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Latest Vizag Steel Management Trainee Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : Reasoning ability, English, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, Mechanical
Question Bank Vizag Steel Management Trainee (Mechanical) Exam - English
Reasoning ability
Q 1 :
According to the passage, what is the main purpose of data protection laws ?
A.To ensure that foreign countries invest in research for drugs to treat diseases like TB
B.To attract Indian scientists back to the country
C.To prevent misuse of research to make profit by competing companies
D.To make clinical trials more acceptable to the public
E.None of these
Q 2 :
‘Gram’ is relatd to ‘Mass’ in the same way as ‘Centimetre’ is related to
A.Area
B.Volume
C.Length
D.Sound
E.Energy
Q 3 :
'Mustard' is related to 'Seed' in the same way as 'Carrot' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 4 :
Which of the following pairs of words have the same relationship as Fan : Heat?
A.Water : Drink
B.Light : Night
C.Teach : Student
D.Air : Breathe
E.Food : Hunger
Q 5 :
'Radish' is related to 'Root', in the same way as 'Brinjal' is related to
A.Fruit
B.Stem
C.Flower
D.Root
E.None of these
Q 6 :
'Jackal' is related to 'Carnivorous', in the same way as 'Goat' is related to
A.Omnivorous
B.Carnivorous
C.Herbivorous
D.Multivorous
E.None of these
Q 7 :
Which of the following pairs has similar relationship as Run : Race?
A.Party : Dance
B.Study : Book
C.Lecture : Study
D.Enjoy : Journey
E.None of these
Q 8 :
Which of the following has same relationship as that of Money : Wealth?
A.Pity : Kindness
B.Cruel : Anger
C.Wise : Education
D.Pride : Humility
E.None of these
Q 9 :
Which of the following is related to ‘Melody’, in the same way as ‘Delicious’ is related to 'Taste'?
A.Memory
B.Highness
C.Tongue
D.Speak
E.Voice
Q 10 :
Offhand’ is related to ‘Premeditation’ in the same way as ‘Above board’ is related to
A.Integrity
B.Honesty
C.Guide
D.Competition
E.None of these
Q 11 :
5 : 7 : : ? : 28
A.20
B.14
C.56
D.26
E.None of these
Q 12 :
Which one is different form the remaining three?
A.GIJK
B.DFGH
C.CEFG
D.ABCD
E.None of these
Q 13 :
Three of the following four are alike in certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to the group?
A.71
B.73
C.77
D.67
E.None of these
Q 14 :
Unscramble the letters in the given words and find the odd one out.
A.UMRSME
B.EIWNTR
C.PIGRSN
D.LCUOD
E.None of these
Q 15 :
What should come next in the following number series?
0 2 4 6 2 3 0 2 4 6 4 5 0 2 4 6 6 7 0 2?
A.4
B.2
C.6
D.8
E.5
Q 16 :
What will be there is the place of question mark in the following series?
E G 3 5, I K 9 9, M O 1 9 5, Q S 3 2 3?
A.UW483
B.ZA26
C.TU420
D.ST380
E.None of these
Q 17 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A Z A B Y A B C X A B C D W A B C D E V A B C D E
A.U
B.T
C.A
D.G
E.None of these
Q 18 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
H G F E D C B A G F E D C B A G F E D C B
A.E
B.G
C.F
D.B
E.None of these
Q 19 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
Z X V T R P N L J Y W U S Q O
A.M
B.K
C.H
D.J
E.None of these
Q 20 :
Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers?
24 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.None of these
Q 21 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
P P O PO N PO N M P O N M L P O N M L
A.P
B.K
C.J
D.I
E.None of these
Q 22 :
What should come next in the following number series?
9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
A.8
B.1
C.9
D.2
E.None of these
Q 23 :
What should come next in the following number series?
3 4 4 3 4 4 5 3 4 4 5 6 3 4 4 5 6 7 3 4 4 5 6
A.4
B.5
C.6
D.7
E.None of these
Q 24 :
What should come next in the following letter series?
A A B A B C A B C D A B C D E A B C D E F
A.A
B.G
C.H
D.B
E.None of these
Q 25 :
What should come in the place of the question mark (?) in the following series of combination of alpha-numerals and symbols?Y 9B*W*D7*U5F?
A.S 3 H *
B.T#H*
C.T*#H
D.S*H5
E.SH*1
Q 26 :
What should come next in the following number series?9 7 5 3 1 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5 3 1 8 6 4 2 9 7 5
A.1
B.8
C.3
D.5
E.None of these
Q 27 :
What should come next in the place of question mark(?) in the following letter sequence?AZB, CYD, EXF,?,IVJ, KUL
A.FYH
B.GWG
C.HWH
D.GUF
E.None of these
Q 28 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.215
B.143
C.247
D.91
E.65
Q 29 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.78
B.48
C.72
D.54
E.42
Q 30 :
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
A.45
B.51
C.39
D.93
E.85
English
Q 31 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 32 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 33 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 34 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 35 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 36 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 37 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 38 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 39 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 40 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 41 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 42 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 43 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 44 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 45 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 46 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 47 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 48 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 49 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 50 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Important Questions Package
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Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 53 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 54 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 55 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 56 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 57 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 58 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 59 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 60 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 61 :
Which Indian Business person recently became the third-richest person in the world, as per the Bloomberg Billionaire Index ?
A.Mukesh Ambani
B.Gautam Adani
C.Cyrus Poonawala
D.Radhakishan Damani
Q 62 :
Which Institution/council released the ‘Competitiveness Roadmap for India@100’Report ?
A.NITI Aayog
B.Economic Advisory Council
C.National Council of Applied Economic Research
D.Centre for Policy Research
Q 63 :
Which Indian state/UT has inaugurated the ‘Rajiv Gandhi Rural Olympic Games’ ?
A.Assam
B.Rajasthan
C.Chhattisgarh
D.Telangana
Q 64 :
Which city hosted the ‘UN’ session to save Biodiversity’ ?
A.New York
B.Paris
C.Rome
D.Tokyo
Q 65 :
Which state/UT got its second railway station after a gap of 100 years ?
A.Arunachal Pradesh
B.Nagaland
C.Assam
D.Mizoram
Q 66 :
Indian Railways have set up ………… machines at Mumbai Stations to convert water vapour in the air into potable water ?
A.Jaldoot
B.Jal Jeevan
C.Ocean Shakti
D.Meghdoot
Q 67 :
Who has been appointed as India’s next ambassador to Thailand in August 2022 ?
A.Avanish Sharan
B.Vivek Kumar Singh
C.Anoop Kumar
D.Nagesh Singh
Q 68 :
Which Indian University has signed an MOU with the International Centre for Automotive Technology (ICAT) to conduct joint research in the field of electric vehicles ?
A.NorthCap University
B.University of Delhi
C.Mumbai University
D.Lucknow University
Q 69 :
India’s noted agriculture economist and former member of the erstwhile Planning Commission, ……….. passed away in August 2022 .
A.Mohanlal Lallubhai Dantwala
B.Ashok Gulati
C.Abhijit Sen
D.Biplab Das Gupta
Q 70 :
In which state, Reliance Industries has announced to set up India’s first and one of the World’s largest carbon fibre plants ?
A.Maharashtra
B.Gujarat
C.Tamil Nadu
D.Uttar Pradesh
Quantitative Aptitude
Q 71 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 72 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 73 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 74 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 75 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 76 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 77 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 78 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 79 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 80 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 81 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 82 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 83 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 84 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 85 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 86 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 87 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 88 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 89 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 90 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 91 :
16.928 + 24.7582 5.015 =?
A.20
B.24
C.22
D.26
Q 92 :
Convert 0.75 into fraction ?
A.3/4
B.2/3
C.4/5
D.5/8
Q 93 :
Which is greater ?
A.11/13
B.12/15
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 94 :
Two numbers are co-prime if their HCF is ?
A.0
B.1
C.Same
D.Prime
Q 95 :
Product of all factors of 10 is ?
A.
10
B.100
C.1000
D.10000
Q 96 :
How many real numbers exist between 2 and 3 ?
A.1
B.10
C.Infinite
D.None
Q 97 :
Which number is divisible by 11 ?
A.12345
B.1331
C.1234
D.1213
Q 98 :
What is the unit digit of (7^{245}) ?
A.1
B.3
C.7
D.9
Q 99 :
What is (64^{2/3}) ?
A.4
B.8
C.16
D.32
Q 100 :
What is (125^{1/3}) ?
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.6
Mechanical
Q 101 :
A fin will be more effective when Bio number is
A.Greater than 1
B.Equal to 1
C.Between 1 and 3
4 4
D.Less than 1
Q 102 :
A tank of length, breadth and height in the ratio of 2:1:2 is full of water. The ratio of hydrostatic force at the bottom to that at any larger vertical surface is
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Q 103 :
Which of the following fluids exhibit a certain shear stress at zero shear strain rate followed by a straight line relationship between shear stress and shear strain rate?
A.Newtonian fluid
B.Ideal Bingham plastic fluids
C.Pseudo-plastic fluids
D.Dilatent fluids
Q 104 :
What is the specific gravity of a marble stone, which weighs 400N in air, and 200N in water? (g=10m/s2)
A.8
B.6
C.4
D.2
Q 105 :
What is the intensity of pressure in the following SI units, when specific gravity of mercury is 13.6 and the intensity of pressure is 400KPa ?
A.0.3 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.29 mm of Hg
B.4 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.399 mm of Hg
C.0.3 bar or 5.077m of water or 0.599 mm of Hg
D.4 bar or 4.077m of water or 0.299 mm of Hg
Q 106 :
Consider the following statements:
1.If a small upward displacement is given to a floating body, it results in the reduction of the buoyant force acting on the body
2.A slight horizontal displacement does not change either the magnitude or the location of the buoyant force
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.Both 1 and 2
B.1 only
C.2 only
D.Neither 1 nor 2
Q 107 :
State whether following flow field is physically possible?
A.Possible for steady, incompressible flow
B.Possible for unsteady, incompressible flow
C.Possible for steady, compressible flow
D.Not Possible
Q 108 :
In a differential manometer, a head of 0.5 m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3 m of fluid B in limb 2. The atmospheric pressure is 760 mm of mercury. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A.0.25
B.0.26
C.2
D.4
Q 109 :
A Reversed Carnot Engine removes 50 kW from a heat sink. The temperature of the heat sink is 250 K and the temperature of the heat reservoir is 300 K. The power required of the engine is
A.10 kW
B.20 kW
C.30 kW
D.50 kW
Q 110 :
On which of the following just in time manufacturing philosophy emphasizes ?
A.man power
B.profit
C.inventory
D.manufacturing
Q 111 :
In a stream line steady flow, two points A and B on a stream line are 1m apart and the flow velocity varies uniformly from 2m/s to 5m/s. What is the acceleration of fluid at B?
A.3 m/s2
B.6 m/s2
C.9 m/s2
D.15 m/s2
Q 112 :
The stream function is given by Ψ = 3xy, then the velocity at the point (2,3) is
A.9
B.-6
C.117
D.10.8
Q 113 :
The boundary layer thickness at a given distance from the leading edge of a flat plate is
A.More for lighter fluid
B.More for denser fluid
C.Less for denser fluid
D.Less for lighter fluid
Q 114 :
In a laminar flow through a circular pipe, the discharge varies
A.Linearly with fluid density
B.Inversely with pressure drop
C.Directly as square of pipe radius
D.Inversely with fluid velocity
Q 115 :
A fluid is flowing over a flat plate. At distance of 8 cm from the leading edge, the Reynolds number is found to be 25600. The thickness of the boundary layer at this point is
A.1.5mm
B.2.5mm
C.4.0mm
D.5.0mm
Q 116 :
Air is flowing over a flat plate with a free stream velocity of 24 m/s, and its kinematic viscosity is 72 ×10-6m2/s. If at a particular point, the Reynolds number is 30000, its location from the leading edge is
A.0.05m
B.0.07m
C.0.08m
D.0.09m
Q 117 :
In a refrigerator, the evaporator and condenser coil temperatures are –33°C and 27°C, respectively. Assuming that the maximum COP is realized, the required power input for a refrigerating effect of 4 kW is
A.8 kW
B.4 kW
C.2 kW
D. 1 kW
Q 118 :
In a hydraulic coupling
A.The magnitudes of input and output torques are equal
B.The magnitudes of input torque is greater than output torque
C.The magnitudes of input torque is less than output torque
D.The magnitudes of input torque is negligible as compared to output torque
Q 119 :
Consider the following statements:
1.The wheel can be operated freely in air
2.Pressure at the exit of the nozzle is atmospheric
3.Pressure does not vary along the moving vanes
4.Change the direction of momentum imparts thrust over moving vanes Which of the following statements are applied to impulse turbine?
A.1,2 and 3 only
B.1,2 and 4 only
C.3 and 4 only
D.1,2, 3 and 4
Q 120 :
A water jet 0.0015m2in area issues from a nozzle with 15 m/s velocity. It is made to impinge perpendicular on to a plate that moves away from the jet with a velocity of 5 m/s. The force on the plate due to this impact is
A.150 N
B.1470 N
C.340 N
D.900 N
Q 121 :
Consider the following statements with regard to hydraulic turbines:
1.Kaplan turbines are most efficient at part load operations.
2.If n is the number of jets in a Pelton turbine, then the specific speed is proportional to n2.
3.The flow ratio of Francis turbines are in the range of 0.1 – 0.3.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A.1,2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 122 :
Which of the following is a Vector quantity ?
A.Energy
B.Mass
C.Momentum
D.Angle
Q 123 :
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable between any two points located in
A.Rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
B.Irrotational flow of compressible or incompressible fluid
C.Steady, rotational flow of an incompressible fluid
D.Steady, irrotational flow of an incompressible fluid
Q 124 :
Water flows through a smooth circular pipe of diameter D and length L because of a pressure difference ΔP across the length. The volume flow rate is Q and the flow is turbulent with Reynolds number 105. If the pressure difference is increased to 4ΔP the volume flow rate will be
A.2Q
B.A little more than 2Q
C.A little less than 2Q
D.4Q
Q 125 :
Heat is lost from a 100 mm diameter steam pipe placed horizontally in ambient air at 30°C. If the Nusselt number is 25 and the thermal conductivity of the air is 0.03 W/m K, then the heat transfer coefficient will be
A. 7.5 W/m2K
B.15 W/m2K
C.25 W/m2K
D. 35 W/m2K
Q 126 :
For laminar flow through a round pipe, the shear stress
A.Remains constant over the cross-section
B.Varies linearly with the radial distance
C.Must be zero at all point
D.Varies parabolically with radial distance
Q 127 :
Percentage clongation during tensile test is indicative of
A.Creep
B.Malleability
C.Ductility
D.Elasticity in the metal
Q 128 :
Which of the above statements is not correct in the context of laminar flow through a pipeline?
A.Shear stress is zero at the center and varies linearly with pipe radius
B.Head loss is proportional to square of the average flow velocity
C.The friction factor varies inversely with flow Reynolds number
D.No dispersion of die injected into the flow stream
Q 129 :
Laminar flow between closely spaced parallel plates is governed by the consideration of which one of the following pair of forces?
A.Pressure and inertial forces
B.Gravity and inertial forces
C.Viscous and inertial forces
D.Pressure and inertial forces
Q 130 :
Formation and collapse of vapour bubbles are believed to be the root cause for cavitation in hydraulic turbines. Most favorable condition for the formation of bubbles is set in the turbine at
A.Penstock/nozzl
B.Guide vanes/Inlet of the runner
C.Vanes receiving impact of jet
D.Outlet of the runner/Entrance of the draft tube
Q 131 :
For fully developed laminar flow through a circular pipe with Reynolds number Rethe friction factor is
A.Inversely proportional to Re
B.Proportional to Re
C.Proportional to square of Re
D.Independent of Re
Q 132 :
The ratio of power outlet of the pump to the power input to the pump is known as
A.Mechanical efficiency
B.Static efficiency
C.Overall efficiency
D.Manometric efficiency
Q 133 :
A pump is defined as a device which converts
A.Hydraulic energy into Mechanical energy
B.Mechanical energy into Hydraulic energy
C.Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
D.None of the above
Q 134 :
The specific speed of a pump is defined as the speed of the unit of such a size that is
A.Delivers the unit discharge at unit head
B.Requires unit power to develop unit head
C.Delivers the unit discharge at unit power
D.Produces unit power with unit head available
Q 135 :
Negative slip occurs in reciprocating pumps, when delivery pipe is
A.Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running atlow speed
B.Long and suction pipe is short and pump is running at high speed
C.Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at low speed
D.Short and suction pipe is long and pump is running at high speed
Q 136 :
The pressure inside a soap bubble of 50 mm diameter is 25 N/m2 above the atmospheric pressure. The surface tension in soap film would be
A.0.156 N/m
B.0.313 N/m
C.0.624 N/m
D.0.078 N/m
Q 137 :
A Newtonian fluid is one which
A.Is viscous but incompressible
B.Has a linear relationship between the shear stress and the rate of angular deflection
C.Exhibits an increase in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
D.Exhibits a decrease in viscosity with increasing rate of deformation
Q 138 :
Unlike the viscosity of fluids, the viscosity of gases increases with increasing temperature. This is due to
A.Increased cohesive force between the molecule
B.Increased momentum transfer in the molecules
C.Decreased momentum transfer in the molecules
D.Increase in both cohesive force and momentum transfer
Q 139 :
Manometer is a device used for measuring
A.Velocity at a point in a fluid
B.Pressure at a point in a fluid
C.Discharge of a fluid
D.None of the above
Q 140 :
When a dolphin glides through air, it experiences an external pressure of 0.75 m of mercury. The absolute pressure on dolphin when it is 5m below the free surface of the water is
A.0.10 N/m2
B.0.5 N/m2
C.1.0 N/m2
D.0.15 N/m2
Q 141 :
Which of the above statements is correct?
A.For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
B.For a floating body, the stable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains lower than the center of gravity of the body
C.For a floating body, the neutral equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
D.For a floating body, the unstable equilibrium condition exists when position of metacenter remains higher than the center of gravity of the body
Q 142 :
A wall of 0.6m thickness has normal area of 1.5 m2 and is made up of material of thermal conductivity 0.4 W/mK. If the temperature on the two sides of the wall are 800°C and 1000°C, the thermal resistance of the wall is
A. 1.8 K/W
B. 1.8 W/K
C.1 K/W
D. 1 W/K
Q 143 :
A flownet is a graphical representation of streamlines and euqipotnetial lines such as these lines
A.Intersect each other at various different angles forming irregular shaped nets
B.Intersect each other orthogonally forming curvilinearsquares
C.Indicate the direction but not magnitude of vector
D.Indicate the direction and magnitude of vector
Q 144 :
Which of the above statements is correct for the velocity of potential?
A.Existence of velocity potential is an indication of irrotational nature of the flow
B.The velocity potential automatically satisfies the continuity equation
C.Velocity potential can be defined only for 2-dimensional flow
D.All of the above
Q 145 :
Angle of diverging portion of the venturimeter is limited to 7°, because:
1.Flow decelerates in the diverging portion and pressure increases in the downstream direction. Hence, the fluid experience an adverse pressure gradient, if the divergence angle is large.
2 .Flow separation takes place due to adverse pressure gradient when divergence angle is large.
3 .If the divergence angle is large, a negative pressure is created at the throat which obstructs the flow of fluid.
Which of the above reasons are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 146 :
A gas is flowing through an insulated nozzle. If the inlet velocity of gas is negligible and there is an enthalpy drop of 45kJ/kg, the velocity of gas leaving the nozzle is
A.100m/s
B.200m/s
C.300m/s
D.350m/s
Q 147 :
Which of the above statements are correct for turbo-prop powered aircrafts?
1 .The propulsion efficiency of turbo-prop is higher than that of turbo-jet and rockets for low speeds up to about 800km/hr.
2.For the same thrust the turbine in the turbo prop aircraft is smaller than in the turbo-jet aircraft.
3.For the turbo-prop the flight velocity cannot exceed the jet velocity.
A.1,2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 148 :
If absolute jet exit velocity from a jet engine is 2800m/s and forward flight velocity is 1400m/s then propulsive efficiency is
A.33.33%
B.40%
C.66.66%
D.90%
Q 149 :
An air-breathing aircraft is flying at an altitude where the air density is half the value at ground level. With reference to the ground level, the air fuel ratio at this altitude will be
A.1
2
B.1
C.2
D.4
Q 150 :
Which of the above statements are correct for rockets?
1.Unlike the turbo-jet aircraft, in rockets the flight velocity can exceed the jet velocity.
2.In rockets gases having lower molecular weight increase the specific thrust.
3.In rockets the gases are expanded in the nozzle up to the atmospheric pressure.
A.1,2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1 and 3 only
Q 151 :
In a differential manometer a head of 0.6m of fluid A in limb 1 is found to balance a head of 0.3m of fluid B in limb 2. The ratio of specific gravities of A to B is
A.2
B.0.5
C.0.3
D.0.18
Q 152 :
At x = 0, the function f (x) = |x| will be
A.minimum
B.maximum
C.point of inflection
D.neither minimum nor maximum
Q 153 :
The center of pressure of a plane submerged surface
A.Is a point on the submerged area at which the resultant hydrostatic force is supposed to act
B.Should always coincide within the center of submerged area
C.Should be at the center of gravity of the plane surface
D.Is always below the centroid of area
Q 154 :
A furnace is provided with an insulating refractory lining. The overall thermal conductivity of the material is 0.03 W/mK. The thickness of the lining is 100 mm. The inner and outer temperatures are 250°C and 50°C, respectively. The heat loss to the surroundings will be
A.30 J/m2/s
B. 60 J/m2/s
C. 60 J/s
D.30 J/s
Q 155 :
A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of its volume is under mercury?
A.0.5
B.0.4
C.0.515
D.Fully immersed
Q 156 :
A right circular cylinder, open at the top, is filled with a liquid of specific gravity 1.2, and rotated about its vertical axis at such a speed that half of the liquid spills out. The pressure at the center of the bottom is
A.Zero
B.One-fourth its value when the cylinder was full
C.One-third its value when the cylinder was full
D.three-fourth its value when the cylinder was full
Q 157 :
Consider the following statements about velocity potential:
1.Velocity potential is a vector function similar to stream function
2.It is a fully three dimensional function and not limited to two
coordinates
3.Velocity potential does not exist at stagnation points
4.Velocity potential exists only if the flow is irrotational
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2 and 4
C.1, 3 and 4
D.2, 3 and 4
Q 158 :
During a constant pressure expansion of a gas, 33.3% heat is converted into work while the temperature rises by 20 K. The specific heat of the gas at constant pressure as a proportion of work, W is
A.8%
B. 10%
C. 12%
D.15%
Q 159 :
Principle mechanism of material removal in ECM?
A.Chemical corrosion
B.Ionic dissolution
C.Both (a) and (b)
D.Non of the above
Q 160 :
The centre-line velocity in a pipe flow is 2m/s. What is the average flow velocity in the pipe if the Reynolds number of the flow is 800?
A. 2 m/s
B.1.5 m/s
C.1 m/s
D.0.5 m/s
Q 161 :
In flow through a pipe, the transition from laminar to turbulent flow does not depend on
A.Density of fluid
B.Length of pipe
C.Diameter of pipe
D.Velocity of the fluid
Q 162 :
A 0.20m diameter pipe 20m long transports oil at a flow rate of0.01m3/s. Calculate power required to maintain flow if dynamic viscosity and density of oil is 0.08 Pas and 900 kg/m3 respectively
A.4.064 kW
B.3.074 kW
C.5.064 kW
D.4.074 kW
Q 163 :
Pressure loss for laminar flow through pipeline is dependent
A.Inversely on flow of velocity
B.Directly on square of pipe radius
C.Directly on length of pipe
D.Inversely on viscosity of flowing medium
Q 164 :
Fanno line is a flow in a constant area duct
A.With friction and heat transfer but in the absence of work
B.With friction and heat transfer accompanied by work
C.With friction but in the absence of heat transfer or work
D.Without friction but accompanied by heat transfer and work
Q 165 :
In an adiabatic flow with friction through a constant area duct, the following phenomenon are predicted:
1.The flow downstream tends to be sonic irrespective of the Mach-number upstream
2.In the case of initially supersonic flow, any increase in duct length beyond choked flow would make the exit flow subsonic
3.In the case of initially subsonic flow, any increase in duct length will not change sonic flow at the exit
4.The optimum pipe length for sonic outlet in supersonic flow is considerably longer than that of subsonic flow for the same flow rate
Which of these are correct?
A.1,2,3 and 4
B.1,2 and 3 only
C.1,3 and 4 only
D.2,3 and 4 only
Q 166 :
In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are used to
A.Smoothen the flow
B.Reduce suction head
C.Increase delivery head
D.Reduce acceleration head
Q 167 :
Consider the following statements pertaining to centrifugal pumps:
1.The inlet to the impeller of a centrifugal pump is always axial, while the outlet may be radial or inclined.
2.The impeller may be shrouded on both sides with an eye at the centre and vanes curved backwards.
3.Impeller of double entry type has a balanced radial thrust.
4.Un-shrouded and part shrouded impeller are used only where high efficiency is unimportant.
Which of these statements are correct?
A.1,2,3 and 4
B.1,2 and 3 only
C.1,2 and 4 only
D.2,3 and 4 only
Q 168 :
A centrifugal pump is fully primed, but on starting it fails to deliver fluid. Thr probable reasons are listed below:
1.Leaky foot valve or suction line
2.Suction head is very slow
3.Insufficient motor speed
4.Damaged or closed delivery valve
Which of these reasons are correct?
A.1,2,3 and 4
B.1,2 and 3 only
C.2,3 and 4 only
D.1,3 and 4 only
Q 169 :
A centrifugal pump is to discharge 0.118 m3/s at speed of 1450 rpm against a head of 25m. The impeller diameter is 25cm, its width at outlet is 5cm and manometric efficiency is 75%. The vane angle at outer periphery of impeller is
A.56.77°C
B.59.77°C
C.61.77°C
D.48.77°C
Q 170 :
A turbine is working under a head of 200m. The power developed by the turbine is 100kW and discharge through the turbine is 0.125 m3/s. In such case, the ratio of unit power to unit discharge for the turbine will be
A.4000
B.16000
C.160 × 103
D.None of the above
Q 171 :
Two geometrical similar pumps are running at 1000 rpm speed (both). If one pump has impeller diameter of 0.3m and discharges 20Ips against 20m head, and the other pump gives half of this discharge rate; calculate head and diameter of second pump
A.12.5m and 0.12m
B.10.5m and 0.12m
C.10.5m and 0.23m
D.12.5m and 0.23m
Q 172 :
In a steady laminar flow of a given discharge through a circular pipe of diameter D, the head loss is proportional to
A.D–1
B.D–2
C.D–3
D. D–4
Q 173 :
Frictional losses in the nozzle
A.Reduces the enthalpy of the fluid
B.increases the enthalpy of the fluid
C.no effect on the enthalpy of the fluid
D.None of the above
Q 174 :
In a nozzle designed for maximum discharge conditions, the flow velocity in the convergent section of the nozzle is
A.Subsonic
B.Sonic
C.Supersonic
D.Depends on initial pressure and condition of the steam
Q 175 :
In the centrifugal compressor, the work input is equal to the sum of
A.Pressure head, relative head and dynamic head
B.dynamic head, centrifugal head and relative head
C.Pressure head, centrifugal head and dynamic head
D.Pressure head, centrifugal head and relative head
Q 176 :
For a centrifugal compressor with radial vanes, slip factor is the ratio of
A.Isentropic work to Euler work
B.Whirl velocity to the blade velocity at the impeller exit
C.Stagnation pressure to static pressure
D.Isentropic temperature rise to actual temperature rise
Q 177 :
The specific speed of a centrifugal compressor is generally
A.Less than that of reciprocating compressor
B.Independent of compressor type, but depends only on size of compressor
C.Higher than that of axial compressor
D.More than specific speed of reciprocating compressor but less than axial compressor
Q 178 :
In a centrifugal compressor, the highest Mach number leading to shock wave in the fluid flow occurs at
A.Diffuser inlet radius
B.Diffuser outlet radius
C.impeller inlet radius
D.impeller outlet radius
Q 179 :
The rating of the fuse wire is always expressed in
A.Ampere-hours
B.Ampere-volts
C.KWH
D.Ampere
Q 180 :
In an axial flow compressor, the ratio of pressure rise in the rotor blades to the pressure rise in the compressor in one stage is known as
A.Pressure coefficient
B.Work factor
C.Degree of reaction
D.Slip factor
Q 181 :
CNC machine interpolator controls
A.spindle speed
B.feed to tool
C.motion of tools
D.None of these
Q 182 :
If a row interchanged in the matrix, then the determinant of matrix is
A.magnitude remains same, sign changes
B.magnitude changes, sign remains same
C.both magnitude and sign changes
D.both magnitude and sign remains same
Q 183 :
Water is coming out from a tap and falls vertically downwards. At the tap opening, the stream diameter is 20 mm with uniform velocity of 2 m/s. Assuming steady inviscid flow, constant pressure atmosphere everywhere, and neglecting curvature and surface tension effects, the diameter of the stream 0.5 m below the tap opening is nearly
A.11.7 mm
B.14.6 mm
C.17.5 mm
D.20.4 mm
Q 184 :
A body of mass 20kg falls freely in vacuum. It has fallen through a vertical distance of 50m. The gravitational acceleration may be assumed as 10m/s2. What is the thermodynamic work done by the body?
A.1000Nm
B.10kJ
C.zero
D.1kNm
Q 185 :
A closed gaseous system undergoes a reversible constant pressure process at 2bar in which 100 kJ of heat is rejected and the volume changes from 0.2m3 to 0.1m3. The change in the internal energy of the system is
A.- 100kJ
B.-80kJ
C.-60kJ
D.-40kJ
Q 186 :
A Carnot engines receives 100kJ of heat at 600K. Heat is rejected at 300K. The displacement volume is 0.2 m3. The mean effective pressure is
A.2 bar
B.2.5 bar
C.3 bar
D.3.5 bar
Q 187 :
The ratio of static enthalpy rise in the rotor to the static enthalpy rise in the stage of an axial flow compressor is defined as:
A.Power input factor
B.Flow coefficient
C.Temperature coefficient
D.Degree of reaction
Q 188 :
The eigen values of a symmetric matrix are all
A.complex with non-zero position imaginary part
B.complex with non-zero negative imaginary part
C.real
D.pure imaginary
Q 189 :
During a thermodynamic process, 100kJ of heat is transferred from a reservoir at 800K to a sink at 400K. The ambient temperature is 300K. the loss of available energy is
A.27.5 kJ
B.32.5 kJ
C.37.5 kJ
D.62.5 kJ
Q 190 :
The vapor pressure of a liquid at any arbitrary temperature can be estimated approximately with the help of
A.Gibbs equation
B.Joule-Kelvin equation
C.Clausius-Clapeyron equation
D.Gibbs-Duhem equation
Q 191 :
In order to determine the quality of wet steam by a separating and throttling calorimeter, the steam should be first separated and then throttled such that the final state is
A.Saturated vapor only
B.Superheated vapor only
C.At a pressure higher than the original pressure
D.A mixture of saturated liquid and vapor
Q 192 :
A rotor weighing 2 kN is supported on bearings A and B which are 1 m apart. The centre of mass of the rotor is at a distance 0.4 m from bearing A. It is observed that there is an unbalanced couple of magnitude 300 N-m which *leaves the shaft balanced statically. The dynamic reactions at the supports will be
A.800 N and 800 N
B.300 N and 800 N
C.800 N and –300 N
D.300 N and –300 N
Q 193 :
A cam is a mechanical member used to impart a desired motion to a follower by direct contact. Which one of the under-listed follower motion types will produce the least jerk to the system?
A.Simple harmonic
B.Constant acceleration and deceleration
C.Constant velocity
D.Cycloidal
Q 194 :
The tendency of detonation is high in engines of larger cylinder diameter because of
A.Higher intake pressure in larger cylinder
B.Higher fuel/air ration in larger cylinder
C.Flame having to travel longer distance in larger cylinder
D.Sparks are advanced more in larger cylinder
Q 195 :
An open cycle pressure gas turbine uses a fuel of calorific value 40,000 kJ/kg with airfuel ratio of 80 : 1 and develops a net output of 80kJ/kg of air. The thermal efficiency of the cycle is
A.12%
B.16%
C.20%
D.18%
E.25 %
Q 196 :
Consider the following statements regarding cycles:
1.Stirling cycle consists of two isothermal and two adiabatic processes.
2.In vapor compression cycle, the refrigerant is in form of dry saturated vapor before entering compressor.
3.Diesel cycle consists of one constant pressure; one constant volume and two isentropic processes
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1, 2 and 3
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only
Q 197 :
The efficiency of vapor power Rankine cycle can be increased by
1 .Increasing the temperature of the working fluid at which heat is added
2.Increasing the pressure of the working fluid at which heat is added
3.Decreasing the temperature of the working fluid at which heat is rejected
Which of the above statements are correct?
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.1, 2 and 3
Q 198 :
The velocity of a gas flowing through a duct is 300 m/s; its temperature is 127°C; Gas constant R = 0.25 kJ/kg K, the ratio of specific heat is Cp/CV = รฐยโบยพ = 1.6. What is the value of Mach number?
A.0.70
B.0.72
C.0.75
D.0.77
Q 199 :
When a system is taken from state ‘x’ to state ‘y’, 30kJ of heat flows into the system and the system does 10kJ of work. When the system is returned from ‘y’ to ‘x’ along another path, work done on the system is 8kJ. What is the amount of heat liberated or absorbed?
A.12 kJ of heat liberated
B.28 kJ of heat liberated
C.12 kJ of heat absorbed
D.28 kJ of heat absorbed
Q 200 :
The values of heat transfer and work transfer for the processes of a thermodynamic cycle are given below:
Process Heat transfer Worktransfer
(kJ) (kJ)
1 300 300
2 0 250
3 -100 -100
4 0 -250
The thermal efficiency of the cycle and the work ratio will be respectively
5.015 =?