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Question for VMMC SJH Senior Resident Anaesthesia - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 14, 2026

Duration: 60 · Questions: 60 · Max Marks: 60

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Latest VMMC SJH Senior Resident Anaesthesia Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Anaesthesia

Question Bank VMMC SJH Senior Resident (Anaesthesia) Exam - English

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Anaesthesia

Q 1 :
Which nerve primarily innervates the diaphragm?
  1. A.Intercostal nerves
  2. B.Phrenic nerve
  3. C.Vagus nerve
  4. D.Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Q 2 :
The phrenic nerve originates from which cervical nerve roots?
  1. A.C1-C2
  2. B.C2-C3
  3. C.C3-C5
  4. D.C6-C8
Q 3 :
The cricoid cartilage is located at which cervical vertebral level?
  1. A.C2
  2. B.C3
  3. C.C5
  4. D.C6
Q 4 :
Which muscle is responsible for vocal cord abduction?
  1. A.Lateral cricoarytenoid
  2. B.Thyroarytenoid
  3. C.Posterior cricoarytenoid
  4. D.Transverse arytenoid
Q 5 :
The space between the true vocal cords is known as the:
  1. A.Glottis
  2. B.Vestibule
  3. C.Subglottis
  4. D.Rima glottidis
Q 6 :
The epidural space is located between the:
  1. A.Dura mater and pia mater
  2. B.Dura mater and ligamentum flavum
  3. C.Pia mater and arachnoid mater
  4. D.Arachnoid mater and ligamentum flavum
Q 7 :
The spinal cord in adults typically terminates at which vertebral level?
  1. A.L1
  2. B.L1-L2
  3. C.L3
  4. D.L5
Q 8 :
The caudal end of the dural sac is known as the:
  1. A.Filum terminale
  2. B.Conus medullaris
  3. C.Thecal sac
  4. D.Ligamentum flavum
Q 9 :
The brachial plexus originates from which nerve roots?
  1. A.C1-C4
  2. B.C5-T1
  3. C.T2-T5
  4. D.L1-L4
Q 10 :
The axillary nerve is a branch of which cord of the brachial plexus?
  1. A.Lateral cord
  2. B.Medial cord
  3. C.Posterior cord
  4. D.All of the above
Q 11 :
The femoral nerve originates from which lumbar nerve roots?
  1. A.L1-L2
  2. B.L2-L4
  3. C.L4-S1
  4. D.S1-S3
Q 12 :
Which muscle is innervated by the obturator nerve?
  1. A.Quadriceps femoris
  2. B.Hamstrings
  3. C.Adductor muscles
  4. D.Gluteal muscles
Q 13 :
The sciatic nerve is formed by which nerve roots?
  1. A.L1-L3
  2. B.L3-L5
  3. C.L4-S3
  4. D.S1-S4
Q 14 :
The common peroneal nerve is a branch of the:
  1. A.Femoral nerve
  2. B.Obturator nerve
  3. C.Sciatic nerve
  4. D.Tibial nerve
Q 15 :
The intercostal nerves provide sensory innervation to the:
  1. A.Abdominal wall
  2. B.Thoracic wall
  3. C.Lower extremities
  4. D.Head and neck
Q 16 :
The transversalis fascia is a layer of the:
  1. A.Thoracic wall
  2. B.Abdominal wall
  3. C.Pelvic wall
  4. D.Limb wall
Q 17 :
Which landmark is used to identify the location for a spinal anaesthesia?
  1. A.Xiphoid process
  2. B.Iliac crest
  3. C.Intercristal line
  4. D.Costal margin
Q 18 :
The space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater is the:
  1. A.Epidural space
  2. B.Subdural space
  3. C.Subarachnoid space
  4. D.Retroperitoneal space
Q 19 :
The paravertebral space is located:
  1. A.Within the spinal canal
  2. B.Between the dura and the ligamentum flavum
  3. C.Lateral to the vertebral bodies
  4. D.Between the arachnoid and pia mater
Q 20 :
The erector spinae muscles are located in the:
  1. A.Anterior abdominal wall
  2. B.Posterior trunk
  3. C.Lateral thoracic wall
  4. D.Anterior neck
Q 21 :
The quadratus lumborum muscle is located in the:
  1. A.Anterior abdominal wall
  2. B.Posterior abdominal wall
  3. C.Lateral thoracic wall
  4. D.Anterior neck
Q 22 :
The serratus anterior muscle is innervated by the:
  1. A.Axillary nerve
  2. B.Musculocutaneous nerve
  3. C.Long thoracic nerve
  4. D.Thoracodorsal nerve
Q 23 :
The triangle of Petit is a landmark for the:
  1. A.Brachial plexus block
  2. B.Ilioinguinal/iliohypogastric block
  3. C.Femoral nerve block
  4. D.Sciatic nerve block
Q 24 :
The adductor canal block targets which nerve?
  1. A.Saphenous nerve
  2. B.Tibial nerve
  3. C.Peroneal nerve
  4. D.Obturator nerve
Q 25 :
The popliteal fossa block targets which nerve?
  1. A.Femoral nerve
  2. B.Obturator nerve
  3. C.Sciatic nerve (tibial and common peroneal)
  4. D.Saphenous nerve
Q 26 :
The supraclavicular approach to brachial plexus block targets the:
  1. A.Cords
  2. B.Trunks
  3. C.Divisions
  4. D.Branches
Q 27 :
The quadratus lumborum block primarily targets which nerves?
  1. A.Femoral and obturator nerves
  2. B.Sciatic and tibial nerves
  3. C.Thoracolumbar nerves (T7-L1)
  4. D.Intercostal nerves
Q 28 :
The erector spinae plane block primarily targets which nerves?
  1. A.Femoral and obturator nerves
  2. B.Sciatic and tibial nerves
  3. C.Thoracic spinal nerves (dorsal rami)
  4. D.Intercostal nerves
Q 29 :
The serratus anterior plane block primarily targets which nerves?
  1. A.Femoral and obturator nerves
  2. B.Sciatic and tibial nerves
  3. C.Lateral cutaneous branches of intercostal nerves
  4. D.Intercostal nerves
Q 30 :
The transversus abdominis plane (TAP) block primarily targets which nerves?
  1. A.Femoral and obturator nerves
  2. B.Sciatic and tibial nerves
  3. C.Thoracolumbar nerves (T6-L1) supplying the abdominal wall
  4. D.Intercostal nerves
Q 31 :
What is the recommended depth for chest compressions in adult BLS?
  1. A.7-8 cm
  2. B.2-3 cm
  3. C.5-6 cm
  4. D.1-2 cm
Q 32 :
What is the recommended rate for chest compressions in adult BLS?
  1. A.100-120 per minute
  2. B.60-80 per minute
  3. C.140-160 per minute
  4. D.40-60 per minute
Q 33 :
Where should chest compressions be performed in adults during BLS?
  1. A.Over the xiphoid process
  2. B.Left side of chest
  3. C.Upper half of sternum
  4. D.Center of chest, lower half of sternum
Q 34 :
What is the purpose of chest compressions in BLS?
  1. A.Restore blood circulation
  2. B.Clear airway obstruction
  3. C.Stimulate breathing
  4. D.Reduce heart rate
Q 35 :
What should be allowed during chest compressions in BLS?
  1. A.No chest recoil
  2. B.Partial chest recoil
  3. C.Full chest recoil
  4. D.Continuous compression
Q 36 :
What is the preferred method to open the airway in adult BLS?
  1. A.Head-tilt, chin-lift
  2. B.Jaw-thrust without head-tilt
  3. C.Neck extension only
  4. D.Chin-lift without head-tilt
Q 37 :
When is the jaw-thrust maneuver used in BLS?
  1. A.Obese patients
  2. B.All adult patients
  3. C.Pediatric patients only
  4. D.Suspected cervical spine injury
Q 38 :
What is a sign of effective airway opening in BLS?
  1. A.Increased cyanosis
  2. B.No chest movement
  3. C.Visible chest rise
  4. D.Decreased pulse
Q 39 :
What should be checked before opening the airway in BLS?
  1. A.Blood pressure
  2. B.Pulse
  3. C.Breathing
  4. D.Responsiveness
Q 40 :
What is the first step in BLS if a patient is unresponsive?
  1. A.Check for breathing
  2. B.Open the airway
  3. C.Start chest compressions
  4. D.Call for help
Q 41 :
What is the recommended volume for rescue breaths in adult BLS?
  1. A.No specific volume
  2. B.1 liter per breath
  3. C.2 liters per breath
  4. D.Enough to cause chest rise
Q 42 :
How many rescue breaths are given in adult BLS after 30 compressions?
  1. A.1
  2. B.2
  3. C.3
  4. D.4
Q 43 :
What is the duration of each rescue breath in adult BLS?
  1. A.2 seconds
  2. B.1 second
  3. C.3 seconds
  4. D.5 seconds
Q 44 :
What device can be used to deliver rescue breaths in BLS?
  1. A.Laryngeal mask airway
  2. B.Endotracheal tube
  3. C.Bag-mask device
  4. D.Nasopharyngeal airway
Q 45 :
What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio in single-rescuer adult BLS?
  1. A.15:1
  2. B.15:2
  3. C.30:1
  4. D.30:2
Q 46 :
What does the 'C' in the CAB sequence of BLS stand for?
  1. A.Airway
  2. B.Circulation
  3. C.Breathing
  4. D.Compression
Q 47 :
What is the first step in the CAB sequence of BLS?
  1. A.Check pulse
  2. B.Airway opening
  3. C.Rescue breaths
  4. D.Chest compressions
Q 48 :
Why is the CAB sequence used in BLS?
  1. A.Prioritizes circulation
  2. B.Prioritizes airway
  3. C.Prioritizes breathing
  4. D.Equal priority
Q 49 :
What follows chest compressions in the CAB sequence?
  1. A.Rescue breaths
  2. B.Airway opening
  3. C.Pulse check
  4. D.Defibrillation
Q 50 :
When is the CAB sequence initiated in BLS?
  1. A.Patient with normal pulse
  2. B.Responsive patient
  3. C.Unresponsive patient with no breathing
  4. D.Patient with mild dyspnea

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