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Latest VMC Apprentice Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English
Subjects : General Knowledge, Arithmetic, Mental ability, English, Computer Knowledge
Question Bank VMC Apprentice Exam - English
General Knowledge
Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A.Ministry of Finance
B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C.Ministry of Rural Development
D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A.1 and 3
B.2 and 3
C.1 and 2
D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B.Indira Mahila Yojna
C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the
A.net national product at market price
B.net national product at factor cost
C.net domestic product at market price
D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A.financial system
B.tax system
C.patents and copyrights
D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A.2nd plan
B.3rd plan
C.5th plan
D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A.sales tax
B.custom tax
C.excise tax
D.income tax
Q 11 :
Which country is the highest contributor of per capita greenhouse gas emissions ?
A.China
B.USA
C.Russia
D.India
Q 12 :
Which institution released the ‘Commodity Markets Outlook report for October 2022’ ?
A.International Monetary Fund
B.World Bank
C.World Economic Forum
D.Reserve Bank of India
Q 13 :
‘Garuda VII’ is a bilateral exercise conducted by the Air Force of India and which country ?
A.Sri Lanka
B.France
C.Japan
D.Australia
Q 14 :
Which city is the host of the ‘India Space Congress, ISC 2022’ ?
A.Bengaluru
B.Mumbai
C.New Delhi
D.Hyderabad
Q 15 :
Which country co-chaired the High-Level Dialogue on Migration and Mobility (HLDMM), with the European Union ?
A.India
B.Australia
C.France
D.China
Q 16 :
Who has been appointed as the Chair of India’s Civil 20 (C20), an official engagement group of the G20, in October 2022 ?
A.Mata Amritanandamayi Devi
B.Sadhguru Jaggi Vasudev
C.PM Narendra Modi
D.Baba Ramdev
Q 17 :
India defeated Australia to win the Sultan of Johor Cup 2022 Hockey Tournament. The Final was held in ………..
A.Bangladesh
B.Oman
C.Egypt
D.Malaysia
Q 18 :
Poland has chosen the US Firm, Westinghouse, to build its first nuclear power plant. What is the Capital of Poland ?
A.Warsaw
B.Hamburg
C.Munich
D.Lublin
Q 19 :
NSDC International (NSDCI) and Perdaman have partnered to create an interface between Indian skilled youth and market opportunities in which country ?
A.Australia
B.Japan
C.South Korea
D.New Zealand
Q 20 :
Tata Steel has received Responsible Steel Certification for three of its production facilities in ………
A.Kalinganagar
B.Koraput
C.Jharia
D.Jamshedpur
Arithmetic
Q 21 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
A.51:52
B.52:53
C.51:53
D.52:55
Q 22 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
A.√49
B.0.125
C.√2
D.22/7
Q 23 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
A.35600
B.34500
C.9630
D.93600
Q 24 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 25 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
A.36
B.38
C.310
D.96
Q 26 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.5
Q 27 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
A.3/5
B.2/3
C.4/5
Q 28 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
A.169
B.36
C.196
D.Can not say
Q 29 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
A.16
B.25
C.28
D.30
Q 30 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
A.93
B.103
C.60.5
D.121
Q 31 :
Which is greater ?
A.15/16
B.17/18
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 32 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
A.3
B.4
C.5
D.7
Q 33 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
A.XLI
B.XLVI
C.XLIV
D.XLVIC
Q 34 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
A.1/11
B.9/11
C.1/9
D.9/10
Q 35 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
A.9996
B.10000
C.10096
D.10196
Q 36 :
Which is smaller ?
A.9/11
B.7/9
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Q 37 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
A.26/45
B.52/90
C.13/22
D.5/9
Q 38 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
A.81/100
B.9/10
C.8/9
D.9/11
Q 39 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
A.3528
B.3852
C.3582
D.3825
Q 40 :
Which is greater ?
A.13/17
B.11/14
C.Equal
D.Cannot compare
Mental ability
Q 41 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Five
D.Four
E.None of these
Q 42 :
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A.True
B.False
C.Uncertain
D.None
Q 43 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A.A
B.E
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 44 :
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 45 :
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 46 :
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 47 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A.T
B.L
C.E
D.Y
E.X
Q 48 :
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 49 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 50 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A.V
B.T
C.E
D.A
E.B
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If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
A.N
B.Q
C.J
D.M
E.None of these
Q 52 :
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.None of these
Q 53 :
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
A.The only argument I is strong
B.Only argument II is strong
C.Either I or II is strong
D.Neither I nor II is strong
Q 54 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’ and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
A.P
B.L
C.T
D.X
E.Y
Q 55 :
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 56 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
E.More than four
Q 57 :
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
A.I
B.A
C.L
D.M
E.N
Q 58 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
Q 59 :
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
A.26
B.28
C.30
D.32
E.None of these
Q 60 :
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A.None
B.One
C.Two
D.Three
E.More than three
English
Q 61 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.He was in the temper
B.and refused
C.discuss the matter again
D.No error
Q 62 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A flower makes no garland
B.so we must do a thing together
C.in a unit for a good result
D.No error
Q 63 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.My friend is a software engineer
B.and his wife is doctor
C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
D.No error
Q 64 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I don’t have much time that
B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
C.tell everything in nutshell
D.No error
Q 65 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The atmosphere is changing
B.so I have severe pain in my body
C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D.No error
Q 66 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.No one is without fault
B.because no one is God
C.and only God is fault free
D.No error
Q 67 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Your
B.clock is
C.one hour fast
D.No error
Q 68 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The lose of jobs
B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C.in the fight against infliation
D.No error
Q 69 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.In science, the credit goes to a man
B.who convinces the world
C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
D.No error
Q 70 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.It is only after
B.the match is over
C.that people realize how exciting it is
D.No error
Q 71 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Off the two
B.sisters, she
C.is better
D.No error
Q 72 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.A interesting book
B.‘A Tale of two cities’
C.was written by Alexander Dumas
D.No error
Q 73 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I shall never
B.forget a good
C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
D.No error
Q 74 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
B.solved many riddles
C.that people brought to him for solution
D.No error
Q 75 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.News you broke to his wife
B.made her nervous
C.and she broke down
D.No error
Q 76 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I have a work
B.to do and
C.so I will reach late
D.No error
Q 77 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.I saw portion
B.of the manuscript
C.on birds
D.No error
Q 78 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Talent without experience is waste
B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
D.No error
Q 79 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
B.the true path of humanity
C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
D.No error
Q 80 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
B.He devoted two thirds of his life
C.for Indian freedom movement
D.No error
Computer Knowledge
Q 81 :
Which Windows interface element typically appears to display information, a warning, an error message, or a request for confirmation?
A.Window
B.Pop-up menu
C.Message box
D.Taskbar
Q 82 :
What is active desktop ?
A.a term that is synonymous with viewing your desktop as web page
B.a feature to customize your desktop to display informating you can update from the internet
C.both a and b above mentioned
D.A software
E.None of these
Q 83 :
What is meant by an active window?
A.A window that is minimized
B.The window currently receiving user input
C.Any window currently open
D.The window opened first
Q 84 :
What was America Online (AOL) primarily known for during the early popularization of consumer Internet access?
A.An online service providing Internet access and proprietary online content
B.A computer operating system
C.A spreadsheet application
D.A database management system
Q 85 :
An application is
A.word processing, accounting and engineering programs are example of application programs
B.computer program designed to enable users to perform specific job functions
C.Both a and b above mentioned
D.a document
E.None of these
Q 86 :
Which of the following programs enables you to calculate numbers related to rows and columns?
A.Window program
B.Spreadsheet program
C.Graphics program
D.Word program
E.None of these
Q 87 :
The term Briefcase is used for
A.a special folder on the windows desktop used to keep documents up to date when shared between computers
B.a window that us currently open
C.A folder which keeps deleted, files for a while and can be retrieved from it
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 88 :
In a graphical user interface, what is a button primarily used for?
A.Executing a command or initiating an action
B.Permanently storing data
C.Displaying the computer's IP address
D.Formatting a disk automatically
Q 89 :
A channel (in windows terminology) is
A.a widely used online service that offers access to the internet
B.a specialized web site designed to work with the windows 98 subscribing feature to automatically download information from the internet and store it on your computer for later viewing
C.an area on the computer memory where text or graphics can be temporarily stored
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 90 :
What does a checked checkbox generally indicate in a graphical user interface?
A.The associated option is enabled or selected
B.The application has closed
C.The file has been deleted
D.The computer is offline
Q 91 :
The term classic style implies
A.you can click on an item to select it and double click on an item to open it
B.a folder options setting that tells double click on an item to open it
C.both a and b
D.font style
E.None of these
Q 92 :
The term click implies
A.to quickly push and release the main mouse button when onscreen mouse pointer is positioned over the desired item
B.a button in a dialog box
C.to shut down or exit a dialog box
D.All of the above
E.None of these
Q 93 :
What is the primary function of the Close button marked with an X on a window?
A.Minimize the window
B.Close the associated window or application
C.Maximize the window
D.Move the window
Q 94 :
A command button
A.is a one in a dialog box such as open, close, exit OK or cancel that carries out a command
B.is a symbol that designates the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C.is a sort on screen from where you can open and manages files and programs
D.is a small button with an X on it
E.None of these
Q 95 :
What is smallest unit of the information?
A.A bit
B.A byte
C.A block
D.A nibble
Q 96 :
A cursor is
A.to make a selection from the document from the document and duplicate it on the clipboard
B.a symbol that designated the position on the screen where text or codes will be inserted or deleted
C.pressing and holding the main mouse button
D.A button in a dialog box
E.None of these
Q 97 :
What is a Database Management System (DBMS)?
A.A structured collection of data only
B.Software used to create, manage, retrieve, and update data in databases
C.A physical device for storing database backups
D.A programming language used only for calculations
Q 98 :
The meaning of cut is
A.to take a selection from the document and move it to the clipboard
B.to cut a document in two unequal parts
C.to cut a document in two equal parts
D.Only b and c are correct
Q 99 :
A setting or action predetermined by the program unless changed by the user is called as
A.pre - determined setting
B.user - setting
C.default
D.setting
E.None of these
Q 100 :
The search back ground and main area of windows where you can open and manage files and programs is
