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Question Bank

Question for WB Post Office GDS - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 10, 2026

Duration: 120 · Questions: 75 · Max Marks: 75

View WB Post Office GDS 2026 Exam Page

To boost your performance in WB Post Office GDS exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in WB Post Office GDS exams.

Latest WB Post Office GDS Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Knowledge, Maths, English

Question Bank WB Post Office GDS Exam - English

General Knowledge

Q 1 :
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. A.Ministry of Finance        
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 2 :
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
  1. A.Ministry of Finance 
  2. B.Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. C.Ministry of Rural Development
  4. D.Planning Commission
Q 3 :
Devaluation of a currency means
  1. A.Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
  2. B.Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
  3. C.Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
  4. D.Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Q 4 :
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
            1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
            2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
            3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
  1. A.1 and 3
  2. B.2 and 3
  3. C.1 and 2
  4. D.1,2 and 3
Q 5 :
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
  1. A.Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
  2. B.Indira Mahila Yojna
  3. C.Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
  4. D.Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Q 6 :
What is Net National Product
  1. A.the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
  2. B.the money value of annual service generation in the economy
  3. C.the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
  4. D.The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Q 7 :
National income is the 
  1. A.net national product at market price
  2. B.net national product at factor cost
  3. C.net domestic product at market price
  4. D.net domestic product at factor cost
Q 8 :
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
  1. A.financial system            
  2. B.tax system
  3. C.patents and copyrights  
  4. D.Public sector undertakings
Q 9 :
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
  1. A.2nd plan
  2. B.3rd plan
  3. C.5th plan
  4. D.6th plan
Q 10 :
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
  1. A.sales tax           
  2. B.custom tax
  3. C.excise tax         
  4. D.income tax
Q 11 :
The first Metro Railway Service in Kolkata began in the year
  1. A.1984
  2. B.1981
  3. C.1975
  4. D.1979
Q 12 :
Kolkata - Mumbai National Highway via Agra is known as
  1. A.NH-5
  2. B.NH-8
  3. C.NH-3
  4. D.NH-6
Q 13 :
Bongaon and Kolkata is connected by
  1. A.NH-35
  2. B.NH-02
  3. C.NH-06
  4. D.NH-32
Q 14 :
The headquarter of the Eastern Railway is located at
  1. A.Ranchi
  2. B.Kharagpur
  3. C.Dispur
  4. D.Kolkata
Q 15 :
Which is the longest national highway in India ?
  1. A.NH-27
  2. B.NH-30
  3. C.NH-44
  4. D.NH-53
Q 16 :
Which is the official Flower of West Bengal ?
  1. A.Lotus
  2. B.Palash
  3. C.Shephali
  4. D.Rhododendron
Q 17 :
Which is the official bird of West Bengal ?
  1. A.Green Imperial Pigeon
  2. B.White-throated King Fisher
  3. C.Koel
  4. D.Emerald Dove
Q 18 :
When did West Bengal become a state ?
  1. A.August 15, 1947 
  2. B.August 15, 1948
  3. C.November 26, 1949
  4. D.January 26, 1950
Q 19 :
What was the old name of Bengal ?
  1. A.Bhokardan
  2. B.Patalipura
  3. C.Kalpi
  4. D.Ganaridai
Q 20 :
Who founded the independent Bengal ?
  1. A.Ilians Shah
  2. B.Murshid Quli Khan
  3. C.Hussain Shah
  4. D.Alivardi Khan
Q 21 :
Phangnon Konyak, who was seen in the news, is a Member of Parliament from which state/UT ?
  1. A.Nagaland
  2. B.Manipur
  3. C.Sikkim
  4. D.Arunachal Pradesh
Q 22 :
Which river serves as the predominant border between the United States and Mexico ?
  1. A.Niagara River
  2. B.Rio Grande River
  3. C.St. Lawrence River
  4. D.Detroit River
Q 23 :
Mhadei Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state/UT ?
  1. A.Maharashtra
  2. B.Goa
  3. C.West Bengal
  4. D.Manipur
Q 24 :
Which is the first African country to initiative a debt-for-nature swap ?
  1. A.Egypt
  2. B.South Africa
  3. C.Gabon
  4. D.Kenya
Q 25 :
X-59, also known as the ‘Son of Concorde, is an experimental supersonic aircraft to which country ?
  1. A.Russia
  2. B.China
  3. C.USA
  4. D.UAE

Maths

Q 26 :
The elements of the set {x : x is an integer, x2 : 4} can be represent as .....Z..... . Here, Z refers to
  1. A.{–2, 2} 
  2. B.{–1, 0, 1}
  3. C.{–2, –1, 0, 1, 2}
  4. D.{0, 1, 2}
Q 27 :
  1. D.None of these
Q 28 :
If Y = {x : x is a positive factor of the number 2p – 1(2p – 1), where 2p – 1 is a prime number}, then Y can be represent in roster form as
  1. A.{2}
  2. B.{1, 2}  
  3. C.{1, 2, 22, ....., 2p – 1}
  4. D.{1, 2, 22, 23,.... 2p – 1, (2p – 1)}
Q 29 :
The set {x : x is a positive integer less than 6 and 3x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is
  1. A.{1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
  2. B.{1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}  
  3. C.{2, 4, 6}
  4. D.{1, 3, 5}
Q 30 :
If A B and A B, then
  1. A.A is called a proper subset of B
  2. B.A is called a super set of B
  3. C.A is not a subset of B 
  4. D.B is a subset of A
Q 31 :
The number of non-empty subsets of the set{1, 2, 3, 4} is
  1. A.15
  2. B.14
  3. C.16
  4. D.17
Q 32 :
The number of elements of the power set of a set containing m elements is
  1. A.2m – 1
  2. B.m 
  3. C.m2
  4. D.2m
Q 33 :
If A = {x : x = n2, n = 1, 2, 3}, then number of proper subsets is
  1. A.3
  2. B.8
  3. C.7
  4. D.None of these
Q 34 :
If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 £ n £ 5},then number of subsets of A is
  1. A.16
  2. B.15  
  3. C.4 
  4. D.None of these 
Q 35 :
Let A and B be two non-empty subsets of a set X such that A is not a subset of B, then
  1. A.A is always a subset of the complement of B
  2. B.B is always a subset of A  
  3. C.A and B are always disjoint
  4. D.A and the complement of B are always non-disjoint  
Q 36 :
Which of the following is/are empty set? 
A = {x : x2 + x + 1 = 0 and x Î Z}   B = {x : x is a prime number and 19 < x < 23}
  1. A.A
  2. B.B  
  3. C.Both A and B
  4. D.None of the above 
Q 37 :
The set {x : x4 = 1 and x R} is .....X.... set. Here, X refers to
  1. A.empty
  2. B.finite
  3. C.infinite
  4. D.singleton 
Q 38 :
The universal set for the sets   
A = {x : x2 – 5x + 6 = 0} and   
B = {x : x2 – 3x + 2 = 0} having least number of elements is
  1. A.{1, 2}
  2. B.{1, 3}
  3. C.{1, 2, 3}
  4. D.{0, 1, 2, 3}
Q 39 :
If A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {x € R : x2 – 2x + 1 = 0}, 
C = {1, 2, 2, 3} and 
D = {x € R : x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are
  1. A.A and B
  2. B.A and C  
  3. C.A, B and C 
  4. D.A, C and D
Q 40 :
If A = (–3, 5) and  B = [–7, 9], then
  1. A.A = B
  2. B.A B 
  3. C.B A
  4. D.None of these 
Q 41 :
Two finite sets have m and n elements, respectively. The total number of subsets of first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n respectively are
  1. A.7, 6
  2. B.5, 1
  3. C.6, 3
  4. D.8, 7
Q 42 :
Combine terms: 12a + 26b  - 4b – 16a .
  1. A.4a + 22b
  2. B.-28a + 30b
  3. C.-4a + 22b
  4. D.28a + 30b
Q 43 :
The average of first 50 natural numbers is ………… .
  1. A.25.30
  2. B.25.5
  3. C.25.00
  4. D.12.25
Q 44 :
60 Times of 8 Equals to
  1. A.480
  2. B.300
  3. C.250
  4. D.400
Q 45 :
Consider the sets
A = {x : x is a real number and x2 + 1 = 0}
B = {x : x is a real number and x2 – 16 = 0}
C = {x : x is a real number and x2 = x + 2}
Which of the following is are null set ?
  1. A.A
  2. B.A and B
  3. C.A and C
  4. D.A, B and C
Q 46 :
If X = {4n – 3n – 1: n Î N} and Y = {9(n – 1): n Î N}; where N is the set of natural numbers, then X È Y is equal to
  1. A.N
  2. B.Y – X
  3. C.X
  4. D.Y
Q 47 :
Which of the following is / are correct?
I. {2, 3, 4} {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
II. {a, b, c} {b, c, d}
III. {x : x is an equilateral triangle in a plane} Ì {x : x is a triangle in the same plane}
IV. {x : x is an even natural number} {x : x is an integer}
  1. A.I and III are correct
  2. B.II and III are correct  
  3. C.Only IV is correct 
  4. D.All above are correct 
Q 48 :
    Q 49 :
    Consider the following statements :
    1. The set of all irrational numbers between √2 and √5 is an infinite set .
    2. The set of all odd integers less than 100 is a finite set .
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
    1. A.1 only
    2. B.2 only
    3. C.Both 1 and 2
    4. D.Neither 1 nor 2
    Q 50 :
    What is the Next Prime Number after 7 ?
    1. A.13
    2. B.12
    3. C.14
    4. D.11

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