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Latest Vijaya Bank Peon Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : English Language, Financial Management, General Awareness
Question Bank Vijaya Bank Peon Exam - English
English Language
Q 1 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 2 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 3 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 4 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 5 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 6 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 7 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 8 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 9 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 10 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 11 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 12 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 13 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 14 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 15 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 16 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 17 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 18 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 19 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 20 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Q 21 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The students who want to speak in English
B.must read Hindu newspaper
C.in their initial stage
D.No error
Q 22 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Garib rath is a facility by railway ministry
B.for the poor to enjoy express train and facilities
C.but is mostly utilized by the upper class
D.No error
Q 23 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is
B.a quarter to ten
C.by my watch
D.No error
Q 24 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mr. Thakur lived
B.in the three-hundred year
C.old house
D.in Patna
Q 25 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The uncle of mine who is farmer
B.gave me a piece of useful advice
C.when I went to see him three weeks ago
D.No error
Q 26 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My neighbor along with his children
B.is going tonight to see a Taj Mahal
C.At Agra
D.No error
Q 27 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Kabir an Rahim are great poets
B.but the former is
C.greater than latter
D.No error
Q 28 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He has abandoned
B.the criminal activities
C.after returning from jail
D.No error
Q 29 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.We must have
B.sympathy for
C.needy and the poor
D.No error
Q 30 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Chinese is a very
B.difficult language to understand for those
C.who have never been to China
D.No error
Q 31 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The old women placed
B.kettle on fire
C.come back to the bedroom
D.No error
Q 32 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The singing is both
B.my vocation and avocation because it is a
C.source of joy and bread to me
D.No error
Q 33 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Snake we saw was
B.very deadly thought
C.it left the kitchen quietly
D.No error
Q 34 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Being M.A. only he
B.could not be appointed
C.to the post of a lecturer
D.No error
Q 35 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Our first trip was the most interesting one
B.but our second one
C.was even more interesting
D.No error
Q 36 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Mahatma Gandhi did not solve
B.all the problems of future
C.but he did solve problems of
D.No error
Q 37 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Having finished his breakfast
B.he started working on the problem
C.that had been awaiting disposal for the long time
D.No error
Q 38 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The new railway line will
B.greatly improve transport and communication
C.in eastern part of the country
D.No error
Q 39 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It being rainy day most of
B.the people out on the street
C.were carrying umbrellas
D.No error
Q 40 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.More you
B.think of it
C.the worse it becomes
D.No error
Q 41 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I like to travel
B.by the air as
C.I am a very busy person
D.No error
Q 42 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.This is
B.most important
C.lesson which we will have to study very carefully
D.No error
Q 43 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Hasan plays
B.both cricket and billiards
C.at the national level
D.No error
Q 44 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The USA has a strong army
B.that is capable of fighting
C.against any army of the world
D.No error
Q 45 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A man cannot be judged
B.by his external appearance
C.but by internal beauty
D.No error
Q 46 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I met the gentleman
B.today morning on my way
C.to the market
D.No error
Q 47 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It seems as the Sun
B.is coming much closer because
C.earth is greeting hotter
D.No error
Q 48 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I know student
B.who has stolen my book
C.the boy replied to his mother on her asking about the book
D.No error
Q 49 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Equator
B.divides the Earth
C.into two hemispheres
D.No error
Q 50 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In world of ours
B.one has to compete
C.for almost everything
D.No error
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Financial Management
Q 51 :
Who is Father of Scientific Management ?
A.Henry Fayol
B.Elton Mayo
C.Chester Bernard
D.F. W. Taylor
Q 52 :
Appointment of a Company Secretary is made by –
A.Promoters
B.Board of Directors
C.Debenture holders
D.Government
Q 53 :
Bonus Shares are issued to –
A.Equity Shareholders
B.Preference Shareholders
C.Debenture Holders
D.Secured Creditors
Q 54 :
Under which principle, all the rights of an insured are transferred to insurance company after making payment of claim ?
A.Subrogation
B.Utmost good faith
C.Contribution
D.Average clause
Q 55 :
Rs. 10,000 spent on the replacement of worn out parts of an electronic machinery is treated as –
A.Capital expenditure
B.Revenue expenditure
C.Deferred revenue expenditure
D.Capital loss
Q 56 :
EPS is calculated as –
A.EBIT / Equity shares
B.EBIT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
C.EAT / Equity shares
D.EAT – Preference Dividend / Equity shares
Q 57 :
Which is the oldest form of organisation ?
A.Line
B.Line and staff
C.Functional
D.Matrix
Q 58 :
In ‘Direction’ who is given importance ?
A.To machines
B.To paper work
C.To man
D.To production
Q 59 :
Standard costing is a technique of –
A.Planning
B.Organising
C.Coordination
D.Control
Q 60 :
‘Table A’ is an alternative to –
A.Prospectus
B.Articles of Association
C.Memorandum of Association
D.None of the above
Q 61 :
FEMA stands for –
A.Foreign Exchange Management Act
B.Funds Exchange Management Act
C.Finance Enhancement Monetary Act
D.Future Exchange Management Act
Q 62 :
What of the following is false about W.T.O. ?
A.It is the main organ for implementing the Multilateral Trade Agreement
B.It is global in its membership
C.It has far wider scope than GATT
D.Only countries having more than prescribed level of total GDP can become its member
Q 63 :
……........… has been founded to act as permanent watchdog on the international trade .
A.ISRD
B.ADS
C.WTO
D.DIMF
Q 64 :
Which of the following statement is correct ?
A.The disinvestment programme has been successfully carried out in India
B.Privatisation up to 100% has been carried out in all the PSU in India
C.Under strategic sale method of disinvestment, the government sells a major share to a strategic partner
D.None of the above
Q 65 :
Advance Income-tax is shown in the –
A.Debit side of Profit and Loss Account
B.Liability side of the Balance Sheet
C.Credit side of Profit and Loss Account
D.Assets side of the Balance Sheet
Q 66 :
In the absence of a Partnership Deed, the rate of interest allowed on the partner’s loan to the firm is –
A.5%
B.6%
C.10%
D.None of the above
Q 67 :
Interim Dividend is shown –
A.In Profit and Loss Account
B.In Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
C.On Asset side of Balance Sheet
D.On Liabilities side of Balance Sheet
Q 68 :
Memorandum of Association contains –
A.Objective clause
B.Name clause
C.Capital clause
D.All of the above
Q 69 :
If a cheque presented through the Clearing House is returned unpaid for any reason, the banker has to enclose the cheque to a Returning Memo while returning the instrument to the customer. This provision has been prescribed under:
A.Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
B.Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
C.Banking Regulation Act, 1949
D.RBI Clearing House Rules
Q 70 :
By which of the following methods a Company Secretary can be removed from his post ?
A.By passing a resolution in Board Meeting
B.By order of Registrar of Companies
C.By passing a resolution in Annual General Meeting
D.None of the above
Q 71 :
Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of Duty Drawback Scheme ?
A.Relieving export goods of duties paid for components used for manufacturing the export goods
B.Providing cash incentives to exporters to compensate the duty paid by them in foreign countries
C.Compensating importers to the extent of import duty paid by them for importing life-saving drugs
D.Providing a facility for withdrawing the duty paid by exporters if their exports are rejected in foreign countries
Q 72 :
In foreign trade, what is the price quoted by a supplier which includes all charges incurred up to door delivery of goods to the buyer, called ?
A.Loco price
B.C.I.F. price
C.Franco price
D.Landed price
Q 73 :
If the cost of goods sold is Rs. 1,00,000, the value of opening stock is Rs. 20,000 and the value of closing stock is Rs. 80,000, then the stock turnover ratio would be –
A.5 Times
B.4 Times
C.2 Times
D.1 Time
Q 74 :
If profit made during the year is Rs. 10,000; increase and decrease in the current assets is Rs. 5,000 and Rs. 4,000 respectively, then the cash from operation equals –
A.Rs. 9,000
B.Rs. 10,000
C.Rs. 11,000
D.Rs. 19,000
Q 75 :
Commercial paper is a –
A.long-term corporate security meant for small investors
B.medium-term corporate security meant for institutional investors
C.treasury paper meant for corporate investors
D.short-term corporate security meant for large-scale investors
Q 76 :
A cartel is a combination of firms –
A.which are functioning in a particular industry
B.whose combined assets are worth more than 90% of total assets of the industry
C.who control major chunk of the market
D.whose combined profits are enormous
Q 77 :
One of the major difficulties improving the industrial efficiency in enterprises is –
A.low investment
B.low productivity
C.ineffective marketing
D.poor inventory control
Q 78 :
Exam Bank of India provides financial assistance to exporters and importers in India :
A.in foreign currency only
B.both in Indian currency and foreign currencies
C.as zero-interest loans
D.as subsidies
Q 79 :
‘Object Clause’ of a Memorandum of Association can be altered by –
A.Ordinary resolution
B.Special resolution
C.Special resolution and confirmation by Registrar of Companies
D.Special resolution and confirmation by Company Law Board
Q 80 :
The takeover of a company in which most of the purchase price is paid with borrowed money is referred to as –
A.hostile takeover
B.illegal takeover
C.leveraged buy-out
D.management buy-out
Q 81 :
A public company can start business –
A.After incorporation
B.After promotion
C.After registration
D.After getting certificate of commencement of business
Q 82 :
Impact of O & M is that –
A.promotion possibility becomes restricted
B.it leads to less scope for high salary and wages
C.entire organization is streamlined
D.work measurement is costly
Q 83 :
The term ‘Organisational climate’ best represents –
A.human environment prevailing in an organisation
B.union-management relations within an organisation
C.problems introduced by faulty organisational structure
D.socio-cultural environment in an organisation
Q 84 :
The Memorandum of Association shall be signed by each –
A.director
B.shareholder
C.subscriber
D.promoter and director
Q 85 :
Changing the name of a company requires –
A.special resolution and approval of Company Law Board
B.special resolution and approval of Securities and Exchange Board of India
C.special resolution and approval of Central Government
D.ordinary resolution and approval of Company Law Board
Q 86 :
Registration of Articles of Association is optional in the case of –
A.unlimited company
B.private company limited by shares
C.company limited by guarantee
D.public company limited by share
Q 87 :
The Base Rate system has replaced BPLR with effect from:
A.01.05.2010
B.01.06.2010
C.01.07.2010
D.01.08.2010
Q 88 :
Under the accrual concept which one of the following will not be shown as an asset/liability in the balance sheet of an entity ?
A.Interest due but not paid
B.Interest due but not received
C.Interest due and paid
D.Interest paid but not due
Q 89 :
Goods worth Rs. 24,000 were returned by X. The accountant however credited the sales returns account by Rs. 42,000. In order to rectify this error, what should be done ?
A.Debit the sale return by Rs.42,000
B.Credit the sales return account by Rs. 24,000
C.Debit the sales return account by Rs. 66,000
D.Debit the sales return account by Rs. 18,000
Q 90 :
A machine with a written down value of Rs. 10,000 has been sold for Rs. 13,000. The amount realized is a –
A.Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to Capital Reserve
B.Revenue receipt
C.Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to General Reserve
D.Capital receipt and profit involved should be transferred to Profit and Loss A/c
Q 91 :
Provisions are amounts set aside out of profits and other surpluses for –
A.meeting a liability, the amount of which can be determined with exact figure
B.any known liability of which the amount cannot be determined with substantial accuracy
C.meeting an eventuality arising out of revaluation of assets in ordinary course of business
D.meeting a liability arising out of arbitration
Q 92 :
A Ltd. Company issues 3,000, 15% debentures of Rs. 100 each at a discount of 7•5% repayable at a premium of 5% at the end of 5 years. The loss on issue of debentures will be –
A.Rs. 22,500
B.Rs. 30,000
C.Rs. 37,500
D.Rs. 45,000
Q 93 :
X Ltd. has current ratio of 2– 1 and quick ratio of 1•5– 1. If its current liabilities are Rs. 80,000, then the value of stock would be –
A.Rs. 1,60,000
B.Rs. 1,20,000
C.Rs. 40,000
D.Rs. 80,000
Q 94 :
Test checking of entries in the audit work refers to –
A.the internal checks
B.the inernal controls
C.checking some sample items from a large number of similar items
D.checking the cash flow of business
Q 95 :
Share premium account can be used for –
A.Paying tax liability
B.Meeting the cost of issue of shares or debentures
C.Paying Dividend on shares
D.Meeting the loss on sale of old asset
Q 96 :
Ploughing-back of profits means –
A.Dividend declared but not claimed by shareholders
B.Non-declaration of dividend in any year
C.Profits earned from illegal sources and employed in business
D.Retaining the earnings of business for future expansion programme
Q 97 :
As per Schedule VI of the Companies’ Act, 1956, Forfeited Share Account will be –
A.Added to paid up capital
B.Deducted from called up capital
C.Added to capital reserve
D.Shown as a revenue reserve
Q 98 :
‘Profit objective’ is of least priority in case of –
A.Private enterprise
B.Public enterprise
C.Department undertaking
D.Cooperative society
Q 99 :
Partnership may come into existence by –
A.The operation of law
B.An express agreement only
C.An express or implied agreement only
D.Inheritance of property
Q 100 :
When a security is not treated in the Stock Exchange for a period of.........days prior to the date of valuation, it is treated as "Non- Traded" security:
A.30 days
B.45 days
C.60 days
D.90 days
General Awareness
Q 101 :
Which if the following is TRUE about the meaning of a bank?
A.It is a financial establishment
B.It acts like a financial intermediary
C.It accepts deposits from the public
D.It provides safe locker facility
E.All the above
Q 102 :
Which of the following is NOT true about the functioning of a bank ?
A.A bank should always add the word “bank” to its name.
B.They include general utility services and agency services.
C.A bank is a non-profit organization having service oriented approach.
D.A bank acts as a connecting link between borrowers and lenders of money.
E.A bank lends out money in the form of loans to those who require it for different purposes.
Q 103 :
Which of the following is NOT a banking service?
A.Issuance of debit and credit cards
B.Providing safe custody of valuable items
C.ATM services
D.Provision for higher interest rates to the accounts held by women
E.Online transfer of funds across the globe
Q 104 :
The definition of Banking is given in which of the following ACTs?
A.Negotiable Instrument Act 1881
B.Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act 1934
C.Banking Regulation Act 1949
D.Company Act 1956
E.None of the above
Q 105 :
Banks in India are regulated by :
A.The Reserve Bank of India Act,1934
B.The Banking regulation Act,1949
C.The Reserve Bank of India (Amendment and Misc. Provisions) Act, 1953
D.The Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1980
E.None of the above
Q 106 :
Which of the following terms is used in Banking field ?
A.Zero Hour
B.Input devices
C.Privilege motion
D.Sedimentary
E.Invest rate swap
Q 107 :
A centralized database with online connectivity to branches, internet as well as ATM-network which has been adopted by almost all major banks of our country is known as?
A.Investment Banking
B.Core Banking
C.Mobile Banking
D.National Banking
E.Specialized Banking
Q 108 :
Which of the following is necessary while opening deposit account in banks ?
A.Will
B.Registration
C.Nomination
D.Indemnity
E.Guarantee
Q 109 :
Which of the following is not banking term?
A.Letter of credit
B.MIBOR
C.Factoring services
D.Entry load
E.None of the above
Q 110 :
Systematic investment plans relates to:
A.Mutual Funds
B.Life Insurance Companies
C.Commercial Banks
D.Post office saving schemes
E.None of the above
Q 111 :
Which is the following is / are third party products sold out by banks?
A.Mutual funds
B.Term deposits
C.Credit cards
D.All of these
E.None of the above
Q 112 :
The first bank the Bank of Hindustan was established in:
A.1780
B.1790
C.1770
D.1802
E.1814
Q 113 :
Which of the following NOT a Retail banking product ?
A.Checking account
B.Saving account
C.Money market account
D.Certificate of deposit (CD)
E.Mutual Fund
Q 114 :
Which of the following is Not a Business (or commercial / investment) banking product ?
A.Business loan
B.Capital raisig
C.Checking account
D.Project finance
E.Term loan
Q 115 :
The banker’s bank in any country called as:
A.Commercial bank
B.Central bank
C.EXIM bank
D.Scheduled Bank
E.Development bank
Q 116 :
Which of the following is the Central bank of India?
A.State Bank of India
B.National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
C.Export-Import Bank of India
D.Reserve Bank of India
E.None of the above
Q 117 :
What is the Minimum balance required to be maintained for a saving account with cheque book facility?
A.Rs. 100
B.Rs. 400
C.Rs. 500
D.Rs.1000
E.Rs. 1500
Q 118 :
Which of the following represents Profit and Loss Account ?
A.Position of profit on a particular date
B.Position of profit for a given period
C.Position of loss for a given period
D.Both 2 and 3
E.None of the above
Q 119 :
Which among the following is /are ‘Term Deposit’?
A.Fixed Deposit
B.Current Deposit
C.Recurring Deposit
D.All of the above
E.None of the above
Q 120 :
The first bank of limited liability managed by Indians was :
A.The Commercial Bank of India
B.Allahabad Bank
C.Oudh Commercial Bank
D.Punjab National bank ltd
E.None of the above
Q 121 :
Which of the following scheme is not meant for investment purposes?
A.Letter of credit
B.National saving certificate
C.Infrastructure bonds
D.Mutual funds
E.None of the above
Q 122 :
What is meant by development Oriented banking?
A.Infrastructure financing
B.Extending loans to State, which are undevelopment
C.Taking up the task of development of the economy by providing support to under privileged section of the society
D.All of the above
E.None of the above
Q 123 :
The Reserve Bank of India was established in:
A.April 1935
B.June 1935
C.August 1934
D.May 1936
E.January 1949
Q 124 :
14 major Indian commercial banks of the country were nationalized in:
A.July 1965
B.June 1960
C.July 1969
D.May 1970
E.January 1949
Q 125 :
On the basis of suggestions of which of the following committee. The Banking Regulation Act was amended in 1983 to open the gates for the new private sector banks ?
A.Narasimham Committee
B.Rangrajan Committee
C.Rangrajan Committee
D.Goiporia committee
E.None of the above
Q 126 :
When RBI made compulsory to the Best II norms for Banks?
A.March 31, 2007
B.March 31, 2008
C.March 31, 2010
D.March 31, 2011
E.March 31, 2009
Q 127 :
Which Act is fully applicable to all commercial banks?
A.Companies Act, 1956
B.Partnership Act, 1932
C.Banking Regulation Act,1949
D.Sale of Goods Act, 1930
E.The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
Q 128 :
What type of loan is granted by banks for purchase of white goods?
A.Mortgage loans
B.Personal loans
C.Consumption Loans
D.Home Loans
E.None of the above
Q 129 :
Which of the following loans are granted for meeting social financial commitments like marriage etc?
A.Mortgage loans
B.Personal loans
C.Consumption Loans
D.Home Loans
E.None of the above
Q 130 :
PPF account is opened for a period of
A.Mortgage loans
B.Personal loans
C.Consumption Loans
D.Home Loans
E.None of the above
Q 131 :
Which of the followings facts substantiate the investment in public provident fund (PPF) account as a favorite tax saving option?
A.Deposits made in PPF account up to prescribed limits are eligible for relief under section 80C of income tax Act
B.Interest earned in PPF account is exempt from income tax
C.The balance in a PPF account is exempt from wealth tax
D.The balance in a PPF account cannot be attached under a court decree.
E.All of the above
Q 132 :
What is the minimum amount premium is required to be deposited in case of a Public Provident Fund (PPF) Account?
A.Rs. 500
B.Rs. 750
C.Rs. 1000
D.Rs. 1500
E.Rs. 2000
Q 133 :
National Saving Certificate matures at the end of:
A.Six years
B.Seven years
C.Ten years
D.Fifteen years
E.Twelve years
Q 134 :
Normally banks accept fixed deposit for a maximum period of:
A.3 years
B.5 years
C.7 years
D.12 years
E.Any number years
Q 135 :
Consider the followings Acts:
(A) Enactment of Banking Regulations Act
(B) Nationalisation of State Bank of India
(C) Nationalization of SBI subsidiaries
(D) Nationalisation of 14 major Banks.
Choose the right option for the correct chronological order of the above acts.
A.A-B-C-D
B.B-A-C-D
C.A-B-C-D
D.C-B-A-D
E.D-B-A-C
Q 136 :
The Imperial Bank of India was nationalized and re-christened as State Bank of India in the year:
A.1949
B.1950
C.1955
D.1960
E.1969
Q 137 :
IFRS stands for:
A.International Financial Regulatory Standards
B.International Financial Reporting Standards
C.International Financial Rating Standards
D.International Financial Reporting System
E.None of the above
Q 138 :
Bridge loan refers to:
A.Interim finance allowed by banks to their customers pending disbursement of term loans by financial institutions
B.Loans granted to construction companies
C.Loans granted to PWD for construction of bridges
D.All of the above
E.None of the above
Q 139 :
Payment of the demand draft can be stopped by
A.Holder
B.Purchaser
C.Payee
D.Bank
E.None of the above
Q 140 :
Which of the following organizations, provide credit history of the borrowers?
A.SEBI
B.CIBIL
C.SBI
D.RBI
E.CRSIL
Q 141 :
Loans / advance to framers is knows as:
A.Personal Loan
B.Business Loan
C.Priority Sector Loan
D.Home Loan
E.None of the above
Q 142 :
FRBM stands for:
A.Fiscal Responsibility and Banking Management
B.Financial Responsibility and Budget management
C.Fiscal Responsibility and budget Management
D.Federal Responsibility and Business Management
E.Fiscal Responsibility and Business Management
Q 143 :
When the New Bank of India was merged with Punjab National Bank?
A.1990
B.1993
C.1999
D.2001
E.2002
Q 144 :
Which of the following is / are major reasons for strict regulations of the banks by the government in India?
A.To protect the safety of the public’s savings
B.To control the supply of money and credit in order to achieve a nation’s broad economic goal
C.To ensure equal opportunity and fairness in the public’s access to credit and other vital financial services
D.To promote public confidence in the financial system so that savings are made speedily and efficiently
E.All the above
Q 145 :
Which of the following can be categorized as a Merchant banking service?
A.Consultancy on financial to a company
B.Advance in capital structure
C.Managing mergers
D.Helping in finalizing takeover
E.All of the above
Q 146 :
Which instrument provides proprietary interest in company and which entitles a person to dividend on profit?
A.Bond
B.Debenture
C.Share
D.Warrant
E.None of the above
Q 147 :
Which of the following is the first development financial institution to be established in India in 1948?
A.LIC
B.IFCI
C.ICICI
D.EXIM Bank
E.IDBI
Q 148 :
Co-operative Bank in India are operated under which of the followings acts?
A.Cooperative Societies Act in 1904
B.Cooperative Societies Act in 1912
C.Banking Regulation Act, 1949
D.The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
E.Company Act, 1934
Q 149 :
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A.Export - Import / Bank of India – 1982
B.Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) – 1990
C.National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD) – 1982
D.Industrial Finance Corporation of India – 1948
E.IDBI Bank Limited – 1954
Q 150 :
Which of the following is NOT a feature of saving bank account?
A.It is opened by individuals for the purpose of saving a part of their income.
B.Service Charges are payable in case of Saving Account.
C.It is operated by salary earners, small traders and others.
D.It earns a nominal rate of interest. At present, it is about 5% p.a. (in India).
