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Latest Vijaya Bank Assistant Manager Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English, General English, General Knowledge, Financial Managemant
Question Bank Vijaya Bank Assistant Manager Exam - English
General English
Q 1 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.The principle that
B.a pen is mightier
C.then a sword
D.was known to early Greeks.
E.No error
Q 2 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Martha missed her dog
B.who died of a
C.skin infection at a
D.very young age.
E.No error
Q 3 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.There was such
B.a crowd that
C.he would not
D.find his brother.
E.No error
Q 4 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Having managed the
B.team of two
C.years, he knew
D.his players well.
E.No error
Q 5 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Because of heavy
B.rains the trains
C.are disable to
D.run on time.
E.No error
Q 6 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.The State Government
B.has send reports
C.to the centre
D.on the situation.
E.No error
Q 7 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Whether a person
B.takes to smoking
C.depends a lot
D.in his social network.
E.No error
Q 8 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.Every home and every office
B.needs the latest equipment
C.for keep up
D.with times.
E.No error
Q 9 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.The idea of turning
B.invisible with the
C.swish of clock have
D.always fascinated scientists.
E.No error
Q 10 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
A.She had seen
B.the approaching truck
C.and had jumping
D.out of the way.
E.No error
Q 11 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.No country can long endure
B.if its foundations
C.were not laid deep
D.in the material prosperity.
E.No error
Q 12 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.I went 0 the liberarian and cashier
B.and they gave me
C.all facilities required
D.to complete the project
E.No error
Q 13 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.When she comes
B.to see us
C.she usually were bring
D.somethings with her.
E.No errors
Q 14 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.Why did you
B.not told me
C.that the meeting
D.was postponed.
E.No error
Q 15 :
Direction: Read each sentence to find Out whether here is any grammatical error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number of the part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.He picked up
B.the books
C.and put it
D.on the table.
E.No error
Q 16 :
Direction: In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.Almost
B.two hours have elapsed
C.since he fell
D.asleep.
E.All correct
Q 17 :
Direction: In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.Have you noticed
B.that the country is on the brink
C.of a serious
D.dissaster
E.All correct
Q 18 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.If the worst
B.comes to
C.worst,
D.I will have to bid good bye to my studies and join my family business.
E.No error
Q 19 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.Because of heavy
B.rains the trains
C.are disable to
D.run on time.
E.No error
Q 20 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.The institute
B.imparts training
C.in
D.the French.
E.No error
Q 21 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.Looking forward
B.to meet
C.you
D.soon.
E.No error
Q 22 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (5) (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any)
A.Martha missed her dog
B.who died of a
C.skin infection at a
D.very young age.
E.No error
Q 23 :
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A.Pionear
B.Neighbour
C.Harmony
D.Propriety
E.All correct
Q 24 :
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A.instantly
B.comfortable
C.Enforcement
D.wisedom
E.All correct
Q 25 :
Direction : In each question below, four words which are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4) have been printed, one of which may be wrongly spelt. The number of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt marks (5) i.e. , All correct' as the answer.
A.Enhance
B.Assumption
C.vehical
D.prisoner
E.All correct
English
Q 26 :
As the boat ……………….all those on board fortunately managed to reach the bank of the river………………with the help of the life boats.
A.capsized, drowned
B.fell, harmlessly
C.dropped, uninjured
D.deceased, unhurt
E.sank, safely
Q 27 :
Every six months, the swans would leave a golden feather as a for using the lake. The soldiers of the kingdom in which the lake was, would collect the feathers and deposit them in the royal treasury.
A.treasure
B.interest
C.fee
D.charging
E.money
Q 28 :
Direction : Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer (5) i.e., 'No Error’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any).
A.Mangal Pandey was well known
B.because he was involved
C.1 in the initial stages
D.of the Indian rebellion.
E.No error
Q 29 :
Direction : Question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.The kidnappers
B.asked for ransom
C.and threatened
D.to kill Mr. Gopalan's son if their demands
E.were not met. All Correct
Q 30 :
Direction : Question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.Ramesh spiled
B.juice all over Raj's new
C.clothes and did not even care
D.to apologise.
E.All Correct
Q 31 :
Direction : Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer (5) i.e., 'No Error’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any).
A.​Most of the Indian populations still lives
B.in its villages and thus the contribution of
C.1 agriculture to Indian economy
D.becomes very important.
E.No Error
Q 32 :
Direction : Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer (5) i.e., 'No Error’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any).
A.Catherine's grandfather always
B.lost his balance while walking
C.and would be found fallen
D.on the road.
E.No Error
Q 33 :
Direction : question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.Ravi met
B.with an accidant
C.and broke
D.his leg the day he bought
E.his new car. All Correct
Q 34 :
Direction : question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.Daisy loved
B.children and so she would distrebute
C.sweets in an orphanage
D.on her birthday.
E.All Correct
Q 35 :
Direction : Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer (5) i.e., 'No Error’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any).
A.Her doctor was
B.annoyed because she
C.ignore her health
D.even after being hospitalised twice.
E.No Error
Q 36 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer (5) i.e., 'No Error’. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any).
A.Raghav was worry
B.about telling his parents
C.that he wanted to move out
D.and live independently.
E.No Error
Q 37 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)
A.Reshma was
B.a daily wage worker
C.who gone to work
D.despite having high fever.
E.No Error
Q 38 :
Direction : In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given in each sentence. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold, might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.Ronald was very proud
B.of his new car and would always
C.be on the look out for an excuse
D.to flaunt it.
E.All correct
Q 39 :
Direction : In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given in each sentence. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold, might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.Ramesh had an aversion
B.to alcohol and would
C.avoid going to partyies
D.with his friends.
E.All correct
Q 40 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)
A.Radhika was very upset
B.because she had to goes
C.to a boarding school
D.so she cried the entire night.
E.No Error
Q 41 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)
A.Although Shanku was born
B.in a rich merchant's families
C.he was very humble and
D.was a philanthropist by nature.
E.No Error
Q 42 :
Direction : In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given in each sentence. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold, might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.Lucy was working
B.over time because
C.she had to prepare
D.for an important meating.
E.All correct
Q 43 :
Direction : In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given in each sentence. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold, might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.Roshni was found
B.of pets and she was a proud
C.owner of many unique
D.animals.
E.All correct
Q 44 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)
A.Professor Shastri were
B.a loved man and
C.had students visiting
D.him everyday.
E.No Error
Q 45 :
Direction : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e., No Error. (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)
A.Reetu was a model
B.and so she would
C.starve herself to maintain
D.his body weight.
E.No Error
Q 46 :
Direction : In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given in each sentence. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold, might either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of the word is your answer. If the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5) i.e., 'All correct' as your answer.
A.M; mad was not only very intelligent
B.but also very sincere
C.and would always strand
D.first in his class.
E.All correct
Q 47 :
Rajeev was upset because he………forgotten his best friend's birthday.
A.have
B.shall
C.will
D.might
E.had
Q 48 :
Raj was…introvert and would prefer to sit in the library rather than go out with friends.
A.the
B.a
C.like
D.for
E.an
Q 49 :
Shanku was born………. a silver spoon in his mouth and was very proud of his wealth.
A.with
B.along
C.on
D.within
E.wishing
Q 50 :
Laxmi lost an important file and rather than confessing her………….she blamed Sandra for losing it.
A.respect
B.image
C.attitude
D.default
E.mistake
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General Knowledge
Q 51 :
Which committe has been formed by the securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)on corporate governance ?
A.Uday kotak committee
B.Naysa Modi committee
C.Tejas Muthusamy committee
D.saketh Sundar Committee
Q 52 :
PM narendra Modi has launched the Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan in which district of Madhya Pradesh ?
A.Jabalpur
B.Gwalior
C.Mandla
D.lndore
Q 53 :
Hippocrates is a great philosopher and physician from which country ?
A.Greece
B.Germany
C.Italy
D.Spain
Q 54 :
The Union Cabinet has approved the hike of Minimum Support Price (MSP) for row jute to ....... per quintal for 2018-19.
A.Rs. 3700
B.Rs. 3800
C.Rs. 3600
D.Rs. 3900
Q 55 :
Which Union Ministry has launched the 2nd edition of the Unnat Bharar Abhiyan ?
A.Home Affairs
B.Agriculture and Formers Welfare
C.Human Resource Development
D.Rural Development
Q 56 :
Bhagat Singh Koshyari, who was seen in the news, is the Governor of which state ?
A.Tamil Nadu
B.West Bengal
C.Maharashtra
D.Karnataka
Q 57 :
The union cabinet has recently approved inclusion of tribal-dominated scheduled areas of Rajasthan under which schedule?
A.4th Schedule
B.9th Schedule
C.5th Schedule
D.6th Schedule
Q 58 :
Which city is hosted the 2018 secure India Conclave?
A.Kanpur
B.Indore
C.Jaipur
D.New Delhi
Q 59 :
Which city is hosted the National Kharif conference 2018?
A.Patna
B.Kochi
C.New Delhi
D.Jhansi
Q 60 :
The Jalaput Dam is built on which tributary of the Godavari River?
A.Bananga River
B.Machkund River
C.Nasardi River
D.Kinnerasani River
Q 61 :
Which city hosted India’s first –ever nation wide food archaeology conference ‘ArchaeoBroma’?
A.Mumbai
B.New Delhi
C.Indore
D.Surat
Q 62 :
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has granted the first license for Liquid Chlorine on All India basis. The headquarters of BIS is located in which city?
A.Pune
B.Kanpur
C.Bhopal
D.New Delhi
Q 63 :
What is the India’s rank in the 2018 World Press freedom index (WPFI)?
A.136th
B.138th
C.135th
D.137th
Q 64 :
NITI Aayog has launched the Atal New India Challenge that will provide grants of up to haw much amount to innovative products and solutions?
A.Rs 2.0 Crore
B.Rs 1.0 Crore
C.Rs 1.5 Crore
D.Rs 2.5 Crore
Q 65 :
Under the ‘Adopt a Heritage’ project, which corporate house has signed MoU to maintain historic site ‘Red Fort’?
A.GMR Sports
B.IndiGo airlines
C.Reliance Industries Limited
D.Dalmia Bharat Limited
Q 66 :
Who has become the India’s longest serving Chef Minister of India?
A.Naveen Patnaik
B.Raman Singh
C.Shivraj Singh Chauhan
D.Pawan Chamling
Q 67 :
The NDMA has conducted its frst-ever Mock Exercise on Bio-Disasters at which city?
A.Patna
B.Surat
C.Kochi
D.Agra
Q 68 :
The 4th edition of Global Exhibition on service (GES-2018) has held in which city?
A.Mumbai
B.New Delhi
C.Jabalpur
D.Chandighar
Q 69 :
Which IIM institute has launched $ 25 million Bharat Inclusion Initiative for startups?
A.IIM-Delhi
B.IIM-Indore
C.IIM-Ahmedabad
D.IIM-Calcutta
Q 70 :
Which of the following coach factories to hosted the International Rail Coach Expo (IRCE-2018)?
A.Integral Coach Factory, Chennai
B.Rail Coach Factory, Kapurthala
C.Modern Coach Factory, Raebareli
D.Electric Locomotive Factory, Madhepura
Q 71 :
The Regional Conference on “Physical and Social Infrastructure for Regional Development” was held in
A.Guwahati
B.New Delhi
C.Pune
D.Bangaluru
Q 72 :
The first-ever all-woman post office passport seva kendra (POPSK) has started operations in which city?
A.Phagwara
B.Ujjain
C.Udaipur
D.Kochi
Q 73 :
Which of the following cities has been ranked India’s first cleanest city, as per latest survey report “Swachh Survekshan 2018”?
A.Indore
B.Vijaywada
C.Ghaziabad
D.Bhopal
Q 74 :
Which city hosted the 5th edition of Kalinga Literary Festival 2018?
A.Kalahandi
B.Bhubaneswar
C.Cuttack
D.Paradip
Q 75 :
Which city hosted the Smart Cities India 2018 Expo?
A.New Delhi
B.Pune
C.Jaipur
D.Indore
Q 76 :
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has granted the first license for Liquid Chlorine on All India basis. The headquarters of BIS is located in which city?
A.Patna
B.Kanpur
C.Bhopal
D.New Delhi
Q 77 :
Which Union Minister launches several development projects in Dadra Nagar Haveli; tourism, industrial sector to get massive boost?
A.Rajnath Singh
B.Arun Jaitley
C.Suresh menon
D.Rajesh Sharma
Q 78 :
How many lakhs did Journalists holding yellow cards in Punjab to get accidental insurance cover?
A.5
B.4
C.3
D.10
Q 79 :
Which of the following forest to obtain Ramsar site stauts?
A.Periyar Forest
B.Gir Forest
C.Sunderban Forest
D.Gormura Forest
Q 80 :
Who launches Central Project Monitoring Unit for e-Vidhan Project?
A.Vijay Goel
B.Arun Jaitley
C.Suresh Kumar
D.Naresh lyer
Q 81 :
Who has inaugurated the 29th Road Safety Week at Vihyan Bhawan in New Delhi?
A.Nitin Gadkari
B.Smriti Irani
C.Narendra Modi
D.Arun Jaitley
Q 82 :
Under the ‘Adopt a Heritage’ Project, which corporate house has signed MoU to maintain historic site ‘Red Fort’?
A.GMR Sports
B.IndiGo Airlines
C.Reliance industries
D.Dalmia Bharat Limited
Q 83 :
Which partnership going to be launched by Nomura in India?
A.Fintech partnership
B.Health care Partnership
C.Wealth Management Partnership
D.Financial Advisory Partnership
Q 84 :
Which state formulated an Action plan for using spraying fertilisers on Crops using Drones ?
A.Andhra Pradesh
B.Rajasthan
C.Punjab
D.West Bengal
Q 85 :
Who is the Vice-Chancellor of Vellore Institute of Technology?
A.MG Ramachandran
B.G. Viswanathan
C.H. Raman
D.VH Narayanan
Q 86 :
Which purchase has been cleared by Union government recently?
A.VVPAT
B.EVM
C.Ballot Box
D.Voting Device
Q 87 :
Who Inaugurated 16th International Energy Forum Ministerial Meeting recently?
A.Narendra Modi
B.Arun Jaitley
C.Ramesh Kumar
D.Suresh Menon
Q 88 :
Which city is hosting the India’s first-ever radio festival?
A.New Delhi
B.Pune
C.Kanpur
D.Mumbai
Q 89 :
Who initiated India’s largest ‘train the trainers’ programme by inducting 1500 physical Education (PE) teachers from across Gujarat for advanced training?
A.Pullela Gopichand
B.Sania Mirza
C.Saina Nehwa
D.PV Sindhu
Q 90 :
National Conference under the title of “Agriculture 2022” will be organised by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare in which Indian city?
A.Mumbai
B.Puna
C.New Delhi
D.Patna
Q 91 :
To tackle the menace of illicit deposit taking activities across India, Central government has approved a new bill called
A.Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Bill, 2018
B.Fraudulent default Deposit Schemes Bill, 2017
C.Fraudulent default Deposit Schemes Bill, 2018
D.Banning of Unregulated Deposit Schemes Bill, 2017
Q 92 :
Which is the India’s first major railway station to be completely managed by women personnel?
A.Gandh Nagar Railway Station (Jaipur)
B.Egmore Railway station (Chennai)
C.Thiruvananthapuran Central Railway Station (Thiruvananthapuram)
D.KSR Bengaluru City Railway Station (Bengaluru)
Q 93 :
Unique identification Authority of India (UIDAI), Introduced a ‘Baal Aadhaar’ card for children below the age of ........years.
A.5
B.7
C.9
D.10
Q 94 :
Which Indian city hosted the 21st national conference on e-Governance 2018?
A.Hyderabad
B.Dehradun
C.Allahabad
D.Itanagar
Q 95 :
What is the theme of the 9th edition of Women’s Film Festival 2018?
A.Take Freedom
B.Travelling Women
C.Meet with Yourself
D.Learn to Live
Q 96 :
Which city to host the 2018 National Legislators Conference?
A.Shimla
B.Jaipur
C.Lucknow
D.New Delhi
Q 97 :
The first regional conference on ‘Mass Rapid Transport System (MRTS) for Urban Areas – Opportunities and challenges was held in which city?
A.New Delhi
B.Pune
C.Kolkata
D.Amritsar
Q 98 :
The estimates committee has recently recommended effective measures to modernise security systems. The committee is headed by whom?
A.Arun Jaitley
B.Murli Manohar Joshi
C.Manohar Parrikar
D.Sushma Swaraj
Q 99 :
Which city’s railway station has become the first fully women operated station?
A.Jaipur
B.Bengaluru
C.Kochi
D.Ahmedabad
Q 100 :
The BS-VI grade fuel will be introduced in Delhi from which date?
A.April 1, 2018
B.April 1, 2019
C.April 1, 2020
D.April 1, 2021
Financial Managemant
Q 101 :
Who is Father of Scientific Management ?
A.Henry Fayol
B.Elton Mayo
C.Chester Bernard
D.F. W. Taylor
Q 102 :
Appointment of a Company Secretary is made by –
A.Promoters
B.Board of Directors
C.Debenture holders
D.Government
Q 103 :
Bonus Shares are issued to –
A.Equity Shareholders
B.Preference Shareholders
C.Debenture Holders
D.Secured Creditors
Q 104 :
Under which principle, all the rights of an insured are transferred to insurance company after making payment of claim ?
A.Subrogation
B.Utmost good faith
C.Contribution
D.Average clause
Q 105 :
Rs. 10,000 spent on the replacement of worn out parts of an electronic machinery is treated as –
A.Capital expenditure
B.Revenue expenditure
C.Deferred revenue expenditure
D.Capital loss
Q 106 :
EPS is calculated as –
A.EBIT / Equity shares
B.EBIT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
C.EAT / Equity shares
D.EAT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
Q 107 :
Which is the oldest form of organisation ?
A.Line
B.Line and staff
C.Functional
D.Matrix
Q 108 :
In ‘Direction’ who is given importance ?
A.To machines
B.To paper work
C.To man
D.To production
Q 109 :
Standard costing is a technique of –
A.Planning
B.Organising
C.Coordination
D.Control
Q 110 :
‘Table A’ is an alternative to –
A.Prospectus
B.Articles of Association
C.Memorandum of Association
D.None of the above
Q 111 :
FEMA stands for –
A.Foreign Exchange Management Act
B.Funds Exchange Management Act
C.Finance Enhancement Monetary Act
D.Future Exchange Management Act
Q 112 :
What of the following is false about W.T.O. ?
A.It is the main organ for implementing the Multilateral Trade Agreement
B.It is global in its membership
C.It has far wider scope than GATT
D.Only countries having more than prescribed level of total GDP can become its member
Q 113 :
……........… has been founded to act as permanent watchdog on the international trade .
A.ISRD
B.ADS
C.WTO
D.DIMF
Q 114 :
Which of the following statement is correct ?
A.The disinvestment programme has been successfully carried out in India
B.Privatisation up to 100% has been carried out in all the PSU in India
C.Under strategic sale method of disinvestment, the government sells a major share to a strategic partner
D.None of the above
Q 115 :
Advance Income-tax is shown in the –
A.Debit side of Profit and Loss Account
B.Liability side of the Balance Sheet
C.Credit side of Profit and Loss Account
D.Assets side of the Balance Sheet
Q 116 :
In the absence of a Partnership Deed, the rate of interest allowed on the partner’s loan to the firm is –
A.5%
B.6%
C.10%
D.None of the above
Q 117 :
Interim Dividend is shown –
A.In Profit and Loss Account
B.In Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
C.On Asset side of Balance Sheet
D.On Liabilities side of Balance Sheet
Q 118 :
Memorandum of Association contains –
A.Objective clause
B.Name clause
C.Capital clause
D.All of the above
Q 119 :
If a cheque presented through the Clearing House is returned unpaid for any reason, the banker has to enclose the cheque to a Returning Memo while returning the instrument to the customer. This provision has been prescribed under:
A.Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
B.Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
C.Banking Regulation Act, 1949
D.RBI Clearing House Rules
Q 120 :
By which of the following methods a Company Secretary can be removed from his post ?
A.By passing a resolution in Board Meeting
B.By order of Registrar of Companies
C.By passing a resolution in Annual General Meeting
D.None of the above
Q 121 :
Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of Duty Drawback Scheme ?
A.Relieving export goods of duties paid for components used for manufacturing the export goods
B.Providing cash incentives to exporters to compensate the duty paid by them in foreign countries
C.Compensating importers to the extent of import duty paid by them for importing life-saving drugs
D.Providing a facility for withdrawing the duty paid by exporters if their exports are rejected in foreign countries
Q 122 :
In foreign trade, what is the price quoted by a supplier which includes all charges incurred up to door delivery of goods to the buyer, called ?
A.Loco price
B.C.I.F. price
C.Franco price
D.Landed price
Q 123 :
If the cost of goods sold is Rs. 1,00,000, the value of opening stock is Rs. 20,000 and the value of closing stock is Rs. 80,000, then the stock turnover ratio would be –
A.5 Times
B.4 Times
C.2 Times
D.1 Time
Q 124 :
If profit made during the year is Rs. 10,000; increase and decrease in the current assets is Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 4,000 respectively, then the cash from operation equals –
A.Rs. 9,000
B.Rs. 10,000
C.Rs. 11,000
D.Rs. 19,000
Q 125 :
Commercial paper is a –
A.long-term corporate security meant for small investors
B.medium-term corporate security meant for institutional investors
C.treasury paper meant for corporate investors
D.short-term corporate security meant for large-scale investors
Q 126 :
A cartel is a combination of firms –
A.which are functioning in a particular industry
B.whose combined assets are worth more than 90% of total assets of the industry
C.who control major chunk of the market
D.whose combined profits are enormous
Q 127 :
One of the major difficulties improving the industrial efficiency in enterprises is –
A.low investment
B.low productivity
C.ineffective marketing
D.poor inventory control
Q 128 :
Exam Bank of India provides financial assistance to exporters and importers in India :
A.in foreign currency only
B.both in Indian currency and foreign currencies
C.as zero-interest loans
D.as subsidies
Q 129 :
‘Object Clause’ of a Memorandum of Association can be altered by –
A.Ordinary resolution
B.Special resolution
C.Special resolution and confirmation by Registrar of Companies
D.Special resolution and confirmation by Company Law Board
Q 130 :
The takeover of a company in which most of the purchase price is paid with borrowed money is referred to as –
A.hostile takeover
B.illegal takeover
C.leveraged buy-out
D.management buy-out
Q 131 :
A public company can start business –
A.After incorporation
B.After promotion
C.After registration
D.After getting certificate of commencement of business
Q 132 :
Impact of O & M is that –
A.promotion possibility becomes restricted
B.it leads to less scope for high salary and wages
C.entire organization is streamlined
D.work measurement is costly
Q 133 :
The term ‘Organisational climate’ best represents –
A.human environment prevailing in an organisation
B.union-management relations within an organisation
C.problems introduced by faulty organisational structure
D.socio-cultural environment in an organisation
Q 134 :
The Memorandum of Association shall be signed by each –
A.director
B.shareholder
C.subscriber
D.promoter and director
Q 135 :
Changing the name of a company requires –
A.special resolution and approval of Company Law Board
B.special resolution and approval of Securities and Exchange Board of India
C.special resolution and approval of Central Government
D.ordinary resolution and approval of Company Law Board
Q 136 :
Registration of Articles of Association is optional in the case of –
A.unlimited company
B.private company limited by shares
C.company limited by guarantee
D.public company limited by share
Q 137 :
The Base Rate system has replaced BPLR with effect from:
A.01.05.2010
B.01.06.2010
C.01.07.2010
D.01.08.2010
Q 138 :
Under the accrual concept which one of the following will not be shown as an asset/liability in the balance sheet of an entity ?
A.Interest due but not paid
B.Interest due but not received
C.Interest due and paid
D.Interest paid but not due
Q 139 :
Goods worth Rs. 24,000 were returned by X. The accountant however credited the sales returns account by Rs. 42,000. In order to rectify this error, what should be done ?
A.Debit the sale return by Rs.42,000
B.Credit the sales return account by Rs. 24,000
C.Debit the sales return account by Rs. 66,000
D.Debit the sales return account by Rs. 18,000
Q 140 :
A machine with a written down value of Rs. 10,000 has been sold for Rs. 13,000. The amount realized is a –
A.Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to Capital Reserve
B.Revenue receipt
C.Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to General Reserve
D.Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to Profit and Loss A/c
Q 141 :
Provisions are amounts set aside out of profits and other surpluses for –
A.meeting a liability, the amount of which can be determined with exact figure
B.any known liability of which the amount cannot be determined with substantial accuracy
C.meeting an eventuality arising out of revaluation of assets in ordinary course of business
D.meeting a liability arising out of arbitration
Q 142 :
A Ltd. Company issues 3,000, 15% debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 7•5% repayable at a premium of 5% at the end of 5 years. The loss on issue of debentures will be –
A.Rs. 22,500
B.Rs. 30,000
C.Rs. 37,500
D.Rs. 45,000
Q 143 :
X Ltd. has current ratio of 2– 1 and quick ratio of 1•5– 1. If its current liabilities are Rs. 80,000, then the value of stock would be –
A.Rs. 1,60,000
B.Rs. 1,20,000
C.Rs. 40,000
D.Rs. 80,000
Q 144 :
Test checking of entries in the audit work refers to –
A.the internal checks
B.the inernal controls
C.checking some sample items from a large number of similar items
D.checking the cash flow of business
Q 145 :
Share premium account can be used for –
A.Paying tax liability
B.Meeting the cost of issue of shares or debentures
C.Paying Dividend on shares
D.Meeting the loss on sale of old asset
Q 146 :
Ploughing-back of profits means –
A.Dividend declared but not claimed by shareholders
B.Non-declaration of dividend in any year
C.Profits earned from illegal sources and employed in business
D.Retaining the earnings of business for future expansion programme
Q 147 :
As per Schedule VI of the Companies’ Act, 1956, Forfeited Share Account will be –
A.Added to paid up capital
B.Deducted from called up capital
C.Added to capital reserve
D.Shown as a revenue reserve
Q 148 :
‘Profit objective’ is of least priority in case of –
A.Private enterprise
B.Public enterprise
C.Department undertaking
D.Cooperative society
Q 149 :
Partnership may come into existence by –
A.The operation of law
B.An express agreement only
C.An express or implied agreement only
D.Inheritance of property
Q 150 :
When a security is not treated in the Stock Exchange for a period of.........days prior to the date of valuation, it is treated as "Non- Traded" security:
