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Question Bank

VMMC Staff Nurse Exam - English

Duration: 120 · Questions: 150 · Max Marks: 150 · Language: 1

View VMMC Staff Nurse 2026 Exam Page

English

1
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.He was in the temper
  2. B.and refused
  3. C.discuss the matter again
  4. D.No error
2
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.A flower makes no garland
  2. B.so we must do a thing together
  3. C.in a unit for a good result
  4. D.No error
3
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.My friend is a software engineer
  2. B.and his wife is doctor
  3. C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
  4. D.No error
4
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I don’t have much time that
  2. B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
  3. C.tell everything in nutshell
  4. D.No error
5
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The atmosphere is changing
  2. B.so I have severe pain in my body
  3. C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
  4. D.No error
6
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.No one is without fault
  2. B.because no one is God
  3. C.and only God is fault free
  4. D.No error
7
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Your
  2. B.clock is
  3. C.one hour fast
  4. D.No error
8
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The lose of jobs
  2. B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
  3. C.in the fight against infliation
  4. D.No error
9
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.In science, the credit goes to a man
  2. B.who convinces the world
  3. C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
  4. D.No error
10
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.It is only after
  2. B.the match is over
  3. C.that people realize how exciting it is
  4. D.No error
11
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Off the two
  2. B.sisters, she
  3. C.is better
  4. D.No error
12
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.A interesting book
  2. B.‘A Tale of two cities’
  3. C.was written by Alexander Dumas
  4. D.No error
13
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I shall never
  2. B.forget a good
  3. C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
  4. D.No error
14
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
  2. B.solved many riddles
  3. C.that people brought to him for solution
  4. D.No error
15
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.News you broke to his wife
  2. B.made her nervous
  3. C.and she broke down
  4. D.No error
16
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I have a work
  2. B.to do and
  3. C.so I will reach late
  4. D.No error
17
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I saw portion
  2. B.of the manuscript
  3. C.on birds
  4. D.No error
18
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Talent without experience is waste
  2. B.so one must attain some practical knowledge and
  3. C.it is only practical knowledge through which one can be an expert
  4. D.No error
19
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The Geeta, the Bible and the Quran all show us
  2. B.the true path of humanity
  3. C.Ramayana also can be included in this group
  4. D.No error
20
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Gandhiji was born on 2nd October 1869
  2. B.He devoted two thirds of his life
  3. C.for Indian freedom movement
  4. D.No error

Aptitude

1
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
2
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
3
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
4
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
5
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
6
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
7
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
8
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
9
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
  1. A.16   
  2. B.25
  3. C.28  
  4. D.30
10
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
  1. A.93     
  2. B.103
  3. C.60.5
  4. D.121
11
Which is greater ?
  1. A.15/16
  2. B.17/18
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
12
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
  1. A.3 
  2. B.4
  3. C.5    
  4. D.7
13
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
  1. A.XLI 
  2. B.XLVI
  3. C.XLIV 
  4. D.XLVIC
14
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
  1. A.1/11
  2. B.9/11
  3. C.1/9
  4. D.9/10
15
What is (98 times 102) ?
  1. A.9996
  2. B.10000
  3. C.10096
  4. D.10196
16
Which is smaller ?
  1. A.9/11
  2. B.7/9
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
17
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
  1. A.26/45
  2. B.52/90
  3. C.13/22
  4. D.5/9
18
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
  1. A.81/100
  2. B.9/10
  3. C.8/9
  4. D.9/11
19
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
  1. A.3528 
  2. B.3852
  3. C.3582  
  4. D.3825
20
Which is greater ?
  1. A.13/17
  2. B.11/14
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare

General Knowledge

1
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
2
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
3
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
4
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
5
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
6
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
7
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
8
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
  1. A.financial system            
  2. B.tax system
  3. C.patents and copyrights  
  4. D.Public sector undertakings
9
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
  1. A.2nd plan
  2. B.3rd plan
  3. C.5th plan
  4. D.6th plan
10
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
  1. A.sales tax           
  2. B.custom tax
  3. C.excise tax         
  4. D.income tax
11
‘Mukhyamantri Mahtari Nyay Rath’ was launched by the CM of which of the following state?
  1. A.Madhya Pradesh 
  2. B.Maharashtra
  3. C.Chhattisgarh
  4. D.Uttar Pradesh
12
Mirabai Chanu has won the first Gold medal for India at CWG 2022. Mirabai Chanu participated in which of the following category ?
  1. A.51 Kg Women’s
  2. B.49 Kg Women’s
  3. C.53 Kg Women’s
  4. D.47 Kg Women’s             
13
'The Indian Vegetable Oil Producers' Association (IVPA) and Palm Oil Council of which country have signed an MOU to promote use of palm oil ?
  1. A.Cambodia
  2. B.Japan
  3. C.Indonesia
  4. D.Malaysia
14
Who gave away Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Awards in New Delhi in July 2022 ?
  1. A.Rajnath Singh
  2. B.Giriraj Singh
  3. C.Narendra Singh Tomar
  4. D.Nirmala Sitharaman
15
Name the company that recently partnered with Talgo India Private Limited to set up a joint venture for manufacturing high-speed trains in India ?
  1. A.GMR Infrastructure Limited
  2. B.BF Infrastructure Limited
  3. C.Reliance Infrastructure Limited
  4. D.Hindustan Construction
16
The National Skill Development Mission, also known as the Skill India Mission, under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, observed its …… anniversary on 15th July 2022 .
  1. A.5th
  2. B.6th
  3. C.3rd
  4. D.7th
17
Which country’s Reserve Bank recently launched gold coins namely ‘Mosi-oa-Tunya’ as Legal Tender to tackle inflation ?
  1. A.Zambia
  2. B.Mozambique
  3. C.Namibia
  4. D.Zimbabwe
18
The RBI’s Digital Payments Index (RBI-DPI) was recently rose to …… in March 2022 against 270.59 in March 2021 ?
  1. A.328.15
  2. B.290.41
  3. C.389.12
  4. D.349.30
19
Sahitya Akademi Award-winning and litterateur Atulananda Goswami recently passed away. He received the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2006 for his short story collection ……..
  1. A.Satanic Verses
  2. B.Seneh Jarir Ganthi
  3. C.Ghachar Ghochar
  4. D.Ahalya
20
What is the theme of World Hepatitis Day 2022 that was observed across the globe on 28th July 2022 by the World Health Organization (WHO) ?
  1. A.Bringing Hepatitis Care Closer to You
  2. B.Hepatitis-free Future
  3. C.Test, Treat. Hepatitis
  4. D.Hepatitis Can’t Wait

General Science

1
Temperature can be expressed as derived quantity in terms of
  1. A.length and mass
  2. B.mass and time
  3. C.length, mass and time
  4. D.None of these
2
Electron volt is a unit of
  1. A.potential difference
  2. B.charge
  3. C.energy
  4. D.capacity
3
Dimensions of impulse are
  1. A.[MLT –1]
  2. B.[MLT²]
  3. C.[MT–2]
  4. D.[ML–1T–3]
4
Potential is measured in
  1. A.joule/coulomb
  2. B.watt/coulomb
  3. C.newton–second
  4. D.None of these
5
One Nanometer is equal to
  1. A.10–9m
  2. B.10–6m
  3. C.10–10m
  4. D.10–3m
6
Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre:
  1. A.Anygora
  2. B.Rayon
  3. C.Nylon
  4. D.Polyster
7
Which one of the following is not contained in Portland cement ?
  1. A.Ca3Al2O6
  2. B.Ca3SiO5
  3. C.Ca2Si­O4
  4. D.Ca3(PO4)2
8
What is the reson for white cement to be white ?
  1. A.It does not contain carbon
  2. B.It does not contain silicon
  3. C.It does not contain iron
  4. D.It does not contain calcium
9
Which fertilizer is assimilated directly by the plant ?
  1. A.Super phosphate
  2. B.Nitrolim
  3. C.Muriate of Potash
  4. D.Humus
10
Which of the following chemicals is used in foam fire extinguishers ?
  1. A.Aluminium sulphate
  2. B.Copper sulphate
  3. C.Cobalt sulphate
  4. D.Nickel sulphate 
11
Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration ?
  1. A.Dictyosomes
  2. B.Endoplasmic reticulum
  3. C.lysosomes
  4. D.Mitochondria
12
Which one among the following nutrients is a strctural
  1. A.Cell membrane
  2. B.Plasma membrane
  3. C.Cell wall
  4. D.Nucleus
13
Which one among the following nutrients is a structural component of the cell wall of plants ?
  1. A.Manganese
  2. B.Potassium
  3. C.Phosphorus
  4. D.Calcium
14
Which of the following groups is present in animal cells ?
  1. A.Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
  2. B.Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
  3. C.Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
  4. D.Vacuole, cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
15
For which among the following is not a true fruit ?
  1. A.Apple
  2. B.Date
  3. C.Grape
  4. D.Plum
16
Which one of the following is not a constituent of cell membrane ?
  1. A.Cholesterol
  2. B.Glycoplids
  3. C.Proline
  4. D.Phospholipids
17
The replication of DNA is a pre-requisite for a eukaryotic cell to undergo division. During the cell cycle, the DNA replicates in
  1. A.S–phase
  2. B.G1–phase
  3. C.G2–phase
  4. D.M-phase
18
During which stage of mitosis does cytokinesis usually occur in animals ?
  1. A.Phophase
  2. B.Metaphase
  3. C.Anaphase
  4. D.Telophase
19
Lysosome arises from
  1. A.endoplasmic reticulum
  2. B.golgi apparatus
  3. C.nucleus
  4. D.mitochondria
20
The correct sequence of cell cycle is
  1. A.S, G1, G2, M
  2. B.S, M, G1, G2
  3. C.G1, S, G2, M
  4. D.M, G1, G2, S

Logical Reasoning

1
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. A.Two
  2. B.Three
  3. C.Five
  4. D.Four
  5. E.None of these
2
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. A.True
  2. B.False
  3. C.Uncertain
  4. D.None
3
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
  1. A.A
  2. B.E
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
4
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
  1. A.None            
  2. B.One         
  3. C.Two       
  4. D.Three        
  5. E.More than three
5
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
6
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
7
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
  1. A.T
  2. B.L
  3. C.E
  4. D.Y
  5. E.X
8
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
9
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
10
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’  and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
  1. A.V
  2. B.T
  3. C.E
  4. D.A
  5. E.B
11
If each alternate letter beginning with the first in the word WORKING is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet and each of the remaining letters is replaced by the previous letter in the English alphabet, which of the following will be the fourth from the right and after the replacement ?
  1. A.N
  2. B.Q
  3. C.J
  4. D.M
  5. E.None of these
12
How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘SHIFTED’ each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.None of these
13
Statement: Is common currency a necessary ingredient for Europe’s growth ?
Arguments :
I. Yes, A common currency will enable entire Europe to market itself as one .
II. No, Similar experiments by Latin America countries have not affected their economies .
  1. A.The only argument I is strong
  2. B.Only argument II is strong
  3. C.Either I or II is strong
  4. D.Neither I nor II is strong
14
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the fifth, the sixth, the tenth and the eleventh letters of the word EXCEPTIONAL using each letter only once, first letter of that word is your answer. If no such word can be made formed your answer is ‘X’  and if more than one such word can be formed your answer is ‘Y’.
  1. A.P
  2. B.L
  3. C.T
  4. D.X
  5. E.Y
15
How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RAE using each letter only once in each word?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
16
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word WONDERS, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.One
  2. B.Two
  3. C.Three
  4. D.Four
  5. E.More than four
17
If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word from the second, the fifth, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word PHYSICAL, using each letter only once, second letter of that word is your answer. If more than one such word can  be formed your answer is M. if no such word can be formed your answer is N.
  1. A.I
  2. B.A
  3. C.L
  4. D.M
  5. E.N
18
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUSTIFY, each of which have as many letters between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three
19
If the alphabets are assigned values as A=3, D=6, G=8, I=2, L=4 and T=5 then what is the sum of values of all the alphabets in the word DIGITAL?
  1. A.26
  2. B.28
  3. C.30
  4. D.32
  5. E.None of these
20
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EDUCATION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
  1. A.None
  2. B.One
  3. C.Two
  4. D.Three
  5. E.More than three

Nursing

1
Father of anatomy-
  1. A.Robert Koach
  2. B.Aristotle
  3. C.Andreas Vesalius
  4. D.Robert Hook
2
Power house of cell a is known as-
  1. A.Mitochondria
  2. B.Lysosomes
  3. C.Ribosomes
  4. D.​Nucleus 
3
Normal size of a cell is-
  1. A.75-30 micron
  2. B.7.5-300 micron
  3. C.1-2 micron
  4. D.​2-3 micron
4
Plasma membrane is composed of-               
  1. A.Fat
  2. B.Carbohydrate
  3. C.Protein
  4. D.​All are right         
5
The function of mitochondria in cell is-
  1. A.To form ATP              
  2. B.Protection of cell              
  3. C.Transportation​
  4. D.Excretion     
6
A patient with a diagnosis of end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is admitted to ICU. All of the following is the appropriate nursing diagnoses for this patient, except :
  1. A.Fluid volume excess
  2. B.Decreased RBC
  3. C.Electrolyte imbalance
  4. D.Impaired immune function
7
Engulfing of the liquid substance by cell is called
  1. A.Phagocytosis
  2. B.Pinocytosis
  3. C.Osmosis
  4. D.​None of them    
8
Which of the following cell organ contains hydrolytic gland?
  1. A.Nucleus
  2. B.Lysosome
  3. C.Mitochondria
  4. D.​Endoplasmic reticulum      
9
The secretion of goblet cell is known as-   
  1. A.Hormone
  2. B.Mucous
  3. C.Enzymes
  4. D.​Digestive juices             
10
Which of the following glands is an example of hollocrine gland ?
  1. A.Sweat gland
  2. B.Sebaceous gland
  3. C.Pancreatic
  4. D.Salivary gland
11
In the state infection which tissue are more active-          
  1. A.Reticular tissue
  2. B.Adipose tissue
  3. C.Elastic tissue
  4. D.​Collagenase tissue        
12
Brown adipose tissue is mostly found is-          
  1. A.Adult male
  2. B.Adult female
  3. C.New born
  4. D.​Old age persons          
13
Largest gland of the body is-    
  1. A.Pituitary                   
  2. B.Adrenal
  3. C.Liver
  4. D.​Pancreas   
14
The potential reason of alopecia is-    
  1. A.Protein deficiency
  2. B.Malnutrition
  3. C.Genetic
  4. D.Vitamin deficiency       
15
Nodes of ranvier is found in which cell –
  1. A.Epithelial cell
  2. B.Muscles cell
  3. C.Nerve cell
  4. D.​Red cell 
16
The total number of bones found in human body is-             
  1. A.206                    
  2. B.306
  3. C.205
  4. D.​210      
17
Lambdoid suture runs between these two bones-
  1. A.Parietal and frontal bone
  2. B.Parietal and parietal bone
  3. C.Parietal and occipital
  4. D.​In both temporal bone
18
In children fusion of anterior fontanel takes place during-            
  1. A.18 months
  2. B.2 months        
  3. C.6 months
  4. D.12 months        
19
Coronal sutures are found in-
  1. A.Parietal and formal bone
  2. B.Parietal and parietal bone
  3. C.Parietal and occipital
  4. D.In both temporal bone 
20
Which part of the temporal bone is related with hearing and balancing ?    
  1. A.Squamous part
  2. B.Mastoid part
  3. C.Tympanic part
  4. D.​Petrous part
21
Smallest bone of human body is -
  1. A.Stapes
  2. B.Fibula
  3. C.Tarsel
  4. D.Carpel
22
Digestion begins in our body from -
  1. A.Small intestine
  2. B.Large intestine
  3. C.Mouth
  4. D.Stomach
23
Fetal heart can be felt on which day of embroyonic life -                        
  1. A.After 6.5-7 Weeks
  2. B.At 5 days
  3. C.At 10 days
  4. D.At 40 days      
24
The average time of cardiac cycle is-           
  1. A.6 sec.
  2. B.0.8 sec
  3. C.1 min
  4. D.​1 sec           
25
The contraction wave of heart starts from -
  1. A.S.A node
  2. B.A.V node
  3. C.Bundle of his
  4. D.​Purkinje fiber
26
The formula to measure the cardiac output is -
  1. A.Stroke volume / heart rate
  2. B.Stroke volume * heart rate
  3. C.Stroke volume – heart rate
  4. D.​Stroke volume + heart rate
27
Most of digestion occurs in which part of alimentary canal of man ?         
  1. A.Small intestine
  2. B.Large intestine
  3. C.Mouth
  4. D.​Stomach
28
Function of pacemaker is -
  1. A.To initiate heart beat
  2. B.To regulate beat
  3. C.To regulate blood pressure
  4. D.​To regulate brain waves
29
During sleep blood pressure -
  1. A.Increase
  2. B.Decreases
  3. C.Does not change
  4. D.First decrease than change
30
To complete one heart beat the time taken is -                            
  1. A.0.8 second
  2. B.1 second
  3. C.72 second
  4. D.​1.8 second
31
Longest artery found in the body of human is -
  1. A.Aorta
  2. B.Venacava
  3. C.Capillaries
  4. D.​Vesicles
32
Blood bank of human body is -
  1. A.Spleen
  2. B.Liver
  3. C.Bone
  4. D.​Kidney
33
Red blood corpuscles is also known as -
  1. A.Erythrocytes
  2. B.Leucocytes
  3. C.Monocytes
  4. D.Oligodendrocytes
34
Graveyard of red blood cell is -
  1. A.Spleen
  2. B.Liver
  3. C.Bone
  4. D.​Kidney
35
Number of which type of WBC is greatest in blood of human?                        
  1. A.Neutrophils
  2. B.Basophils
  3. C.Monocytes
  4. D.​Basophila
36
A person with AB blood group is some times called a universal recipient because of the –        
  1. A.Lack of antigen in his blood
  2. B.Lack of antibodies in his blood
  3. C.Lack of both antigen and antibodies in his blood
  4. D.​Presence of antibodies in his blood
37
In which organ of the human body are the lymphocytes cells formed ?         
  1. A.Long bones
  2. B.Spleen
  3. C.Kidney
  4. D.​Heart
38
Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called - 
  1. A.Coronary artery
  2. B.Pulmonary artery
  3. C.Femoral artery
  4. D.​Radial artery
39
Which of the following chemical can be used in anti – coagulant?                        
  1. A.Sodium citrate
  2. B.Calcium
  3. C.Sodium nitrate
  4. D.Heparin               
40
The cells which have least regeneration capacity -
  1. A.Cells of brain
  2. B.Cells of bone
  3. C.Cells of heart
  4. D.Cells of kidney
41
Largest part of human brain is-
  1. A.Cerebrum
  2. B.Cerebellum
  3. C.Pons
  4. D.Oblongata 
42
Centre of reflex action-
  1. A.Spinal cord
  2. B.Pons
  3. C.Cerebellum
  4. D.​Cerebrum       
43
In a cell, process of respiration takes place in - 
  1. A.Mitochondria
  2. B.Golgi apparatus
  3. C.Ribosome
  4. D.​Lysosomes
44
Percentage of oxygen found in exhaled air is -
  1. A.12%
  2. B.14%
  3. C.16%
  4. D.​18%
45
Saliva secreted from mouth digest -
  1. A.Starch
  2. B.Fat
  3. C.Protein
  4. D.​Alcohol
46
Tear gland is not found in-
  1. A.Dog
  2. B.Man
  3. C.Pig
  4. D.Crocodile  
47
Estrogen is secreted by -
  1. A.Corpus luteum
  2. B.Deciduas
  3. C.Graffian follicels
  4. D.​None of them
48
Which of the following hormone is called emergency hormone ?                 
  1. A.Insulin
  2. B.Adrenalin
  3. C.Estrogen
  4. D.Progesterone
49
Which of the following control blood pressure ?                               
  1. A.Adrenal
  2. B.Thyroid
  3. C.Glucagon
  4. D.Insulin
50
Lifesaving hormone is -
  1. A.Adrenal
  2. B.Pancreas
  3. C.Glucagon
  4. D.Insulin
Question for VMMC Staff Nurse 2026 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ - Toppersexam