34, and 5
3. it is revised every year as per requirements of the economy
4. A perspective plan for 10,15 or 20 years
Which of the above are correct
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.2 and 3
D.1,2,3 and 4
Q 27 :
In the context of Indian Economy consider the following pairs
Term Most Appropriate Description
1. Melt Down Fall in stock prices
2. Recession Fall in growth rate
3. Slow down Fall in GDP
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
A.1 only
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 3
D.1,2 and 3
Q 28 :
Deficit finacing means that the government borrows money from the
A.IMF
B.RBI
C.Local bodies
D.Big Businessmen
Q 29 :
In the context of India’s Five Year Plan a shift in the pattern of industrialization with lower emphasis on heavy industries and more on infrastructure begins in
A.4th plan
B.6th plan
C.8th plan
D.10th plan
Q 30 :
Which of the following is/are an indicator of the financial health of a country
1. GDP 2. PPP
3. FDI in a year
A.only 1
B.only 2
C.only 3
D.1,2 and 3
Q 31 :
Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission
A.Members and vice chairman of it do not have fixed working duration
B.it is not defined in Indian Constitution
C.Members do not require any minimum education
D.all of these
Q 32 :
__________ is the exofficio chairman of Planning Commission and National Development Council
A.Prime Minister
B.President
C.Finance Minister
D.Commerce Minister
Q 33 :
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution of different sectors to the Gross Domestic Product of India
A.services Industry- Agriculture
B.Services- Agriculture-Industry
C.Industry-Services-Agriculture
D.Industry-Agriculture-Services
Q 34 :
Which of the following is NOT a function of the Planning Commission of India
A.Assessment of the material ,capital and human resources of the country
B.formulation of plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of country’s resources
C.public cooperation in national development
D.preparation of annual budget of the country and collection of taxes to raise capital for the implementation of the plan
Q 35 :
Who among the following was the first Chairman of the Planning Commisison
A.Rajendra Prasad
B.Jawahar Lal Nehru
C.Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
D.J.B.Kriplani
Q 36 :
Which of the statements given below is/are correct
1. Food for Work Programme was launched in India during the 10th Five Year Plan
2. The Planning Commission in India is a constitutional body
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.both 1 and 2
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 37 :
The 11th Five Year Plan strategy to raise agricultural output envisages which of the following
1. Greater attention to land reforms
2. double the rate of growth of irrigated area
3. promote animal husbandary and fishery
4. interest free credit to the farmers
Select the correct answer
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.1,2 and 3
D.2 and 4
Q 38 :
What is the period of 11th Five Year Plan
A.2006-11
B.2007-12
C.2008-13
D.2009-14
Q 39 :
In which one of the following Five Year Plan the actual growth performance in India in respect of GDP was less than the target set
A.6th Five Year Plan
B.7th Five Year Plan
C.8th Five Year Plan
D.9th Five Year Plan
Q 40 :
Who of the following was the author of the chapter on 'Objectives of planned development' for the 3rd Five Year Plan
A.Morarji Desai
B.C.D.Deshmukh
C.Jawahar Lal Nehru
D.Lal Bahadur Shashtri
Q 41 :
During which five year plan was the total expenditure on agriculture the highest
A.1st five year plan
B.2nd five year plan
C.3rd five year plan
D.4th five year plan
Q 42 :
What is the correct sequence of the following strategies used for five year plan in India
1. balanced growth 2. Rehabilitation of the economy
3. industrial development
A.1,3,2
B.2,1,3
C.2,3,1
D.3,2,1
Q 43 :
The steel plants at Durgapur, bhilai and Rourkela were established during the period of
A.1st five year plan
B.2nd five year plan
C.3rd five year plan
D.4th five year plan
Q 44 :
The second five year plan laid more stress upon
A.agriculture
B.industrialization
C.removing poverty
D.self reliance
Q 45 :
In which of the five year plan preference ws given to the weaker sections of the society
A.2nd
B.3rd
C.4th
D.5th
Q 46 :
Which one fo the following Five year plan recognized human development as the core of all developmental efforts
A.the 3rd five year plan
B.the 5th five year plan
C.the 6th five year plan
D.the 8th five year plan
Q 47 :
The growth rate of agricultural production was negative in the
A.first plan
B.second plan
C.third plan
D.fourth plan
Q 48 :
The basic feature of the Rolling Plans was that
A.major development projects were to be completed in the stipulated period
B.revision of the achievements of previous year
C.annual fluctuations in prices and major economic developments could be considered while fixing targets
D.no financial target except in the term of annual plans was envisaged
Q 49 :
A rolling plan was a plan for
A.one year
B.three year
C.five year
D.year to year basis
Q 50 :
The strategy of Rolling Plan was adopted during the Prime Ministership of
A.Lal Bahadur Shastri
B.Indira Gandhi
C.Morarji Desai
D.Rajiv Gandhi
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Uttarakhand Administrative Service Prelims Exam Paper I - English
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Uttarakhand Administrative Service Prelims Exam Paper 2 - English
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Uttarakhand Administrative Service Prelims Exam Paper 2 - Hindi
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Uttarakhand Administrative Service Prelims Exam Paper I Question Bank Book - English
Consider the following
1. Launching of 4th year plan was postponed and three annual plans had to be resorted to between 1966-1969
2. 5th year plan was terminated a year earlier
3. 8th five year plan commenced in 1996 instead of 1990
Which of these statements are correct
A.2 and 3
B.1 and 2
C.1 and 3
D.1,2 and 3
Q 53 :
What is the correct duration of revised by
A.1975-80
B.1977-82
C.1979-84
D.1980-85
Q 54 :
Success of 4th plan was obstructed by
A.Poor monsoon
B.war with Pakistan
C.problem of Bagaldesh refugees
D.All of the above
Q 55 :
Match the following
List-I List-II
Year of the Great Divide 1. 1950
Industrial Policy Resolution 2. 1921
Setting up of planning commission 3. 1969
Nationalisation of 14 commercial banks 4. 1956
A.2 4 1 3
B.4 3 1 2
C.2 1 3 4
D.1 3 4 2
Q 56 :
In India, the concepts of minimum heeds and directed anti poverty programmes were the innovation of
A.4th Five Yar Plan
B.5th Five Yar Plan
C.6th Five Yar Plan
D.7th Five Yar Plan
Q 57 :
Put in chronological order the following special features of differenct Five Year Plan as they were first formulated
1. Mahalanobis Strategy 2.Modernisation
3. Removal of Poverty 4. Emphasis on employment generation
A.1,2,3,4
B.2,1,3,4
C.1,3,2,4
D.3,4,1,2
Q 58 :
In which plan was the growth rate target exceeded
A.first
B.Fifth
C.Sixth
D.None of these
Q 59 :
India had a plan holiday
A.after the China India war of 1962
B.after the drought of 1966
C.after the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971
D.after the India Pakistan war in 1965
Q 60 :
Community Development Programme was launched during
A.First Five Year Plan
B.Second Five Year Paln
C.Fourth Five Year Plan
D.Fifth Five Year Plan
Q 61 :
In ruby laser, the stimulated emission is due to transition from
A.metastable state to any lower state
B.any higher state of lower state
C.metastable state to ground state
D.any higher state to ground state
Q 62 :
A direct current I flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe, then the magnetic field is
A.uniform throughout the pipe not zero
B.zero only along the axis of the pipe
C.zero at any point inside the pipe
D.maximum at the centre and minimum at the edge
Q 63 :
convex lens made of glass has focal length 0.15m in air. If the refractive index of glass is 3/2, and that of water is 4/3 the focal length of lens when immersed in water is
A.0.45 m
B.0.15 m
C.0.30 m
D.0.6 m
Q 64 :
Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A.having a constant phase difference
B.of equal wavelength
C.of equal speed
D.having same shape of wavefront
Q 65 :
Three resistors 1 รขโยฆ, 2 รขโยฆ, 3รขโยฆ resistor a 3 V battery is connected. The current through 3 รขโยฆ resistor is -
A.0.75 A
B.1 A
C.2 A
D.1.5 A
Q 66 :
In a common emitter amplifier the input signal is applied across
A.anywhere
B.emitter-collector
C.collector-base
D.base-emitter
Q 67 :
Adding detergents to water helps in removing dirty greasy stains. This is because
1. It increases greasy stains. This is because
2. It decreases the oil-water surface tension
3. It increases the viscosity of the solution
4. Dirt is held suspended surrounded by detergent molecules
A.2 and 4
B.1 only
C.3 and 4
D.4 only
Q 68 :
Choose the correct statement (a) for a cricket ball that is spinning clockwise through air
S1 : Statemlines of air are symmetric around the ball.
S2 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is larger than that below the ball.
S3 : The velocity of air above the ball relative to it is smaller than that below the ball.
S4 : There is a net upward force on the ball.
A.S1,S2 and S4
B.S2 and S4
C.S4 only
D.S3 only
Q 69 :
Ferromagnetic materials used in a transformer must have
A.low permeability and high hysterisis loss
B.high permeability and low hysterisis loss
C.high permeability and high hysterisis loss
D.low permeability and low hysterisis loss
Q 70 :
According to Newton’s corpuscular theory, the speed of light is
A.same in all the medium
B.lesser in rarer medium
C.lesser in denser medium
D.independent of the medium
Q 71 :
For the constructive interference the path difference between the two interfering waves must be equal to
A.(2รฐยลโน + 1)λ
B.2nรฐยลโน
C.nλ
D.n
Q 72 :
The accurate measurement of emf can be obtained using
A.multimeter
B.voltmeter
C.voltameter
D.potentiometer
Q 73 :
A person, with outstretched arms, is spinning on a rotating stool. He suddenly brings his arms down to his sides. Which the following is true about his kinetic energy K and angular momentum L?
A.Both K and L increase
B.Both K and L remain unchanged
C.K remains constant, L increases
D.K increases but L remains constant
Q 74 :
Which of the following is not a thermodynamic coordinate?
A.Gas constant (R)
B.Pressure (p)
C.Volume (V)
D.Temperature (T)
Q 75 :
An antenna uses electromagnetic waves of frequency 5 MHz . For proper working, the size of the antenna should be
A.300 m
B.3 km
C.15 m
D.15 km
Q 76 :
The amount of energy released when one microgram of matter is annihilated is
A.25 kWh
B.9 x 1010 kWh
C.3 x 1010 kWh
D.0.5 x 105 kWh
Q 77 :
The number of significant figures in the numbers 4.8000 x 104 48000.50 are respectively
A.5 and 6
B.5 and 7
C.2 and 7
D.2 and 6
Q 78 :
β-decay means emission of electron from
A.innermost electron orbit
B.a stable nucleus
C.outermost electron orbit
D.radioactive nucleus
Q 79 :
An electric heater rated 220 V and 550 W is connected to AC mains. The current drawn by it is
A.0.8 A
B.2.5 A
C.0.4 A
D.1.25 A
Q 80 :
A string is wound round the rim of a mounted flywheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord. Neglecting friction and mass of the string, the angular acceleration of the wheel is
A.50 s-2
B.25 s-2
C.12.5 s-2
D.6.25 s-2
Q 81 :
10-6 M NaOH is diluted 100 times. The pH of the diluted base is
A.between 7 and 8
B.between 5 and 6
C.between 6 and 7
D.between 10 and 11
Q 82 :
In the electrolysis of acidulated water, it is desired to obtain 1.12 cc of hydrogen per second under STP condition. The current to be passed is
A.1.93 A
B.9.65 A
C.19.3 A
D.0.965 A
Q 83 :
The one which decreases with dilution is
A.molar conductance
B.conductance
C.specific conductance
D.equivalent conductance
Q 84 :
Vapour pressure of pure ‘A’ is 70 mm of Hg at 25oC. It forms an ideal solution with ‘B’ in which mole fraction of A is 0.8. if the vapour pressure of the solution is 84 mm of Hg at 25oC, the vapour pressure of pure ‘B’ at 25oC is
A.28 mm
B.56 mm
C.70 mm
D.140 mm
Q 85 :
A 6% solution of urea is isotonic with
A.1 M solution of glucose
B.0.05 M solution of glucose
C.6% solution of glucose
D.25% solution of glucose
Q 86 :
In countries nearer to polar region, the roads are sprinkled with CaCl2. This is
A.to minimise the wear and tear of the roads
B.to minimise the snow fall
C.to minimise pollution
D.to minimise the accumulation of dust on the road
Q 87 :
A compound of ‘A’ and ‘B’ crystallises in a cubic lattice in which ‘A’ atoms occupy the lattice points at the corners of the cube. The ‘B’ atoms occupy the centre of each face of the cube. The probable empirical formula of the compound is
A.AB2
B.A2B
C.AB
D.AB3
Q 88 :
In electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction, the nitro group is meta directing because it
A.decreases electron density at ortho and para positions
B.decreases electron density at meta position
C.increases electron density at meta position
D.increases electron density at ortho and para position
Q 89 :
The best method for the conversion of an alcohol into an alkyl chloride is by treating the alcohol with
A.PCI5
B.PCI3
C.SOCl2 in presence of pyridine
D.dry HCl in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
Q 90 :
The carbon bond length in benzene is
A.in between C2H6 and C2H4
B.same as in C2H4
C.in between C2H6 and C2H2
D.in between C2H4 and C2H2
Q 91 :
The compound which is not formed during the dry distillation of a mixture of calcium formate and calcium acetate is
A.methanal
B.propanal
C.propanone
D.ethanal
Q 92 :
An organic compound x is oxidised by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts with phenyl hydrazine but does not answer silver mirror test. The possible structured of X is
A.CH3CH2OH
B.CH3 – C – CH3
C.(CH3)2CHOH
D.CH3CHO
Q 93 :
Arrange the following in the increasing of their. Basic strengths CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, NH3
A.NH3, < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
B.NH3 < (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
C.(CH3)3N < NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
D.CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N , NH3
Q 94 :
The one which has least iodine value is
A.sunflower oil
B.ginger oil
C.ghee
D.groundnut oil
Q 95 :
A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always, because
A.glucose reduces the blood sugar level slowly
B.glucose increases the blood sugar level slowly
C.glucose reduces the blood sugar level
D.glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously
Q 96 :
There are 20 naturally occurring among acids. The maximum number of tripeptides than can be obtained is
A.8000
B.6470
C.7465
D.5360
Q 97 :
At what temperature ill the RMS velocity of SO2 be the same as that of O2 at 303 K ?
A.403 K
B.303 K
C.606 K
D.273 K
Q 98 :
Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken well. The white precipitate formed during the process is
A.m–bromophenol
B.2, 4, 6 tribromophenol
C.2-4 dibromophenol
D.A mixture of o-and p-bromophenols
Q 99 :
In thermite process the metal used as reducing agent is:
A.Nickel
B.Zinc
C.Sodium
D.Aluminium
Q 100 :
Which of the following compounds on boiling with alkaline KMnO4 and subsequent acidification will not give benzoic acid?
A.Benzyl alcohol
B.Acetophenone
C.Anisole
D.Toluene
Q 101 :
The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on
A.the nature of enzymes involved
B.the nature of the substrate
C.the amount of carbon dioxide released
D.the amount of oxygen utilised
Q 102 :
Which of the following is not a green - house gas ?
A.Water vapour
B.Carbon monoxide
C.Methane
D.Oxygen
Q 103 :
Both husband and wife have normal vision though their fathers were colorblind and mothers did not have any gene for colorblindness. The probability of their daughters becoming colorblind is
A.50%
B.75%
C.0%
D.25%
Q 104 :
An animal, which has both exoskeleton and endoskeleton structures is a
A.fresh-water mussel
B.tortoise
C.frog
D.jelly fish
Q 105 :
Identify the group, which includes animals all of which give birth to young ones directly?
A.Dolphin, kangaroo, bat, cat
B.Platypus, penguin, bat, hippopotamus
C.shrew, bat, kiwi, car
D.Lion, whale, ostrich, bat
Q 106 :
Compare the statement A and B. Statement A Blood sugar level falls rapidly after hepatectomy. Statement B The glycogen of the liver is the principal source of blood sugar.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is the reason for A
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and B is not the reason for A
Q 107 :
What is/are true about heart wood?
(A) It does not help in water conduction.
(B) It is also called laburnum.
(C) It is dark in colour but very soft.
(D) It has tracheary elements which are filled with tannin, resin, etc.
A.B,C and D
B.A and D
C.B and D
D.A, B and C
Q 108 :
Compare the statements A and B. Statement A Auxins promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral buds. Statement B In moriculature, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.
Select the correct description.
A.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is the reason for B
B.Statement A is correct and B is wrong
C.Statement A is wrong and B is correct
D.Both the statements A and B are correct and A is not the reason for B
Q 109 :
Bryophytes resemble algae is the following aspects
A.Filamentous body, presence of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
B.Differentiation of plant body into root, stem and leaves and autotrophic nutrition
C.Thallus like plant body, presence of roots and autotrophic nutrition
D.Thallus like plant body, lack of vascular tissues and autotrophic nutrition
Q 110 :
Stoma opens, when
A.guard cells swell due to an increase in their water potential
B.guard cells swell by endosmosis duie to influx of hydrogen ions (protons)
C.guard cells swell by endosmosis due to efflux of potassium ions
D.guard cell swell due to a decrease in their water potential
Q 111 :
Which of the following is properly matched ?
A.Platyhelminthes –Trematoda – Planoria
B.Echinodermate – Asteroidea – Star fish
C.arthropoda – Insecta – Spider
D.Mollusca – Cephalopoda – Unio
Q 112 :
A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low body temperature, loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain scan would probably show a tumour in
A.medulla oblongata
B.pons
C.cerebellum
D.hypothalamus
Q 113 :
The agents, which are known to cause CJD are
A.protein particles
B.a class of bacteria
C.a class of viruses
D.fungi
Q 114 :
In crop improvement programmers, virus-free clones can be obtained through
A.grafting
B.hybridization
C.embryo culture
D.shoot apex culture
Q 115 :
A person is suffering from frequent episodes of nasal discharge, nasal congestion, reddening of eyes and watery eyes. These are the symptoms of
A.cyanosis
B.bronchitis
C.rhinitis
D.bronchial carcinoma
Q 116 :
Some important events in the human female reproductive cycle are given below. Arrange the events in a proper sequence.
A: Secretion of FSH
B: Growth of corpus luteum
C: Growth of the follicle and oogenesis
D: Ovulation
E: Sudden increase in the levels of LH
A.C → A → D → B → E
B.A → C → E → D → B
C.A → D → C → E → B
D.B → A → C → D → E
Q 117 :
Which of the following options shows bisexual animals only ?
A.Amoeba, sponge, leech
B.Sponge, cockroach, Amoeba
C.Earthworm, sponge, leech
D.Tapeworm, earthworm, honeybee
Q 118 :
Vaccination against small pox was developed by:
A.Louis Pasteur
B.Edward jenner
C.Robert Koch
D.Alexander Flemming
Q 119 :
The value of human diastolic blood pressure is :
A.120 – 80 = 40 mm. Hg
B.120 mm. Hg
C.80 mm. Hg
D.128/80 mm. Hg
Q 120 :
Balance theory of sex determination holds good for:
A.Allium cepa
B.Drosophila
C.Humans
D.grasshoppers
Q 121 :
Who among the following was appointed as the new Director of the Financial Intelligence UnitโIndia (FIU-IND) recently?
A.Satya Pal Kumar
B.Pankaj Kumar Mishra
C.Anurag Jain
D.Raj Kumar Goyal
Q 122 :
Tejaswin Shankar made history at the Commonwealth Games 2026 by winning Indiaโs first medal in which event?
A.Decathlon
B.High Jump
C.Long Jump
D.Pole Vault
Q 123 :
Renowned mountaineer Nirmal โNimsdaiโ Purja died in an avalanche on which peak in JulyโAugust 2026?
A.K2
B.Broad Peak
C.Nanga Parbat
D.Gasherbrum I
Q 124 :
Which airport was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi near Visakhapatnam in early August 2026?
A.Bhogapuram International Airport
B.Vizag Greenfield Airport
C.Andhra Pradesh International Airport
D.Alluri Sitarama Raju International Airport
Q 125 :
Heavy rains and landslides in Kerala in early August 2026 resulted in approximately how many deaths (as reported around 2โ3 August)?
A.2
B.8
C.5
D.15
Q 126 :
Indian Organ Donation Day is observed every year on which date?
A.13 August
B.3 August
C.1 August
D.15 August
Q 127 :
DSV Nipun has an approximate length of:
A.80 metres
B.100 metres
C.150 metres
D.118 metres
Q 128 :
The FIFA World Cup 2026 will be the first to feature how many teams?
A.32
B.40
C.48
D.64
Q 129 :
A recent Russian missile attack on Kyiv (reported around 1 August 2026) resulted in:
A.No casualties
B.At least 3 killed and 15 injured
C.Complete destruction of the city centre
D.Capture of Ukrainian territory
Q 130 :
Who is the current Chairman of ISRO (as of 2026)?
A.V. Narayanan
B.S. Somanath
C.K. Sivan
D.A.S. Kiran Kumar
Q 131 :
Who is the current Chairman of SEBI (as of 2026)?
A.Tuhin Kanta Pandey
B.Madhabi Puri Buch
C.Ajay Tyagi
D.U.K. Sinha
Q 132 :
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act was originally enacted in which year?
A.2024
B.2023
C.2022
D.2025
Q 133 :
Which of the following is a key feature of DSV Nipun?
A.Aircraft carrier capability
B.Nuclear propulsion
C.Saturation diving and submarine rescue systems
D.Ballistic missile launch
Q 134 :
Which of the following is correct regarding Indiaโs retail inflation measurement?
A.WPI is the primary retail measure
B.Inflation is not officially measured
C.Only food inflation is tracked
D.CPI is the primary retail measure used by RBI
Q 135 :
In the Commonwealth Games 2026 menโs javelin final, who won the bronze medal for India?
A.Yash Vir Singh
B.Neeraj Chopra
C.Kishore Jena
D.Rohit Yadav
Q 136 :
The Indian Navy recently received its second indigenous Diving Support Vessel (DSV). What is its name?
A.Nistar
B.Nipun
C.INS Vikrant
D.INS Arihant
Q 137 :
The Public Examinations Amendment Bill 2026 increases the maximum imprisonment for individuals involved in paper leaks to:
A.3 years
B.5 years
C.10 years
D.7 years
Q 138 :
Approximate indigenous content in DSV Nipun is:
A.50%
B.60%
C.Over 80%
D.100%
Q 139 :
The second indigenous Diving Support Vessel โNipunโ was delivered at which location?
A.Mumbai
B.Kochi
C.Visakhapatnam
D.Kolkata
Q 140 :
Which body decides the Repo Rate in India?
A.Finance Ministry
B.SEBI
C.RBIโs Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
D.NITI Aayog
Q 141 :
Indiaโs retail inflation is primarily measured using which index?
A.CPI
B.WPI
C.GDP Deflator
D.IIP
Q 142 :
Which institution publishes the Global Innovation Index?
A.World Bank
B.IMF
C.WIPO
D.WTO
Q 143 :
In the Commonwealth Games 2026 javelin final, the gold medal was won by an athlete from:
A.Sri Lanka
B.Australia
C.India
D.England
Q 144 :
Exercise Tarang Shakti is associated with which arm of the Indian Armed Forces?
A.Indian Army
B.Indian Navy
C.Indian Coast Guard
D.Indian Air Force
Q 145 :
Which ministry implements the PM-KISAN Scheme?
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Rural Development
C.Ministry of Agriculture & Farmersโ Welfare
D.Ministry of Food Processing Industries
Q 146 :
The RBI continues to promote which system specifically for small-value digital transactions?
A.RTGS
B.NEFT
C.UPI Lite
D.IMPS
Q 147 :
Which organisation released the Global Tiger Recovery Report 2026?
A.UNEP
B.WWF
C.Global Tiger Forum
D.IUCN
Q 148 :
India became which numbered WTO member to accept the Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies (as per recent updates)?
A.120th
B.121st
C.123rd
D.125th
Q 149 :
Who won the silver medal in the menโs javelin throw at the Commonwealth Games 2026 held in Glasgow?
A.Yash Vir Singh
B.Neeraj Chopra
C.Kishore Jena
D.Rohit Yadav
Q 150 :
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026, was passed by the Rajya Sabha on which date?
