Question for WBHRB Pharmacist Grade 3 - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

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Latest WBHRB Pharmacist Grade 3 Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : Pharmacist

Question Bank WBHRB Pharmacist Grade 3 Exam - English

Pharmacist

Q 1 :

Which preparation is used to help prevent dehydration or achieve rehydration?

1. A.Lytren solution
2. B.Liposul
3. C.Bicytra
4. D.Mylicon

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Q 2 :

Emulsions prepared using Tweens as the principal emulsifying agents are usually of which type?

1. A.Water-in-oil
2. B.Oil-in-water
3. C.Multiple emulsion
4. D.Microcapsule dispersion
5. E. reversible

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Q 3 :

Compared with the corresponding crystalline form, an amorphous form of a drug is generally?

1. A.Less soluble
2. B.More soluble
3. C.Chemically identical to a solvate
4. D.Completely insoluble

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Q 4 :

A triple-roller mill is particularly useful in pharmaceutical preparation for reducing particle size and producing smooth?

1. A.Ointments
2. B.Hard gelatin capsules
3. C.Aerosols
4. D.Suppository molds

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Q 5 :

Particle-size reduction is most likely to improve drug absorption when absorption is limited primarily by which process?

1. A.Dissolution of a poorly soluble drug
2. B.Renal filtration
3. C.Hepatic metabolism
4. D.Plasma-protein synthesis

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Q 6 :

A material whose apparent viscosity increases as shear rate increases is classified as?

1. A.Dilatant
2. B.Newtonian
3. C.Pseudoplastic
4. D.Thixotropic

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Q 7 :

A solution contains 3 grains of a drug per US fluid ounce. Approximately what is its percentage strength w/v?

1. A.0.66%
2. B.0.20%
3. C.1.50%
4. D.6.60%

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Q 8 :

Cyanocobalamin is which type of substance?

1. A.Steroid
2. B.Vitamin
3. C.Cholinesterase inhibitor
4. D.Enzyme

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Q 9 :

Tweens are best classified as which type of pharmaceutical excipient?

1. A.Nonionic surfactants
2. B.Phospholipids
3. C.Glycosides
4. D.Inorganic electrolytes

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Q 10 :

Which process can promote separation of an emulsion by accelerating movement of dispersed droplets?

1. A.Centrifugation
2. B.Buffering
3. C.Isotonization
4. D.Sweetening

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Q 11 :

Which gastrointestinal effect is characteristically associated with oral iron preparations?

1. A.Darkening of stools
2. B.Blue discoloration of saliva
3. C.Green discoloration of tears
4. D.Purple discoloration of sweat

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Q 12 :

Orally administered lidocaine has limited systemic usefulness largely because it undergoes extensive?

1. A.First-pass hepatic metabolism
2. B.Renal tubular secretion before absorption
3. C.Photochemical degradation in the stomach
4. D.Pulmonary metabolism before absorption

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Q 13 :

On exposure to air and light, phenol may gradually develop which discoloration because of oxidation?

1. A.Pink to reddish coloration
2. B.Bright green coloration
3. C.Deep blue coloration
4. D.Pure white coloration

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Q 14 :

Approximately how much HgCl₂ is required to prepare 1 US pint (about 473 mL) of a 1:5000 w/v solution?

1. A.9.5 mg
2. B.47.3 mg
3. C.94.6 mg
4. D.473 mg

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Q 15 :

Which sulfonylurea has historically been associated with potentiation of the antidiuretic action of vasopressin?

1. A.Chlorpropamide
2. B.Chloramphenicol
3. C.Phenytoin
4. D.Dicoumarol

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Q 16 :

Which two drug properties are commonly altered by pharmaceutical complexation?

1. A.Stability and solubility
2. B.Atomic number and density
3. C.Molecular formula and atomic mass
4. D.Radioactivity and isotopic abundance

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Q 17 :

If drug distribution into tissues occurs more slowly than elimination from plasma, what is most likely to occur initially?

1. A.Failure to rapidly attain distribution equilibrium
2. B.Immediate pharmacodynamic tolerance
3. C.Complete inhibition of metabolism
4. D.Irreversible plasma-protein binding

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Q 18 :

In pharmaceutical aerosol terminology, PSIG stands for?

1. A.Pounds per square inch gauge
2. B.Pressure standard in glass
3. C.Pounds per square inch gravity
4. D.Propellant strength in grams

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Q 19 :

In the older terminology of radiation protection, the abbreviation rem stands for?

1. A.Roentgen equivalent man
2. B.Radiation emission meter
3. C.Relative electron mass
4. D.Roentgen exposure measurement

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Q 20 :

Azathioprine is primarily classified as a?

1. A.Immunosuppressant
2. B.Cardiotonic
3. C.Antacid
4. D.Local anesthetic

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Q 21 :

Creaming is a ________ process.

1. A.Reversible​
2. B.Irreversible
3. C.Downward
4. D.Both (a) and (c)

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Q 22 :

o/w emulsions normally cream in _______ direction.

1. A.Downward
2. B.Upward
3. C.First up and then down
4. D.First down then up

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Q 23 :

 ______ is an example of non-ionic polymer.

1. A.Cellulose
2. B.Pectin
3. C.Glucose
4. D.Methyl cellulose

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Q 24 :

Electrolytes are added in suspensions to _____ the zeta potential.

1. A.Neutralize
2. B.Decrease
3. C.Increase
4. D.Stabilize

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Q 25 :

The sedimentation volume of an ideal suspension should be _____
 

1. A.One
2. B.Greater than one
3. C.Zero
4. D.Less than one

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Q 26 :

Which combination correctly describes a flocculated pharmaceutical suspension?

1. A.Particles form loose aggregates and the supernatant becomes clear
2. B.Particles form a compact hard cake and the supernatant remains turbid
3. C.Sedimentation is negligible and particles remain completely dispersed
4. D.Redispersion becomes progressively impossible

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Q 27 :

Which law is commonly used to describe the sedimentation velocity of spherical particles in a dilute pharmaceutical suspension?

1. A.Stokes' law
2. B.Henry's law
3. C.Raoult's law
4. D.Beer-Lambert law

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Q 28 :

According to the phase-volume concept, approximately what maximum volume fraction of monodisperse spherical droplets corresponds to close packing before severe instability becomes likely?

1. A.0.26
2. B.0.50
3. C.0.74
4. D.0.90

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Q 29 :

Which among the following is the chief ingredient of anti-diarrhoeal mixture?

1. A.Charcoal
2. B.Kaolin
3. C.Calamine
4. D.Aluminum Hydroxide

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Q 30 :

Which rheological test applies a constant stress and measures time-dependent deformation of a semisolid material?

1. A.Creep test
2. B.Pycnometry
3. C.Nephelometry
4. D.Refractometry

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Q 31 :

Compared with its continuous aqueous phase, the apparent viscosity of an oil-in-water emulsion is generally?

1. A.Higher
2. B.Always lower
3. C.Exactly identical
4. D.Always zero

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Q 32 :

According to Stoke's equation, the creaming of emulsion will take place in _____ direction, if the density of the dispersed phase is more than that of the dispersion medium.

 
 

1. A.Downward
2. B.Upward
3. C.Centre
4. D.Both (a) and (b)

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Q 33 :

____ of an emulsion occurs when the distributions  is of globules is not uniform.

1. A.Caking
2. B.Breaking
3. C.Creaming
4. D.Coalescence

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Q 34 :

The commercial method for the preparation of emulsions is ______
 

1. A.Homogenization
2. B.Lyophilization
3. C.Centrifugation
4. D.Both (a) and (c)

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Q 35 :

According to Stokes' law, which change most directly reduces the rate of creaming in an emulsion?

1. A.Decreasing globule size
2. B.Increasing globule size
3. C.Decreasing continuous-phase viscosity
4. D.Increasing the density difference between phases

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Q 36 :

The ratio of oil : water : gum, used for the preparation of a primary emulsion containing a fixed oil is ____

1. A.4 : 4 : 2
2. B.4 : 2 : 1
3. C.1 : 2 : 4
4. D.2 : 4 : 4

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Q 37 :

The percentage of sucrose in simple syrup I.P is ___
 
 

1. A.66.7% w/w
2. B.85% w/w
3. C.56% w/w
4. D.33% w/w

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Q 38 :

Commonly used solvent in throat paint is ____

1. A.Castor Oil
2. B.Sucrose Syrup
3. C.Glycerin
4. D.Alcohol

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Q 39 :

Lugol's solution is an aqueous solution containing iodine together with which substance to enhance iodine solubility?

1. A.Potassium iodide
2. B.Sodium bicarbonate
3. C.Calcium chloride
4. D.Magnesium sulfate

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Q 40 :

Which of the following processes is used for the extraction of volatile oils from plants?

1. A.Simple Distillation
2. B.Steam Distillation
3. C.Extraction
4. D.Soxhlation

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Q 41 :

In atherosclerosis, the serum level of____decreases.

1. A.Triglycerides
2. B.VLDL
3. C.HDL
4. D.LDL

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Q 42 :

Which drug can significantly increase plasma digoxin concentrations and thereby increase the risk of digitalis toxicity?

1. A.Quinidine
2. B.Potassium chloride
3. C.Lidocaine
4. D.Magnesium sulfate

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Q 43 :

When quinidine is initiated in a patient receiving digoxin, which measure is particularly important?

1. A.Monitor digoxin concentration and adjust its dose when necessary
2. B.Routinely double the digoxin dose
3. C.Discontinue all potassium intake
4. D.Administer digoxin only intramuscularly

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Q 44 :

Name a substitute of enalapril.

1. A.Losartan
2. B.Rosiglitazone
3. C.Omeprazole
4. D.Famotidine

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Q 45 :

Antihypertensive drugs                                 Mode of action
1. Methyldopa                                               (A) Ganglion blocker
2. Hydralazine                                              (B) Depletion of catecholamines
3. Reserpine                                                 (C) Direct action on arterioles
4. Mecamylamine                                         (D) False neurotransmitter

1. A.1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
2. B.1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
3. C.1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
4. D.1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

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Q 46 :

Match the cardiovascular drug with its principal pharmacological action:
1. Papaverine – Vasodilator
2. Verapamil – Calcium-channel blocker
3. Hydralazine – Direct arteriolar vasodilator
4. Dobutamine – β₁-adrenergic agonist
Which matching sequence is correct?

1. A.1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched
2. B.Only 1 and 2 are correctly matched
3. C.Only 2 and 3 are correctly matched
4. D.Only 3 and 4 are correctly matched

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Q 47 :

Which of the following are the potential targets for designing antihypertensive drugs?
(A) H₂-receptors
(B) Proton pump
(C)  - adrenergic receptors
(D) Calcium channel proteins

1. A.A and B
2. B.C and D
3. C.B and D
4. D.A and D

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Q 48 :

Hypotensive agents                                Mode of action
1. Clonidine                                      (A) Direct action on blood vessels
2. Captopril                                        (B) - adrenoceptor antagonist
3. Prazosin                                        (C) Decreases sympathetic activity through brain
4. Minoxidil                                        (D) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor

1. A.1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
2. B.1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
3. C.1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
4. D.1-C 2-D, 3-B, 4-A

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Q 49 :

Which statement about digoxin is correct?

1. A.Its elimination half-life in adults with normal renal function is approximately 36–48 hours
2. B.It is metabolized almost completely by the liver
3. C.It primarily accelerates AV nodal conduction
4. D.Its principal elimination pathway is pulmonary excretion

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Q 50 :

Digitalis glycosides are used in congestive heart failure as they increase the____.

1. A.Force of myocardial contraction
2. B.Cardiac filling pressure
3. C.Heart rate
4. D.Venous pressure

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