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Question Bank

Question for USET Chemical Science - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 180 · Questions: 100 · Max Marks: 200

View USET Chemical Science 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in USET Chemical Science exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in USET Chemical Science exams.

Latest USET Chemical Science Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Chemical Sciences

Question Bank Uttarakhand SET Chemical Science Exam - English

Chemical Sciences

Q 1 :
Each of the following pairs of words hides a number, based on which you can arrange them in ascending order. Pick the correct answer :
I. Cloth reel
J. Silent wonder 
K. Good tone 
L. Bronze rod
  1. A.L, K, J, I
  2. B.I, J, K, L
  3. C.K, L, J, I
  4. D.K, J, I, L
Q 2 :
Which of the following values is same as ?
  1. A.26
  2. B.28
  3. C.216
  4. D.2222
Q 3 :
A 12 m × 4 m rectangular roof is resting on four 4 m tall thin poles. Sunlight falls on the roof at an angle of 45° from the east, creating a shadow on the ground. What will be the area of the shadow?
  1. A.24 m2
  2. B.36 m2
  3. C.48 m2
  4. D.60 m2
Q 4 :
If Here a, b, c and d are digits.Then a + b =
  1. A.4
  2. B.9
  3. C.11
  4. D.16
Q 5 :
The maximum number of points formed by intersection of all pairs of diagonals of convex octagon is
  1. A.70
  2. B.400
  3. C.120
  4. D.190
Q 6 :
Find the height of a box of base area 24 cm × 48 cm, in which the longest stick that can be kept is 56 cm long
  1. A.8 cm
  2. B.32 cm
  3. C.37.5 cm
  4. D.16 cm
Q 7 :
The product of the perimeter of a triangle, the radius of its in-circle, and a number gives the area of the triangle. The number is
  1. A.1/4
  2. B.1/3
  3. C.1/2
  4. D.1
Q 8 :
An infinite row of boxes is arranged. Each box has half the volume of the previous box. If the largest box has a volume of 20 cc, what is the total volume of all the boxes?
  1. A.Infinite
  2. B.400 cc
  3. C.40 cc
  4. D.80 cc
Q 9 :
Find the missing element based on the given pattern
    Q 10 :
    By reading the accompanying graph, deter-1 mine the INCORRECT statement out of the following
    1. A.Melting point increases with pressure
    2. B.Melting point decreases with pressure
    3. C.Boiling point increases with pressure
    4. D.Solid, liquid and gas can co-exist at the same pressure and temperature
    Q 11 :
    If you change only one observation from a set of 10 observations, which of the following will definitely change?
    1. A.Mean
    2. B.Median
    3. C.Mode
    4. D.Standard deviation
    Q 12 :
    A man starts his journey at 0100 Hrs. local time to reach another country at 0900 Hrs local time on the same date. He starts a return journey on the same night at 2100 Hrs. local time to his original place, taking the same time to travel back. If the time zone of his country of visit lags by 10 hours, the duration for which the man was away from his place is
    1. A.48 hours
    2. B.20 hours
    3. C.25 hours
    4. D.36 hours
    Q 13 :
    Let r be a positive number satisfying
    1. A.2
    2. B.2(4321/1234)
    3. C.23087
    4. D.21234
    Q 14 :
    A float is drifting in a river, 10 m downstream of a boat that can be rowed at a speed of 10 m/minute in still water. If the boat is rowed downstream, the time taken to catch up with the float
    1. A.will be 1 minute
    2. B.will be more than 1 min
    3. C.will be less than 1 min
    4. D.can be determined only if the speed of the river is known
    Q 15 :
    ABC is a right angled triangle inscribed in a semicircle. Smaller semicircles are drawn on sides BC and AC. If the area of the triangle is a, what is the total area of the shaded lumes?
    1. A.a
    2. B.​
    Q 16 :
    An ant can lift another ant of its size whereas an elephant cannot lift another elephant of its size, because
    1. A.ant muscle fibres are stronger than elephant muscle fibres
    2. B.ant has proportionately thicker legs than elephant
    3. C.strength scales as the square of the size while weight scales as cube of the size
    4. D.ants work cooperatively, whereas elephants work as individuals
    Q 17 :
    Consider a series of letters placed in the following way :
    U...G...C...C...S...I...R 
    Each letter moves one step to its right and the extreme right letter takes the first position, completing one operation. After which of the following numbers of operations do the Cs not sit side by side?
    1. A.3
    2. B.10
    3. C.19
    4. D.25
    Q 18 :
    An inclined plane rests against a horizontal cylinder of radius R. If the plane makes an angle of 30° with the ground, the point of contact of the plane with the cylinder is at a height of
    1. A.1.500 R
    2. B.1.866 R
    3. C.1.414 R
    4. D.1.000 R
    Q 19 :
    What is the maximum number of parallel, non-overlapping cricket pitches (length 24 m, width 3 m) that can be laid in a field of diameter 140 m, if the boundary is required to be at least 60 m from the centre of any pitch ? 
    1. A.6
    2. B.7
    3. C.12
    4. D.4
    Q 20 :
    In a fast moving car with open windows, the driver feels a continuous incoming breeze. The pressure inside the car, however, does not keep increasing because
    1. A.air coming in from the front window goes out from the rear
    2. B.air comes in as well as goes out through every window but the driver only feels the incoming one
    3. C.no air actually comes in and the feeling of breeze is an illusion
    4. D.cool air reduces the temperature therefore the pressure does not increase
    Q 21 :
    The biological functions of carbonic anhy-drase and carboxypeptidase A, respectively, are
    1. A.interconversion of CO2 and carbonates and hydrolysis of peptide bond
    2. B.gene regulation and interconversion of CO2 and carbonates
    3. C.gene regulation and hydrolysis of peptide bond
    4. D.interconversion of CO2 and carbonates and gene regulation
    Q 22 :
    Fe-Nporphyrin bond distances in the deoxy- and oxy-haemoglobin, respectively are
    1. A.~ 2.1 and 2.0 Å
    2. B.~ 2.0 and 2.0 Å
    3. C.~ 2.2 and 2.3 Å
    4. D.~ 2.3 and 2.5 Å
    Q 23 :
    he binding modes of NO in 18 electron compounds [Co(CO)3(NO)] and , respectively are
    1. A.linear and bent
    2. B.bent and linear
    3. C.linear and linear
    4. D.bent and bent
    Q 24 :
    The role of copper salt as co-catalyst in Wacker process is
    1. A.oxidation of Pd(0) by Cu(II)
    2. B.oxidation of Pd(0) by Cu(I)
    3. C.oxidation of Pd(II) by Cu(I)
    4. D.oxidation of Pd(II) by Cu(II)
    Q 25 :
    For typical Fischer and Schrock carbenes, consider the following statement
    1. Oxidation state of metal is low in Fischer carbene and high in Schrock carbene.
    2. Auxiliary ligands are p-acceptor in Fischer carbene and non-p-acceptor in Schrock carbene.
    3. Substituents on carbene carbon are non-p-donor in Fischer carbene and p-donor in Schrock carbene.
    4. Carbene carbon is electrophilic in Fischer carbene and nucleophilic in Schrock carbene.
    The correct statements are
    1. A.1, 2 and 3
    2. B.1, 2 and 4
    3. C.2, 3 and 4
    4. D.1, 3 and 4
    Q 26 :
    Consider the following statements regarding the diffusion current at dropping mercury electrode.
    1. It does not depend on mercury flow rate.
    2. It depends on drop time.
    3. It depends on temperature.
    Correct statement(s) is/are
    1. A.1 only
    2. B.2 only
    3. C.1 and 2
    4. D.2 and 3
    Q 27 :
    Q value for the reaction 13N(n, p)13C is 3.236 MeV. The threshold energy (in MeV) for the reaction 13C(p, n)13N is
    1. A.–3.236
    2. B.–3.485
    3. C.3.485
    4. D.3.845
    Q 28 :
    The 119Sn NMR chemical shift (approximately in ppm) corresponding to (relative to Me4Sn) is
    1. A.–4
    2. B.+137
    3. C.+346
    4. D.–2200
    Q 29 :
    All forms of phosphorus upon melting, exist as
    1. C.n(P = P)
    Q 30 :
    For the oxidation state(s) of sulphur atoms in S2O, consider the following
    1. –2 and +4
    2. 0 and +2
    3. +4 and 0
    The correct answer(s) is/are
    1. A.1 and 2
    2. B.1 and 3
    3. C.2 and 3
    4. D.3 only
    Q 31 :
    The correct set of pseudohalide anions is
    1. A.CN–, ClO4–, BF4–, PF6–
    2. B.N3–, NO3–, HSO4–, AsF6–
    3. C.SCN–, PO43–, H2PO4–, N3– 
    4. D.CN–, N3–, SCN–, NCN2–
    Q 32 :
    In transition metal phoshine (M–PR3) complexes, the back-bonding involves donation of electrons from
    1. A.M(t2g) → PR3(ô*)
    2. B.M(t2g) → PR3(ô​*)
    3. C.M(eg) → P(d)
    4. D.PR3() → M(t2g)
    Q 33 :
    The refluxing of RhCl3.3H2O with an excess of PPh3 in ethanol gives a complex A. Complex A and the valence electron count on rhodium are, respectively
    1. A.[RhCl(PPh3)3], 16
    2. B.[RhCl(PPh3)5], 16
    3. C.[RhCl(PPh3)3], 18
    4. D.[RhCl(PPh3)5], 18
    Q 34 :
    The B-hydrogen elimination will be facile in
      Q 35 :
      The reaction 
       follows a/an
      1. A.Interchange dissociative (Id) mechanism
      2. B.Dissociative (D) mechanism
      3. C.Associative (A) mechanism
      4. D.Interchange Associative (Ia) mechanism
      Q 36 :
      Correct statement on the effect of addition of aq. HCl on the equilibrium is
      1. A.Equilibrium will shift towards right case of both A and B
      2. B.Equilibrium will shift towards left in case of both A and B
      3. C.Equilibrium will shift towards right in A and left in case of B
      4. D.Equilibrium will shift towards right in B and left in case of A
      Q 37 :
      The compound that exhibits sharp bands at 3300 and 2150 cm–1 in the IR spectrum is
      1. A.1-butyne
      2. B.2-butyne
      3. C.butyronitrile
      4. D.butylamine
      Q 38 :
      The 1H NMR spectrum of a dilute solution of a mixture of acetone and dichloromethane in CDCl3 exhibits two singlets of 1 : 1 intensity. Molar ratio of acetone to dichloromethane in the solution is
      1. A.3 : 1
      2. B.1 : 3
      3. C.1 : 1
      4. D.1 : 2
      Q 39 :
      Intense band generally observed for a carbonyl group in the IR specturm is due to
      1. A.The force constant of CO bond is large
      2. B.The force constant of CO bond is small
      3. C.There is no change in dipole moment for CO bond stretching
      4. D.The dipole moment change due to CO bond stretching is large
      Q 40 :
      The compound that gives precipitate on warming with aqueous AgNO3 is
        Q 41 :
        Following reaction goes through
        1. A.Free radical intermediate
        2. B.carbanion intermediate
        3. C.carbocation intermediate
        4. D.carbene intermediate
        Q 42 :
        The most stable conformation for the following compound is
          Q 43 :
          The major product formed in the following reaction is
            Q 44 :
            The correct relation between the following compounds is
            1. A.enantiomers
            2. B.diastereomers
            3. C.homomers (identical)
            4. D.constitutional isomers
            Q 45 :
            The correct order of heat of hydrogenation for the following compounds is
            1. A.I      II      III      IV
              I > II > III > IV
            2. B.I > III > II > IV
            3. C.IV > I > III > II
            4. D.IV > II > I > III
            Q 46 :
            Among the following, the correct statement (s) about ribose is (are)
            1. On reduction with NaBH4 it gives optically inactive product.
            2. On reaction with methanolic HCl it gives a furanoside.
            3. On reaction with Br2–CaCO3–water it gives optically inactive product.
            4. It gives positive Tollen’s test.
            1. A.1, 2 and 4
            2. B.1, 2 and 3
            3. C.2 and 3
            4. D.4 only
            Q 47 :
            Biogenetic precursors for the natural product umbelliferone among the following are

            1. L-tryptophan    2. cinnamic acid
            3. L-methionine    4. L-phenylalanine
            1. A.1 and 2
            2. B.2 and 4
            3. C.2 and 3
            4. D.3 and 4
            Q 48 :
            Number of signals in the 13C{H} NMR spectrum of (R)-4-methylpentan-2-ol are
            1. A.3
            2. B.4
            3. C.5
            4. D.6
            Q 49 :
            The major product formed in the following reaction is
              Q 50 :
              The major product formed in the following reaction is

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