Direction : Question below has two blanks, each blank indicting that some thing has been omitted. Choose the word for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The Finance Department has ……………a centralized online databank system for all statutory government bodies to …………an eye on their assets and liabilities.
A
presented , stay
B
introduced , keep
C
announce , make
D
created , let
E
proclaimed , hold
Question 2Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The five items in this section consists of a word or group of words followed by four words as (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the word which is nearly opposite to the meaning of the original word or group of words and mark your response as (a), (b), (c) and (d), as the case may be, in your Answer Sheet.
Assets
A
liabilities
B
responsibilities
C
estates
D
profits
Question 3Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Affidavit
A
Affirmation
B
Slander
C
Oath
D
Testimony
Question 4Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Hollow
A
Alveolate
B
Cleft
C
Cavernous
D
Solid
Question 5Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Cosset
A
Ignoreb
B
Close
C
Caress
D
Fondle
Question 6Single Answer
Passage :
Directions: In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Ogle
A
Leer
B
Gaze
C
Ignore
D
Gawk
Question 7Single Answer
Passage :
Directions:In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Intrinsic
A
Elemental
B
Innate
C
Connate
D
Acquired
Question 8Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : In the following question, out of the four alternatives, choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word and click the button corresponding to it
Coalesce
A
Separate
B
Adhere
C
Cleave
D
Amalgamate
Question 9Single Answer
I go to Madurai by —– Vaigai Express
A
a
B
an
C
some
D
the
Question 10Single Answer
Have the car stolen!
A
Steal the car
B
You should have the stolen car
C
Get someone to steal the car
D
They have stolen the car
Question 11Single Answer
The payment was collected by the hardworking salesman.
A
The hardworking salesman collected the payment.
B
the salesman who worked heard was able to collect the payment.
C
to collect the payment the salesman had to work hard.
D
The hardworking salesman was able to collect the payment.
Question 12Single Answer
I had to stop all my work to complete this project.
A
All other work had to be stopped to complete this project by me
B
For completing this project all other work must be stopped
C
For completing this project I had to stop all my work
D
To complete this project all other work had been stopped by me
Question 13Single Answer
They have published the names of all the successful candidates.
A
The candidates who have succeeded their names they had published.
B
The names of all the successful candidates have been published by them
C
The candidates who have succeeded their names have been published by them.
D
The names of all the successful candidate were published by them.
Question 14Single Answer
The online shopping site lowered the prices.
A
Lowering of the prices was done by the online shopping site
B
The prices were lowered by the online shopping site
C
The prices had been lowered by the online shopping site
D
The prices have been lowered by the online shopping site
Question 15Single Answer
Who taught you to drive a truck ?
A
To drive a truck by whom were you taught?
B
Driving a truck by who were you taught?
C
Driving a truck by who were you being taught?
D
By whom were you taught to drive a truck?
Question 16Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
He was in the temper
B
and refused
C
discuss the matter again
D
No error
Question 17Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
A flower makes no garland
B
so we must do a thing together
C
in a unit for a good result
D
No error
Question 18Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
My friend is a software engineer
B
and his wife is doctor
C
so they don’t have enough time for each other
D
No error
Question 19Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
I don’t have much time that
B
I hear you in detail with verbosity
C
tell everything in nutshell
D
No error
Question 20Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The atmosphere is changing
B
so I have severe pain in my body
C
if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
D
No error
Question 21Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
No one is without fault
B
because no one is God
C
and only God is fault free
D
No error
Question 22Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
Your
B
clock is
C
one hour fast
D
No error
Question 23Single Answer
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
A
The lose of jobs
B
is regarded by some as an necessary evil
C
in the fight against infliation
D
No error
Question 24Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To sleep with the fishes
A
Always be in a dream world
B
To make absurd excuses
C
To sleep peacefully
D
To be dead
Question 25Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
To free someone or something form a constraint or difficulty.
A
To exterminate
B
To expurgate
C
To intricate
D
To extricate
Question 26Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Liquids forming a homogeneous mixture when added together
A
Irascible
B
Crucible
C
Miscible
D
Risible
Question 27Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Shooting fish in a barrel
A
To do random acts of stupidity
B
To behave in a cruel manner
C
Ridiculously easy
D
To escape through a narrow opening
Question 28Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
What does the phrase ‘knew no bounds’ mean ?
A
was bounded by
B
was limitless
C
was limited
D
was bound to
Question 29Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
“There are more cyclists than pedestrians on the streets of Amsterdam”.
Choose the sentence which means the same as the above statement.
A
Pedestrians outnumber cyclists on the streets of Amsterdam
B
Cyclists are not as many is number as pedestrians
C
Walking is not as common as cycling is on the streets of Amsterdam
D
Cycling is not as common as walking is on the streets of Amsterdam
Question 30Single Answer
Passage :
In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
Use the appropriate idiom to complete the expression. You may go home early if you are
A
Feeling a bit under the weather
B
Hitting the nail on the head
C
Sitting on the fence
D
Adding insult to the injury
General Knowledge
Question 31Single Answer
Yojna a weekly journal
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 32Single Answer
Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 33Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 34Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 35Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 36Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 37Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 38Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 39Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 40Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 41Single Answer
Which of the following estimates the National Income in India
A
National Income Committee
B
Planning Commission
C
Reserve Bank Of India
D
Central Statistical Organisation
Question 42Single Answer
India changed over to the decimal system, coinage in
A
April 1951
B
April 1955
C
April 1957
D
April 1978
Question 43Single Answer
11th Five Year Plan aim at achieving 10% rural tele density in India from the present 1.9% by the year
A
2008
B
2009
C
2010
D
2012
Question 44Single Answer
Which one of the following statements Monitorable Socio Economic Target of the 11th Five Year Plan under the head Environment is not correct
A
treat urban waste water by 2011-12
B
Increase energy efficiency by 20% points by 2016-17
C
attain WHO standards of air quality in all major cities by 2011-12
D
increase forest and tree cover by 15% points
Question 45Single Answer
Who is the ex-officio chairman of Planning commission and National Development Council
A
President
B
Prime Minister
C
Finance Minister
D
Commerce Minister
Question 46Single Answer
Persons below the poverty line in Indian are classified as such based on wheather
A
they belong to agriculture labourer household and the scheduled caste/trive social group
B
they get work for a prescribed minimum number of days in a year
C
they are entitled to a minimum prescribed food basket
D
their daily waged fall below the prescribed minimum wages
Question 47Single Answer
Which of the following Committee’s recommendations are being followed for estimating proverty line in India
A
Dutt committee
B
Lakdawala committee
C
Cheliah Committee
D
Chakravorty Committee
Question 48Single Answer
In which year India adopeted liberal and free market principles
A
1975
B
1981
C
1991
D
2000
Question 49Single Answer
Consider the following statements
1. There is persistent investment over time only in select locals
2. some areas are agro climatically less conductive to development
3. some areas continue to face little or no agrarian transformation and the consequent lack of social and
4. some areas have faced continous political instability
Which of the above statements are correct
A
1,2 and 3
B
1,2 and 4
C
1,3 and 4
D
2,3 and 4
Question 50Single Answer
When was first human development report of India issued
A
April 2001
B
March 2000
C
June 2002
D
April 2002
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Current Affairs
Question 51Single Answer
When will the India vs Pakistan men’s hockey match be played in the FIH Hockey World Cup 2026?
A
15 August
B
17 August
C
19 August
D
21 August
Question 52Single Answer
‘Samudra Manthan’ scheme, approved by the Cabinet, aims to boost:
A
Offshore oil and gas exploration
B
Deep-sea fishing
C
Shipbuilding
D
Marine tourism
Question 53Single Answer
The Cabinet approved the expanded Khelo India Scheme and enhanced ANSFs with a combined outlay of approximately:
A
₹36,441 crore
B
₹25,000 crore
C
₹50,000 crore
D
₹84,000 crore
Question 54Single Answer
OPEC+ approved an oil production hike of approximately how many barrels per day from September 2026?
A
100,000
B
150,000
C
188,000
D
250,000
Question 55Single Answer
At least seven people (including three children) were killed in a Ukrainian drone strike on a beach in which Russian location?
A
Sochi
B
Sevastopol
C
Gelendzhik
D
Rostov
Question 56Single Answer
Death toll from rain-related incidents in Kerala reached how many as of early August 2026?
A
15
B
10
C
22
D
30
Question 57Single Answer
Tamil Nadu moved the Supreme Court against Karnataka regarding the release of how many cusecs of Cauvery water for 15 days?
A
2,000
B
3,000
C
3,500
D
4,000
Question 58Single Answer
Pingali Venkayya’s 150th birth anniversary was recently commemorated. He is best known for designing:
A
National Emblem
B
Constitution preamble
C
National Anthem
D
National Flag of India
Question 59Single Answer
Two oil tankers from Saudi Arabia exited the Red Sea through which strait, according to shipping data?
A
Strait of Hormuz
B
Strait of Malacca
C
Suez Canal
D
Bab-el-Mandeb
Question 60Single Answer
The Union Government introduced optional confidential drug testing for students in which institutions?
A
IITs and IIMs
B
All government colleges
C
Central universities only
D
Medical colleges
Question 61Single Answer
Who recently won the Bankipur Assembly by-election in Bihar, widening the lead significantly over the BJP candidate?
A
Prashant Kishor
B
Neeraj Kumar Sinha
C
Tejashwi Yadav
D
Nitish Kumar
Question 62Single Answer
According to a NITI Aayog report, approximately how many government schools were closed over the past decade?
A
94,000
B
75,000
C
50,000
D
1.2 lakh
Question 63Single Answer
Kerala reported a high burden of which zoonotic disease in 2026, linked to contaminated water and animal urine?
A
Dengue
B
Scrub Typhus
C
Japanese Encephalitis
D
Leptospirosis
Question 64Single Answer
India finished with how many medals at the 2026 Commonwealth Games in Glasgow?
A
29
B
39
C
35
D
45
Question 65Single Answer
Indian table tennis players Ankur Bhattacharjee and Yashaswini Ghorpade won singles titles at which championship?
A
Asian Table Tennis Championships
B
22nd Commonwealth Table Tennis Championships
C
World Table Tennis Championships
D
South Asian Games
Question 66Single Answer
President Droupadi Murmu approved which state’s Freedom of Religion Act, 2026 (anti-conversion law)?
A
Maharashtra
B
Gujarat
C
Uttar Pradesh
D
Madhya Pradesh
Question 67Single Answer
The Lok Sabha passed a bill to increase the sanctioned strength of Supreme Court judges from 34 to how many?
A
38
B
36
C
40
D
42
Question 68Single Answer
Which Indian pass saw the resumption of India-China cross-border trade after six years?
A
Nathu La
B
Jelep La
C
Lipulekh
D
Shipki La
Question 69Single Answer
The Centre has directed states to set up special courts to clear approximately how many pending NDPS (narcotics) cases?
A
1.5 lakh
B
2.9 lakh
C
3.9 lakh
D
5.2 lakh
Question 70Single Answer
What campaign did Prime Minister Narendra Modi launch to curb drug abuse among youth?
A
Nasha Mukt Yuva
B
Nasha Mukt Bharat
C
Yuva Shakti Abhiyan
D
Drug-Free India Mission
Reasoning
Question 71Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 72Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 73Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 74Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 75Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 76Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 77Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 78Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 79Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 80Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 81Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 82Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 83Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 84Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 85Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonant is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will no vowels appear?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 86Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the third alphabet in each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 87Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the position of the first and the second alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
Both CAT and OWN
B
Both BRU and INK
C
Only CAT
D
Only INK
E
Only LEG
Question 88Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be exactly in the middle of the five words?
A
OWN
B
LEG
C
BRU
D
CAT
E
INK
Question 89Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: Following question is based on five words given below: BRU LEGINKCATOWN
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)
If in each of the given words, each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is changed to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will the same alphabet appear twice?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 90Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: following question is based on five words given below:
LAP BUT CAR SON HID
(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words.)
If the positions of the first and the third alphabets of each of the words are interchanged, which of the following would form meaningful words with the new arrangement?
A
HID
B
SON
C
Both LAP and BUT
D
CAR
E
Both CAR and LAP
LAW
Question 91Single Answer
A. Government of India Act 1858 control 1. Absolute imperial
B.Indian Councils Act 1861 2.Non official members in executive council
C. Indian Council 3.Separate representation of Muslim community Act1909
D. Government of 4.Dyarchy in the India Act 1919 provinces
A
A B C D
2 3 1 4
B
4 1 2 3
C
3 4 1 2
D
1 2 3 4
Question 92Single Answer
Which of the following is/are the principal features of the government of India Act 1919?
1. Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of central and provincial legislatures.
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1, 2 and 4
C
2, 3 and 4
D
1, 3 and 4
Question 93Single Answer
Consider the following statements:
The Indian constitution is
1. Unwritten constitution
2. Written constitution
3. Largely based on government of India
Act, 1935
A
1 and 2 are correct
B
2 and 3 are correct
C
1 and 3 are correct
D
None of the above
Question 94Single Answer
Consider the following statements with reference to the term secularism:
1. Secularism means that the state has no recognized religion of state.
2. Secularism means that the state treats all the religions equally.
3. Secularism means that the state regulates the relation of man with God.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 3
Question 95Single Answer
Which one is not correctly matched?
A
Freedom of speech - include freedom of and expression press
B
Freedom of - include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs.
C
conscience
Right to personal - include right to carry on any trade or business liberty
D
(d) Right to equality - includes principles of natural justice
Question 96Single Answer
The Governor of a State is appointed by the President on the advice of the
A
Prime Minister
B
Vice- President
C
Chief Minister
D
Chief Justice
Question 97Single Answer
An accused person has been provided with the following protections by constitution of India:
1. Ex post facto law
2. Safeguard against arrest and detention
3. Double jeopardy.
Arrange the protections in the order in which they appear in the Indian constitution.
A
Codes:
1, 3, 2
B
1, 2, 3
C
3, 1, 2
D
2, 1,3
Question 98Single Answer
Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was added by the
A
75th Amendment to the Constitution of India
B
76th Amendment to the Constitution of India
C
77th Amendment to the Constitution of India
D
78th Amendment to the Constitution of India
Question 99Single Answer
Match the following:
A. Right to go 1. Bhim Singh's case.
abroad
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's 4. Sunil Batra's case.
liability
A
Codes:
A B C D
2 4 1 3
B
4 2 3 1
C
2 4 3 1
D
4 2 1 3
Question 100Single Answer
A resolution passed under Clause (1) of Article 249 shall remain in force for such period not exceeding
A
Three months
B
Six months
C
Nine months
D
Twelve months
Question 101Single Answer
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A
Habeas corpus - available against private individual as well.
B
Quo warranto - available against subordinate courts only
C
Certiorari - available against autonomous bodies only
D
Prohibition - directs a public authority to perform a task.
Question 102Single Answer
Match the following:
A. Right to go abroad 1. Bhim Singh's case.
B. Prisoner's right 2. Maneka Gandhi's case
C. Death penalty 3. Bacchan Singh's case
D. Government's liability 4. Sunil Batra's case.
A
A B C D
2 4 1 3
B
4 2 3 1
C
2 4 3 1
D
4 2 1 3
Question 103Single Answer
Match the following:
A
Right to live with human dignity enshrined in Art. 21 derives life breath
from DPSP Clauses e and f of Art. 39, 41 and 42.
B
Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of just, fair and reasonable procedure guaranteed by Art. 21.
C
In PIL, a total stranger to a trial cannot be permitted to question the correctness of the conviction of the accused.
D
In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an
Question 104Single Answer
List-I List-II
Balaji vs. Stateof Mysore 1. Doctrine of waiver
of fundamental rights
Maneka Gandhi 2. Religious freedom
vs. UOI
Rev. Stanilaus 3. Right to life and personal liberty
vs. State of MP
Bashesher Nath 4. Reservation for backward classes
vs. IT, Commr. 5. Doctrine of severeability
A
A B C D
4 2 3 1
B
5 4 3 2
C
4 3 2 1
D
5 3 2 1
Question 105Single Answer
List-I List-II
Independence of judiciary 1. Administrative adjudication
Executive legislation 2. Parliamentary form of government
Quasi-judicial functions 3. Appointment and transfer of judges
Collective responsibility 4. Ordinance
A
A B C D
2 1 4 3
B
3 4 1 2
C
2 4 1 3
D
3 I 4 2
Question 106Single Answer
The 73rd Amendment provides a ____ tier system of panchayats:
A
3
B
4
C
2
D
1
Question 107Single Answer
List-I List-II
A Habeas corpus 1. Violation of natural justice
B. Mandamus 2. Unlawful arrest and detention
C. Quo-warranto 3. Exercise of power without jurisdiction
D. Certiorari 4. Non performance of public duty.
A
A B C D
2 4 3 1
B
1 3 4 2
C
2 3 4 1
D
1 4 3 2
Question 108Single Answer
The fundamental duties provided in the constitution are:
1. To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture.
2. To safeguard private property.
3. To develop scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform of these fundamental duties include:
A
1, 2 and 3
B
1 and 2
C
2 and 3
D
1 and 3
Question 109Single Answer
If a new state of Indian union is to be created____ schedule of the constitution must be amended?
A
First
B
Second
C
Third
D
Fourth
Question 110Single Answer
Which one of the following statements correctly describes the fourth schedule of the constitution of India?
A
It lists the distribution of powers between the union and the states.
B
It contains the languages listed in the constitution.
C
It contains the provision regarding the administration of tribal areas.
D
It allocates seats in the council of states.
Question 111Single Answer
The 8th schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the:
A
Fundamental rights
B
DPSP
C
List of languages recognised by the constitution
D
Number of states and UTS
Question 112Single Answer
Provisions regarding anti defection are provided in ____of the constitution of India.
A
2nd schedule
B
5th schedule
C
8th schedule
D
10th schedule
Question 113Single Answer
At the time of framing there were ____Schedules in the constitution of India.
A
8
B
10
C
12
D
11
Question 114Single Answer
The house may declare the seat vacant after_____ , of any member, if he is absent from all meetings without permission of the house.
A
30 days
B
45 days
C
60 days
D
90 days
Question 115Single Answer
When the offices of both the speaker and the deputy speaker are vacant, _____ appoints a person to perform the functions of the speaker.
A
The President
B
The prime minister
C
The chief justice of India
D
Council of ministers
Question 116Single Answer
The framers of the constitution borrowed the idea of judicial review from the constitution of:
A
France
B
USA
C
United Kingdom
D
None of these
Question 117Single Answer
Decision of _______is final regarding the disqualification of a member of either house of Parliament under Art. 103.
A
The election commission
B
President
C
Speaker of Lok Sabha
D
Prime minister
Question 118Single Answer
Part______ of the constitution of the India talks about municipalities?
A
Part IX
B
Part IX-A
C
Part X
D
Part X-A
Question 119Single Answer
It is often said that the key to the minds of the makers of our constitution lies in the:
A
Preamble
B
Fundamental rights
C
Fundamental duties
D
Directive principles of state policy
Question 120Single Answer
Disqualification of a member of parliament on the ground of defection is to be decided by
A
The President
B
Speaker of Lok Sabha
C
Speaker of Rajya Sabha
D
Either (b) or (c), as the case may be
Question 121Single Answer
Preamble to the constitution of India:
A
is not a Part of the constitution.
B
Indicates the objectives to be achieved.
C
Indicates the source from which the constitution derives its authority.
D
Is a source of authority of the constitution of India.
Question 122Single Answer
The preamble to the Indian constitution is:
A
A Part of constitution; but it neither confers any power no impose any duties, nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution.
B
A Part of the constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the constitution in cases of ambiguity.
C
A Part of the constitution and it confers powers and impose duties as any other provision of the constitution.
D
Not a Part of the constitution.
Question 123Single Answer
The source of Directive Principles of State Policy in our constitution can be traced back to the constitution of
A
USA
B
United Nations
C
United Kingdom
D
Ireland
Question 124Single Answer
The following are enshrined in the preamble to the constitution of India
(a) Equality of status and opportunity
(b) Liberty of thought , expression , belief ,faith and worship.
(c) Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual.
(d) Unity and integrity of the nation .
Which one of the following is the correct order in which they appear in the preamble ?
A
5,1,2,4,3
B
3,2,1,4,5
C
3,1,2,5,4
D
1,2,4,3,5
Question 125Single Answer
Which one of the following is in correct order in the preamble of the Indian constitution ?
A
Sovereign ,socialist ,secular, democratic and republic
B
Sovereign, secular, socialist, democratic and republic
C
Sovereign , secular, democratic, socialist and republic
D
Sovereign , democratic , secular, republic and socialist.
Question 126Single Answer
The text of the preamble of the constitution of India aims to secure ?
A
Fundamental rights to all individuals .
B
Fundamental duties of citizen of India
C
Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation .
D
Security of service to government servants .
Question 127Single Answer
Words secular and integrity were added by ______amendment of the constitution.
A
1st Amendment Act
B
24th Amendment Act
C
42nd Amendment Act
D
44th Amendment Act
Question 128Single Answer
Preamble of the constitution of India has been amended _____times so far?
A
Two
B
Three
C
One
D
Never
Question 129Single Answer
The word secular denotes:
A
Keeping away from all religions.
B
Freedom of religion and worship to all religions.
C
Belief in one god
D
Practicing different religions
Question 130Single Answer
The term socialist used in the preamble means a state whose basic policy is to:
A
Prohibit concentration of wealth
B
Distribute equitably the natural resources
C
Prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the living standard of people
D
That the state shall endeavour to achieve socialistic goals through democratic means.
Question 131Single Answer
In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended?
1. External Aggression
2. Internal Emergency
3. When Martial Law is in force
A
1 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 132Single Answer
Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in India.
1. Right to Education
2. Right to Information
3. Right to Vote
A
1 and 2
B
1 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 only
Question 133Single Answer
Article 21 declares that - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law." The protection under Article 21 is:
A
Against arbitrary legislative action.
B
Against arbitrary executive action.
C
Both (a) and (b)
D
Neither (a) nor (b)
Question 134Single Answer
Which of the following statement/statements, is/are correct:
1. Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in Article 19 (1) of the constitution
2. Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI Act.
3. Supreme Court of India has the advisory jurisdiction.
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 only
Question 135Single Answer
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements
w.r.t. Article 32.
1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR
3. High courts have the power to issue writs under Article 226 of the constitution.
A
I only
B
1 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
3 only
Question 136Single Answer
Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 - "No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law."?
1. Right to speedy trial.
2. Right against delayed execution.
3. Right against wrongful detention and arrest.
A
1 and 3
B
2 only
C
1 and 2
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 137Single Answer
Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
A
Prohibition, Certiorari and Mandamus.
B
Certiorari & Mandamus.
C
Prohibition & Mandamus.
D
Prohibition & Certiorari.
Question 138Single Answer
The directive principles were made non- justiciable and legally non-enforceable because:
1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them.
2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation.
A
I only
B
2 only
C
Both 1 and 2
D
Neither 1 nor 2
Question 139Single Answer
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy.
2. The directive principles are meant to establish Social Democracy.
3. The directive principles are meant to establish Economic Democracy.
A
I only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 140Single Answer
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles.
2. The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles.
3. Fundamental rights cannot be curtailed under any circumstances by the Parliament.
A
1 and 3
B
Only 2
C
1 and 2
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 141Single Answer
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill?
1. Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional amendment Bill in Parliament.
2. President must give his assent to the Bill if duly passed by both houses.
3. Constitution amendment Bill can be introduced in any house of the Parliament.
A
1 and 2
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 3
D
I only
Question 142Single Answer
The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by:
A
A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.
B
A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
C
A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures.
D
By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Question 143Single Answer
Which of the following is/are federal feature/s of our constitution?
1. Supremacy of the Constitution.
2. Rigid Constitution.
3. Independent Judiciary.
A
I only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 144Single Answer
Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations?
1. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the executive power rests with the states.
2. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the legislative power rests with the centre
3. Residuary powers are assigned to the parliament.
A
1 and 3
B
2 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 only
Question 145Single Answer
Which of the following statements are true about Centre-State relations?
1. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the Center can give direction to a state on any matter.
2. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre and the states.
3. Word 'cabinet' is mentioned only once in the constitution under Art. 352.
A
I only
B
2 and 3
C
1, 2 and 3
D
3 only
Question 146Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The chairman and members of state PSC are appointed by the Governor, but can be removed only by the President.
2. The State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President.
3. Finance commission is mentioned under Art. 280 of the constitution.
A
1 and 2
B
2 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
2 and 3
Question 147Single Answer
Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of Emergency?
A
Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by both houses of Parliament by a special
majority.
B
Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by a simple
majority.
C
Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by a simple majority.
D
None of these
Question 148Single Answer
Which of the following situation/s will be proper to impose President's rule in a state (Article 356)?
1. Where after general elections to the assembly, no Party secures a majority.
2. Serious maladministration in the state.
3. Stringent financial exigencies of the state.
A
I only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 149Single Answer
Which of the following situation/s are correct with regard to Proclamation of Financial Emergency (Article 360)?
1. It can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the parliament for every six months.
2. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency is to be passed by either house of Parliament by simple
majority.
3. The President may issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of Supreme Court and High Court Judges.
A
I only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1 and 3 only
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 150Single Answer
The Electoral College for President's election
consist of:
1. Elected members of both the houses of
Parliament.
2. Elected members of the legislative
assemblies.
3. Elected members of all Union Territories.
A
1
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1, 2 and 3
Question 151Single Answer
When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant Art. 95 provides that
A
The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker
B
The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
C
The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker.
D
The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected
Question 152Single Answer
With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill -
A
The President can reject the Bill but cannot return the Bill.
B
The President cannot reject the Bill but can return the Bill.
C
The President can neither reject the Bill nor return the Bill.
D
The President can either reject the Bill or return the Bill.
Question 153Single Answer
The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are
1. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws.
2. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 154Single Answer
The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the following manner?
A
She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.
B
A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
C
A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
D
A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha
Question 155Single Answer
The Council of Ministers' does not consist of:
1. Deputy Ministers.
2. Parliamentary Secretaries.
3. Deputy Chairman-Planning Commission.
A
1, 2 and 3
B
2 only
C
3 only
D
None of these
Question 156Single Answer
The Representatives of states & UT in the Rajya Sabha are elected by:
1. The members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
2. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State legislative
assembly or electoral college of the UT as the case may be.
3. The system of proportional representation by single transferrable vote.
4. The system of proportional representation by List.
A
1 and 3
B
1 and 4
C
2 and 3
D
2 and 4
Question 157Single Answer
Which of the following criteria is laid down by the constitution Read with the Representation of the People Act, 1951, for a person
to be chosen a member of Parliament?
1. If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved for SC/ST, he must be a member of a SC/ST in any state or Union Territory.
2. He/she must not have been punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry and sati.
3. He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.
A
1 only
B
2 and 3 only
C
1, 2 and 3
D
None of these
Question 158Single Answer
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. If an MLA is elected to be an MP, his seat in Parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
2. If a person is elected to two seats in a house, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise both seats become vacant.
A
1 only
B
2 only
C
Both
D
None
Question 159Single Answer
As observed by Salmond, jurisprudence is concerned with
A
to discover new rules
B
to reflect all the rules already known
C
to derive rules from authority and apply them to problems
D
logic.
Question 160Single Answer
Who said jurisprudence is formal science of positive law?
A
Bentham
B
Stone
C
Austin
D
Holland
Question 161Single Answer
Who said "Jurisprudence is nothing but lawyers, extroversion"?
A
Bentham
B
Stone
C
Austin
D
Holland
Question 162Single Answer
Who is the author of the book, ‘Taking rights seriously’?
A
R. Dworkin
B
Hart
C
Bentham
D
Tom Bingham
Question 163Single Answer
The concept of law depends largely on the:
A
social values
B
accepted norms
C
behavioural pattern of the particular society at a given time
D
All of the above
Question 164Single Answer
Law consists of social norms which are:
A
coercive
B
ethical
C
non-coercive
D
religious
Question 165Single Answer
Jurisprudence has been defined as the science of first principle of civil law by:
A
Salmond
B
Holland
C
Gray
D
Paton
Question 166Single Answer
The expression ‘law’ in jurisprudence is mostly used to denote
A
Positive law
B
Negative law
C
Fundamental legal principles
D
Legal systems
Question 167Single Answer
Austin's law is:
A
command of sovereign
B
command of God
C
command of people
D
command of constitution
Question 168Single Answer
Which of the following is not a statement from the Austinian theory?
A
Every law is a command, imposing a duty, enforced by a sanction.
B
Law is a rule laid down from the guidance of an intelligent being by an intelligent being having power over him.
C
A legal rule can be defined as one which prescribes a code of conduct which is done with a feeling of such conduct is obligatory.
D
If a determinate human superior not in a habit of obedience to a like superior, receives habitual obedience from the bulk of a given society, that determinate superior is sovereign in that society.
Question 169Single Answer
Mark the incorrect statement:
A
Law do not always command .but confers privileges also e.g., Right to make a will.
B
The notion of command is applicable to modern social/welfare legislation.
C
Austin's notion that sovereignty indivisible is falsified by federal
constitutions e.g., India, USA
D
Austin's insistence on sanctions as a mark of law conceals and distorts the real character and functions of law in a community.
Question 170Single Answer
Who said: Law consists of rules which are of broad application and non-optional character, but which are at the same time amenable to formulisation, legislation and adjudication?
A
Hart
B
Salmond
C
Kelsen
D
Austin
Question 171Single Answer
Which of the following is not a statement from Hart's theory?
A
Law is a system of social rules which acquire the character of legal rules.
B
The union of the primary and secondary rules constitute the core of a legal system.
C
A legal rule can be defined as one which prescribes a code of conduct, which is done with a feeling that such conduct is obligatory.
D
The law is a normative and not a natural science.
Question 172Single Answer
Mark the incorrect statement:
A
Positive law is made by sovereign and positive morality not by it.
B
Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality by God.
C
Positive law is made by the sovereign and positive morality by the consent of the people.
D
None of the above
Question 173Single Answer
The pure theory of law advocated by Kelsen implies that:
A
a theory which excludes everything which is strictly not law
B
a theory which includes everything which is law.
C
a theory which includes everything which is strictly law.
D
None of the above
Question 174Single Answer
According to Kelsen, the law is a system of behavioural norms which can be traced back to some grundnorms or basic norms from which they derive their existence. The grundnorm:
I must be efficacious
II. The Grundnorm is not deduced from anything else but is assumed as an initial hypothesis.
III. should secure for itself a minimum of effectiveness and when it ceases to derive minimum of support of people, it is replaced by some other grundnorm.
Codes:
A
I and III
B
II and III
C
I, II and III
D
I and II
Question 175Single Answer
Mark the incorrect option:
A
The province of jurisprudence determined - Austin
B
The concept of law - Hart
C
Vienna school of legal thought - Kelsen
D
None of the above.
Question 176Single Answer
Mark the correct statement:
A
Natural law approach is not realistic and practical approach.
B
Natural law principles have inspired positive law, constitution and international law.
C
Naturalists bid to introduce moral element into a criterion of identification and laws have the effect of founding law on the value judgement.
D
All of the above
Question 177Single Answer
The philosophical school seeks to investigate:
A
quest of the law
B
purpose for which a particular law has been enacted
C
the philosophical basis of the law
D
None of the above
Question 178Single Answer
Law is a product of social life and is not created by arbitrary will of individual but by slow unavoidable advancement of human development. This statement belongs to:
A
Analytical school
B
Historical school
C
Sociological school
D
None of the above
Question 179Single Answer
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
I. Fuller - inner morality
II. Bentham - utilitarianism
III. Maine - status of contract
IV. Duguit - social solidarity
V. Hart -rules on fundamentals of a legal system
Codes:
A
None except I
B
None except III
C
None except IV
D
None of the above
Question 180Single Answer
Mark the correct option:
A
Sources of law - Salmond
B
Nature and sources of law - Gray
C
(c) Des recht des besitzes - Savigny
D
All of the above
Question 181Single Answer
A legal custom has to possess a sufficient measure of antiquity. Sufficient under the English law means that it must have existed since 1189. The law in India:
A
is same
B
does not need a fixed period for which custom must have been in existence for its validity
C
antiquity is not essential
D
None of the above
Question 182Single Answer
The actual finding of true meaning of particular word in a statute is called:
A
interpretation of statute
B
construction of statute
C
both (a) and (b)
D
harmonization of statute
Question 183Single Answer
It is one of the cardinal principle of delegate legislation that the legislature should not delegate to a subordinate body the power
make rules on:
A
technical matter
B
policy matter
C
matter of inclusion and exclusion
D
date of commencement of a statute
Question 184Single Answer
Which of the following is not a means for exercising control over delegated legislation?
A
Parliamentary control
B
Judicial control
C
Publication of delegated legislation
D
Registration of delegated legislation
Question 185Single Answer
Mark the incorrect option:
A
Literal rule - grammatical or plain meaning rule
B
Golden rule - purpose of legislation
C
Harmonious construction rule - social welfare legislation
D
Literal rule - strict interpretation
Question 186Single Answer
Which rule of interpretation is employed in the social welfare legislation?
A
Literal rule
B
Golden rule
C
Harmonious construction rule
D
Liberal or beneficial construction rule
Question 187Single Answer
Which rule of construction is applied in the construction of penal statutes?
A
Literal rule
B
Golden rule
C
Harmonious construction rule
D
Liberal rule
Question 188Single Answer
The maxim Ejusdem generis means:
A
of the same kind or nature
B
when particular words are followed by general words, the general words are constructed as limited to things of the same kind as specified in the particular words
C
both (a) and (b)
D
None of the above
Question 189Single Answer
Which of the following is an internal aid to construction of a statute?
A
Title
B
Preamble
C
Proviso and explanation
D
All of the above
Question 190Single Answer
The maxim Generalia specialibus non deterogant means:
A
a general later law does not abrogate an earlier special law by mere implication.
B
a general later law abrogates an earlier special law by mere implication.
C
a special later law does not abrogate an earlier general law by mere implication.
D
None of the above
Question 191Single Answer
Which of the following is not an external aid to construction of a statute?
A
Parliamentary debates
B
Statement of object and reasons
C
Books and dictionaries
D
Marginal notes
Question 192Single Answer
Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in the present day context?
A
Judges did not create any new principles of law through their decisions but simply put a stamp of authority on the already existing principles of law in the society.
B
Judicial decisions are not source of law but as the proof of what the law is.
C
Judges not only declare law but also make it through their decisions.
D
The judges either apply the constitution or legislation or a custom to come to a conclusion.
Question 193Single Answer
Who said: "Case law is gold in mine while statute law is coin of the realm ready for immediate use"?
A
Grotius
B
Hugo
C
Puchta
D
Salmond
Question 194Single Answer
The realist theory is given by
A
Ihering
B
Gierke
C
Savigny
D
Kelsen
Question 195Single Answer
The making of law by the recognition and application of new rules by the courts themselves in the administration of justice implies:
A
judicial precedent
B
judicial decision
C
judicial activism
D
Both (a) and (c)
Question 196Single Answer
The doctrine of precedent is of antiquity. while the stare decisis is relatively modern, the latter relates to:
A
settled judicial hierarchy of courts and law reports
B
emergence of concept of sovereignty of Parliament
C
a point of law settled by a judicial decision
D
None of the above
Question 197Single Answer
Ratio decidendi of a case can be defined as the:
A
material facts of the case plus the decision thereon
B
obiter dicta of the case plus the decision thereon
C
the decision of a case
D
None of the above
Question 198Single Answer
The decision of the Supreme Court are bounded on:
A
All court within the territory of India, including Supreme Court
B
High Courts only
C
All courts within the territory of India, except Supreme Court
D
Indians living abroad
Question 199Single Answer
According to who, ratio decidendi is nothing more than the decision based on the material facts of a case?
A
Dias
B
Wambaugh
C
Goodhart
D
Bentham
Question 200Single Answer
Who said: "A right is a faculty which resides in a determinate party or parties by virtue of a given law and which avails against a party or parties other than the party or parties in whom it resides"?
