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Latest WBPDCL Sub Assistant Engineer Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General Aptitude, Professional Knowledge (Civil), Language Proficiency (Bengali)

Question Bank WBPDCL Sub Assistant Engineer (Civil) Exam - English
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General Aptitude

Question 1Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
  1. AMinistry of Finance        
  2. BMinistry of Information and Broadcastin
  3. CMinistry of Rural Development
  4. DPlanning Commission
Question 2Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
  1. Aa
  2. Ban
  3. Csome
  4. Dthe
Question 3Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
  1. ASteal the car
  2. BYou should have the stolen car
  3. CGet someone to steal the car
  4. DThey have stolen the car
Question 4Single Answer
Passage :
Direction :  Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
  1. A presented , stay
  2. Bintroduced , keep
  3. Cannounce , make
  4. Dcreated , let
  5. Eproclaimed , hold
Question 5Single Answer
Passage : Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
  1. Aliabilities
  2. Bresponsibilities
  3. Cestates
  4. Dprofits
Question 6Single Answer
Passage : Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
  1. A Affirmation
  2. BSlander
  3. COath
  4. DTestimony
Question 7Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
  1. ATwo
  2. BThree
  3. CFive
  4. DFour
  5. ENone of these
Question 8Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
  1. ATrue
  2. BFalse
  3. CUncertain
  4. DNone
Question 9Single Answer
Passage : A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
  1. AX
  2. BW
  3. CI
  4. DH
Question 10Single Answer
Passage : Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
  1. ASUM
  2. BBIG
  3. CBoth BIG and THE
  4. DFOR
  5. EBoth FOR and BIG
Question 11Single Answer
Passage : Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
  1. AAND
  2. BFOR
  3. CTHE
  4. DBIG
  5. ESUM
Question 12Single Answer
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A51:52
  2. B52:53
  3. C51:53
  4. D52:55
Question 13Single Answer
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A√49
  2. B0.125
  3. C√2
  4. D22/7
Question 14Single Answer
Passage : Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer  :
How many employees of bank ‘X’ opted for VRS ?
(I) 18% of the 950 officer cadre employees and 6% of the 1100 of all other cadre employees opted for VRS.
(II) 28% of the employees in the age group of 51 to 56 and 17% of the employees in all other age groups opted for VRS.
  1. AStatement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. BStatement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. DEACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 15Single Answer
Passage : Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer  :
The area of a playground is 1600 square meters. What is its perimeter ?
(I) It is a perfect square playground
(II) It costs Rs.3200 to put a fence around the playground at the rate of Rs.20 per meter.
  1. AStatement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. BStatement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. DEACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 16Single Answer
Passage : Direction : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered (I) and (II) given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer  :
What is the value of m – n ÷ 37 ?
(I) m is the largest possible six-digit number and n is the smallest possible six-digit number.
(II) The difference between m and n is known.
  1. AStatement (I) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (II) alone is not sufficient
  2. BStatement (II) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (I) alone is not sufficient
  3. CBOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement alone is sufficient
  4. DEACH statement ALONE is sufficient
Question 17Single Answer
Which is the national game of Bhutan ?
  1. Abadminton
  2. Bbasketball
  3. Cfootball
  4. Darchery
Question 18Single Answer
When was the Constituent Assembly of India formed?
  1. A1946
  2. B1947
  3. C1948
  4. D1950
Question 19Single Answer
Who among the following was associated with Enlightenment philosophy?
  1. AVoltaire
  2. BShakespeare
  3. CErasmus
  4. DAll of the above
Question 20Single Answer
Which state is hosting the National SARAS Mela 2025?
  1. AKarnataka
  2. BMaharashtra
  3. CKerala
  4. DGujarat

Professional Knowledge (Civil)

Question 21Single Answer
A water supply distribution system for an averagely-populated township is to be designed for
  1. AMaximum daily demand 
  2. BMaximum hourly demand and fire demand 
  3. CAverage demand 
  4. DMaximum daily demand and fire demand or maximum hourly demand, whichever is higher
Question 22Single Answer
 A combined sewerage system is more appropriate for developed areas where
  1. ARainfall occurs for a very few days in a year 
  2. BRainfall occurs almost uniformly throughout the year 
  3. CAir temperatures are nearly uniform throughout the year 
  4. DAir temperatures through the year include extremes during certain runs of days 
Question 23Single Answer
100 m3 of sludge holds a moisture content of 95%. If its moisture content chagnes to 90%, the volume of this sludge will then be
  1. A40.5m3
  2. B50m3
  3. C75m3
  4. D94.7m3
Question 24Single Answer
The design overflow rate of a sedimentation tank is chosen considering
  1. AFlow rate through the tank 
  2. BDiameter of the particle intended to be removed 
  3. CVolume of the sedimentation tank 
  4. DDetention time in the tank
Question 25Single Answer
Consider the following statements in respect of flow equalization in a waste water treatment plant : 
1. Biological treatment is enhanced because shock loadings are eliminated or minimized
2. Flow equalizations is an attractive option for upgrading the performance of overloaded treatment plants.
3. Inhibiting substances can be diluted and pH can be stabilized
4. Thickening performance of primary sedimentation tanks following grit removal is improved.
 Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A1, 2, 3 and 4 
  2. B1, 2 and 3 only 
  3. C1, 2 and 4 only 
  4. D3 and 4 only   
Question 26Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. There will be no defects in select grade timbers.
2. The codal values for strength of grade-II timer without defects may be reduced by 37.5%.
3. For timber used as columns, the permissible stress in ungraded timbers is adopted with a multiplying factor of 0.50.
4. In case of wind force and earthquakes, a modification factor of 1.33 is adopted. Which of the above statements are correct ? 
  1. A1 and 3 only
  2. B1 and 4 only
  3. C2 and 4 only
  4. D2 and 3 only
Question 27Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding timber :
1. The strength of timber increases by Kiln seasoning.
 2. Cutting of wood is to be done prior to treatment.
3. Water seasoning is good for prevention of warping.
4. ASCU treatment enhances the strength of wood. Which of the above statements are correct ?
  1. A1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B2, 3 and 4 only
  3. C1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 28Single Answer
Gase(s) emitted during rotting or decomposition of timber is /are mainly
  1. AMethane and Hydrogen
  2. BHydrogen Sulphide
  3. CCarbonic acid and Hydrogen
  4. DAmmonia
Question 29Single Answer
Efflorescence of bricks is due to
  1. AExcessive burning of bricks
  2. BHigh silt content in brick clay
  3. CHigh porosity of bricks
  4. DSoluble salts present in parent clay
Question 30Single Answer
Disintegration of bricks masonry walls is primarily due to
1. Efflorescence
2. Magnesium sulphate in brick  
3. Calcined clay admixtures
4. Kankar nodules
Which of the a above statements are correct ? 
  1. A1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C3 and 4 only
  4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 31Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. IS 3583 refers to Burnt Clay Paving Bricks.
2. IS 5779 refers to Burnt Clay Soling Bricks.
3. IS 3952 refers to Burnt Clay Hollow Bricks.
4. IS 2222 refers to Burnt Clay Lay Bricks.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C3 and 4 only
  4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 32Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. A high aggregate impact value indicates strong aggregates.
2. A low aggregate crushing value indicates high crushing strength of aggregates.
3. Aggregates having elongation index values greater than 15% are generally considered suitable for pavement construction.
4. Flakiness index of aggregates should not be less than 25% for use in road construction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A2 and 3 only
  2. B2 and 4 only
  3. C1 and 3 only
  4. D1 and 4 only
Question 33Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding refractory bricks in furnaces:
1. The furnace is fired at temperatures more than 1700°C.
2. Silica content in the soil should be less than 40%.
3. Water absorption of bricks should not exceed 10%
4. Chrome bricks are known as basic bricks. Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A1 and 2 only
  2. B2 and 4 only
  3. C1 and 3 only
  4. D3 and 4 only
Question 34Single Answer
Consider the following statements about lime:
1. Calcination of limestone results in quick lime.
2. Lime produced from pure variety of chalk is hydraulic lime.
3. Hydrated lime is obtained by treating quick lime with water.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A1, 2 and 3
  2. B1 and 2 only
  3. C2 and 3 only
  4. D1 and 3 only
Question 35Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
1. If more water is added to concrete for increasing its workability, it results into concrete of low strength.
2. No slump is an indication of a good workable concrete.
3. Higher the slump of concrete, lower will be its workability.
4. Workability of concrete is affected by water content as well as water-cement ratio.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A1 and 3 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 4 only
  4. D2 and 4 only
Question 36Single Answer
Pozzolana used as an admixture in concrete has the following advantages:
1. It improves workability with lesser amount of water.
2. It increases the heat of hydration and so lets the concrete set quickly.
3. It increases the resistance of concrete to attack by salts and sulphates.
4. It leaches out calcium hydroxide.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
  1. A1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B1, 2 and 4 only
  3. C1, 3 and 4 only
  4. D2, 3 and 4 only
Question 37Single Answer
Consider the following statements regarding Cyclopean Concrete:
1. Size of aggregate is more than 150 mm.
2. Size of aggregate is less than 150 mm.
3. High slump.
4. High temperature rise due to heat of hydration.
Which of the above statements are correct?
  1. A1 and 3 only
  2. B1 and 4 only
  3. C2 and 3 only
  4. D2 and 4 only
Question 38Single Answer
A chain, working a crane, has sectional area of 625 mm2 and transmits a load of 10 kN. When the load is being lowered at a uniform rate of 40 m/min, the chain gets jammed suddenly at which time the length of the chain unwound is 10m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, the stress induced in the chain due to this sudden jamming is
  1. A100.6 N/mm2
  2. B120.4 N/mm2
  3. C140.2 N/mm2
  4. D160.0 N/mm2
Question 39Single Answer
In mild steel specimens subjected to tensile test cycle, the elastic limit in tension is raised and the elastic limit in compression is lowered, This is called
  1. AAnnealing effect
  2. BBauschinger effect
  3. CStrain rate effect
  4. DFatigue effect
Question 40Single Answer
Consider the following statements :
1. The shear stress distribution across the section of a circular shaft subjected to twisting varies parabolically.
2. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under twisting moment is zero
3. The shear stress at the extreme fibres of a circular shaft under twisting moment is maximum.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
  1. A1, 2 and 3
  2. B1 only
  3. C2 only
  4. D3 only
Question 41Single Answer
One bag of Portland cement, 50 kg in weight, would normally have a bulk volume of
  1. A30 l 
  2. B35 l
  3. C40 l
  4. D45 l
Question 42Single Answer
AsCu, a preservative for wood, developed by the Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, comprises of chemicals:
  1. A1 : 1 : 1
  2. B1 : 2 : 3
  3. C1 : 2 : 4
  4. D1 : 3 : 4
Question 43Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to autoclave bricks:
1.Less water absorption compared to other bricks.
2.Noise reduction
3.It is cheap compared to other types of bricks.
4.Requirement of bulk volume of mortar in joints being relatively less compared to other types of brick masonry.
5.Not recommended for outer walls. 
Which of the above statements are relevant to the use of ‘autoclave’ bricks? 
  1. A1, 2 and 4
  2. B1, 3 and 5
  3. C2, 3 and 4
  4. D2, 4 and 5
Question 44Single Answer
The minimum number of annular rings to be seen in every 2.54 cm in the radial direction from the core for timber to be classified as ‘Dense’ is
  1. A10
  2. B20
  3. C25
  4. D30
Question 45Single Answer
If the actual thickness of a brick masonry wall is 19 cm, its effective length is 2.70 m, its effective height is 2.82 m and its code specified stiffening coefficient is 1.2 then, for design considerations, the slenderness ratio of the wall will be taken as
  1. A11.8
  2. B12.4
  3. C14.2 
  4. D14.8
Question 46Single Answer
Consider the following forms of water in a hydrated cement paste:
1.Capillary water
2.Chemically combined water
3.Interlayer water
4.Adsorbed water 
Which of the above forms of water will, on its/their removal, cause shrinkage of the paste? 
  1. A1, 2 and 3
  2. B1, 2 and 4
  3. C2, 3 and 4
  4. D1, 3 and 4
Question 47Single Answer
Consider the following statements:High early strength of cement is obtained as a result of
1.Fine grinding.
2.Decreasing the lime content
3.Burning at higher temperature
4.Increasing the quality of gypsum. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A1 and 2
  2. B1 and 3
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D3 and 4
Question 48Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ‘composite mortar’:
1.Addition of lime to cement mortar improves its workability
2.Composite mortar is obtained by adding 10% by weight of cement and mixing with water.
3.Composite mortar is not preferred in tall buildings.
4.Mechanical grinding is essential for developing composite mortar.Which of the above statements are true in this case? 
  1. A1, 2 and  3 only
  2. B1, 3 and  4 only
  3. C2, 3 and  4 only
  4. D1, 2, 3 and 4
Question 49Single Answer
Consider the following statements related to ‘non-destructive testing’ of concrete:
1.Indentation test is used to assess the quality of concrete.
2.Resonant Frequency Method is based on a laboratory test.
3.Compressive strength of concrete is estimated through Pulse Velocity Measurement.
4.Dynamic modulus of Elasticity is determined by a Sonometer Test.
5.Thickness of concrete can be estimated by in-situ Rebound Hammer Test. 
Which of the above statements are correct? 
  1. A1, 2 and 3 only
  2. B1, 2 and 5 only
  3. C1, 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 
Question 50Single Answer
What is the amount of water required for a workable RC of mix 1 : 2: 4 by weight., when W/C is 0-60 and unit weight of concrete is 2400 kg/m3?
  1. A165 l
  2. B205 l
  3. C245 l
  4. D285 l 
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