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Question for WBSETCL Assistant Engineer Civil - Quiz / Questions / MCQ in English

Last Update on : October 11, 2026

Duration: 90 · Questions: 95 · Max Marks: 95

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To boost your performance in WBSETCL Assistant Engineer Civil exam, practice each question regularly and with focus. Every question tests your subject understanding, so solve them one at a time. Taking a quiz improves your speed and accuracy. Practicing topic-wise MCQs. Students benefit greatly from reviewing questions with answer keys, which help clarify concepts and strengthen Questions knowledge for success in WBSETCL Assistant Engineer Civil exams.

Latest WBSETCL Assistant Engineer Civil Exam Question (Objective Questions), MCQ in English

Subjects : General aptitude, English Test, Civil

Question Bank WBSETCL Assistant Engineer Civil Exam - English

General aptitude

Q 1 :
The cash difference between the selling prices of an article at a profit of 4% and 6% is Rs. 3. The ratio of the two selling prices is:__________ ?
  1. A.51:52
  2. B.52:53
  3. C.51:53
  4. D.52:55
Q 2 :
Which of the following numbers is irrational ?
  1. A.√49
  2. B.0.125
  3. C.√2
  4. D.22/7
Q 3 :
356 x 936 – 356 x 836 = ?
  1. A.35600  
  2. B.34500
  3. C.9630
  4. D.93600
Q 4 :
Arrange in descending order: 5/8, 7/10, 3/4
  1. A.3/4 > 7/10 > 5/8
  2. B.7/10 > 3/4 > 5/8
  3. C.3/4 > 5/8 > 7/10
  4. D.5/8 > 7/10 > 3/4
Q 5 :
What is (3^{4} times 9^{2}) ?
  1. A.36
  2. B.38
  3. C.310
  4. D.96
     
Q 6 :
If 34X-2 = 729, then find the value of X.
  1. A.4     
  2. B.3
  3. C.2 
  4. D.5
Q 7 :
Convert 0.6 into fraction ?
  1. A.3/5
  2. B.2/3
  3. C.4/5
Q 8 :
The no. plate of a bus had peculiarity. The bus number was a perfect square. It was also a perfect square when the plate numbers were reversed. The bus company had only five hundred buses numbered from 1 to 500. What was the number ?
  1. A.169  
  2. B.36
  3. C.196 
  4. D.Can not say
Q 9 :
If a and b are positive integers, such that ab = 125, then (a-b)a+b-4 = ?
  1. A.16   
  2. B.25
  3. C.28  
  4. D.30
Q 10 :
If x*y = x2 + y2 – xy, then value of 9*11 is
  1. A.93     
  2. B.103
  3. C.60.5
  4. D.121
Q 11 :
Which is greater ?
  1. A.15/16
  2. B.17/18
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
Q 12 :
If sum of two numbers is 42 and their product is 437, then find their difference.
  1. A.3 
  2. B.4
  3. C.5    
  4. D.7
Q 13 :
Write the 44000 in Roman numerals
  1. A.XLI 
  2. B.XLVI
  3. C.XLIV 
  4. D.XLVIC
Q 14 :
Convert 0.0909… into fraction ?
  1. A.1/11
  2. B.9/11
  3. C.1/9
  4. D.9/10
Q 15 :
What is (98 times 102) ?
  1. A.9996
  2. B.10000
  3. C.10096
  4. D.10196
Q 16 :
Which is smaller ?
  1. A.9/11
  2. B.7/9
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare
Q 17 :
Convert 0.5777… into fraction ?
  1. A.26/45
  2. B.52/90
  3. C.13/22
  4. D.5/9
Q 18 :
Convert 0.81 into fraction ?
  1. A.81/100
  2. B.9/10
  3. C.8/9
  4. D.9/11
Q 19 :
(63)2 – (12)2 =?
  1. A.3528 
  2. B.3852
  3. C.3582  
  4. D.3825
Q 20 :
Which is greater ?
  1. A.13/17
  2. B.11/14
  3. C.Equal
  4. D.Cannot compare

English Test

Q 21 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.He was in the temper
  2. B.and refused
  3. C.discuss the matter again
  4. D.No error
Q 22 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.A flower makes no garland
  2. B.so we must do a thing together
  3. C.in a unit for a good result
  4. D.No error
Q 23 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.My friend is a software engineer
  2. B.and his wife is doctor
  3. C.so they don’t have enough time for each other
  4. D.No error
Q 24 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I don’t have much time that
  2. B.I hear you in detail with verbosity
  3. C.tell everything in nutshell
  4. D.No error
Q 25 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The atmosphere is changing
  2. B.so I have severe pain in my body
  3. C.if you have any painkiller, please give it to me
  4. D.No error
Q 26 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.No one is without fault
  2. B.because no one is God
  3. C.and only God is fault free
  4. D.No error
Q 27 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Your
  2. B.clock is
  3. C.one hour fast
  4. D.No error
Q 28 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.The lose of jobs
  2. B.is regarded by some as an necessary evil
  3. C.in the fight against infliation
  4. D.No error
Q 29 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.In science, the credit goes to a man
  2. B.who convinces the world
  3. C.not to the man to whom the idea first occurs
  4. D.No error
Q 30 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.It is only after
  2. B.the match is over
  3. C.that people realize how exciting it is
  4. D.No error
Q 31 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Off the two
  2. B.sisters, she
  3. C.is better
  4. D.No error
Q 32 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.A interesting book
  2. B.‘A Tale of two cities’
  3. C.was written by Alexander Dumas
  4. D.No error
Q 33 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.I shall never
  2. B.forget a good
  3. C.deed you did to me, when I was in crisis
  4. D.No error
Q 34 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.Wisdom of Vikramaditya
  2. B.solved many riddles
  3. C.that people brought to him for solution
  4. D.No error
Q 35 :
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The sentences are In three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c) and (d). In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
  1. A.News you broke to his wife
  2. B.made her nervous
  3. C.and she broke down
  4. D.No error

Civil

Q 36 :
What will be the depth of penetration of the plunger in Vicat Apparatus (IS : 5513 - 1976) from the bottom of the Vicat Mould, when the cement paste is tested for standard consistency, according to IS 4031 – 1988 ?
  1. A.11 to 15 mm
  2. B.8 to 10 mm
  3. C.15 to 17 mm
  4. D.5 to 7 mm
Q 37 :
Two sewer pipelines A and B (having the same diameter and made of the same material) are laid at a bed slope of 1 in 225 and 1 in 625, respectively. Determine the ratio of their carrying capacities (QA to QB) .
  1. C.1
Q 38 :
Select the correct statement with respect to an over - reinforced cement concrete section under the working stress method .
  1. A.The compressive stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum tensile stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
  2. B.Tensile steel stress and maximum compressive stress in concrete simultaneously reach their allowable limits
  3. C.The allowable limiting stress is reached in concrete before the steel stress reaches the limiting value
  4. D.The tensile stress in steel reaches the allowable limit before the maximum compressive stress in concrete reaches the allowable limit
Q 39 :
A cantilever beam of span L is built - in at the support. It is restrained against lateral deflection and torsion at the free end. The effective length of compression flange for the beam as per IS 800 : 2007 is
  1. A.​​0.5 L
  2. B.0.85 L
  3. C.2 L
  4. D.0.75 L
Q 40 :
What is the principle of plane surveying ?
  1. A.Working from part to whole
  2. B.Working from point to area
  3. C.Working from angle to volume
  4. D.Working from whole to part
Q 41 :
According is IS 5968 : 1987, the minimum radius of radius of curve to be provided in the alignment of unlined canals carrying a discharge of less than 30 cumecs up to 15 cumecs is :
  1. A.100 m
  2. B.1000 m
  3. C.600 m
  4. D.150 m
Q 42 :
A Pelton wheel is to be designed for a pitch diameter of 1 m and jet diameter of 0.1 m. The number of buckets on the runner computed by Taygun’s formula is :
  1. A.20
  2. B.25
  3. C.15
  4. D.10
Q 43 :
What is the effect of fly ash in concrete ?
  1. A.Reduces the secondary hydration process
  2. B.Increases the heat of hydration
  3. C.Increases the amount of air entrainment
  4. D.Reduces the heat of hydration
Q 44 :
As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum grade of concrete to be used for plain concrete and reinforced concrete, respectively, in concrete works exposed directly along the sea coast are :
  1. A.M 20 and M 30
  2. B.M 20 and M 25
  3. C.M 22 and M 40
  4. D.M 15 and M 25
Q 45 :
Identify the property that changes as a function of the geometrical dimensions of a section in structural materials :
  1. A.Mass density
  2. B.Moment of inertia
  3. C.Poission’s ratio
  4. D.Modulus of elasticity
Q 46 :
As per IRC (Indian Roads Congress) recommendation, what will be the designed stopping sight distance (in metres) at the vehicle speed of 80 km/h on a rural highway ?
  1. A.120
  2. B.140
  3. C.70
  4. D.60
Q 47 :
No deduction is made in the quantity estimation for plastering work in cement mortar for openings having size up to :
  1. A.0.5 m2
  2. B.1.0 m2
  3. C.3 m2
  4. D.0.75 m2
Q 48 :
What is the height of slump cone mould used for testing the workability of the concrete ?
  1. A.20 cm
  2. B.10 cm
  3. C.30 cm
  4. D.25 cm
Q 49 :
Select the correct option with regard in the following statements (S1, S2) pertaining to pavements .
S1 : Present serviceability index is used for the functional evaluation of pavement surface condition
S2 : Rigid pavements are less affected by temperature variations than flexible pavements
  1. A.Statements S1 is true and Statement S2 is false
  2. B.Both statements S1 and S2 are false
  3. C.Statements S1 is false and Statement S2 is true
  4. D.Both statements S1 and S2 are true
Q 50 :
If the quadrantal bearing of a line AB is S 31'35' E, then its whole circle bearing is equal in :
  1. A.121o25'
  2. B.148o25'
  3. C.58o25'
  4. D.211o25'

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