Kurukshetra a journal on rural development is published by
A
Ministry of Finance
B
Ministry of Information and Broadcastin
C
Ministry of Rural Development
D
Planning Commission
Question 3Single Answer
Devaluation of a currency means
A
Fixing the value of the currency in conjuction with the movement in the value of a basket of predetermined currencies
B
Reduction in the value of a currency vis-à-vis major internationally traded currencies
C
Fixing the value of currency in multilateral consultaion with the IMF the World Bank and major trading partners
D
Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
Question 4Single Answer
In India rural incomes are generally lower than the urban incomes, which of the following reasons account for this
1. a large number of farmers are illiterate and know little about scientific agriculture
2. prices of primary products are lower than those of manufactured products
3. Investments in agriculture has been low when compared to investment in industry
A
1 and 3
B
2 and 3
C
1 and 2
D
1,2 and 3
Question 5Single Answer
Which of the following programmes aims at the promotion of savings among rural women
A
Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
B
Indira Mahila Yojna
C
Jawahar Rozgar Yojna
D
Mahila Samridhi Yojna
Question 6Single Answer
What is Net National Product
A
the money value of final goods and services produced annually in the economy
B
the money value of annual service generation in the economy
C
the money value of tangible goods produced annually in the economy
D
The money value of tangible goods available in the economy
Question 7Single Answer
National income is the
A
net national product at market price
B
net national product at factor cost
C
net domestic product at market price
D
net domestic product at factor cost
Question 8Single Answer
Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our
A
financial system
B
tax system
C
patents and copyrights
D
Public sector undertakings
Question 9Single Answer
During which Five Year Plan was the annual growth rate of National Income the lowest
A
2nd plan
B
3rd plan
C
5th plan
D
6th plan
Question 10Single Answer
Which of the following taxes is a progressive tax
A
sales tax
B
custom tax
C
excise tax
D
income tax
Question 11Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘CLEANLINESS’ each of the which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet, in the same sequence?
A
Two
B
Three
C
Five
D
Four
E
None of these
Question 12Single Answer
Team A has scored more goals than Team B
Team C has scored fewer goals than Team B
Team A has scored fewer goals than Team C .
If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
A
True
B
False
C
Uncertain
D
None
Question 13Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eight letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be formed, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give ‘Y’ as the answer.
A
A
B
E
C
T
D
X
E
Y
Question 14Single Answer
How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 15Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters in the word CREDIT each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 16Single Answer
How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ‘LMEA’ using each letter only once in each word?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 17Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the seventh and the eighth letters of the word TEMPORAL, which of the following will be the first letter of that word? If more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer and if no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer.
A
T
B
L
C
E
D
Y
E
X
Question 18Single Answer
If the letters of the word HANDOVER are arranged alphabetically from left to right how many letters will remain at the same position?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 19Single Answer
How many such pairs of letters are there in the word EXCURSION, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as they have in the English alphabet?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
More than three
Question 20Single Answer
If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth letters of the word DEVIATION first letter of that word is your answer? If more than one such word can be made formed your answer is ‘A’ and if no such word can be formed your answer is ‘B’.
A
V
B
T
C
E
D
A
E
B
Question 21Single Answer
Passage :
A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .
Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet ?
A
X
B
W
C
I
D
H
Question 22Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the third alphabet of each of the words is changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series, which of the following will form a meaningful English word?
A
SUM
B
BIG
C
Both BIG and THE
D
FOR
E
Both FOR and BIG
Question 23Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If the given words are arranged in the order as they would appear in a dictionary from left to right, which of the following will be second from the right ?
A
AND
B
FOR
C
THE
D
BIG
E
SUM
Question 24Single Answer
Passage :
Direction: The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
If second alphabet in each of the words is changed to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having two vowels (same or different vowels) will be formed ?
A
None
B
One
C
Two
D
Three
E
Four
Question 25Single Answer
Passage :
Direction : The following question is based on the five words given below:
AND FOR THE BIG SUM (The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily the meaningful English words.)
How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and the second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?
A
Two
B
Five
C
Six
D
Nine
E
Three
Question 26Single Answer
Which country test-fired the long-range ballistic missile kheibar ?
A
Israel
B
Iran
C
UAE
D
Ukraine
Question 27Single Answer
Which city is set to launch Kaveri 2.0 web-based property registration application ?
A
Chennai
B
Bengaluru
C
Pune
D
Mysuru
Question 28Single Answer
Araku Valley Coffee, which was seen in the news, is from which state ?
A
Tamil Nadu
B
Andhra Pradesh
C
Assam
D
West Bengal
Question 29Single Answer
Which country recently launched its home grown space rocket Nuri ?
A
Russia
B
South Korea
C
Israel
D
UAE
Question 30Single Answer
Tina Turner, which was seen in the news, was associated with which profession ?
A
Author
B
Singer
C
Politician
D
Sports Person
Question 31Single Answer
Name the personality who has recently appointed as the Central Vigilance Commissioner .
A
Arvinda Kumar
B
Bimaljit Kaur
C
Praveen Kumar Srivastava
D
Sanjeev Kumar
Question 32Single Answer
In May 2023, which of the following civic transport bodies was awarded the FICCI’s Smart Mobility award ?
A
HRTC
B
MSRTC
C
UPSRTC
D
BEST
Question 33Single Answer
In May 2023, which of the following personalities was named the Smile Ambassador under Maharashtra’s Swachh Mukh Abhiyan to create awareness about oral health ?
A
M S Dhoni
B
Sachin Tendulkar
C
Virat Kohli
D
Manushi Chillar
Question 34Single Answer
In May 2023, which of the following International organizations launched a 2023-27 country partnership strategy for India ?
A
World Bank
B
International Monetary Fund
C
Asian Development Bank
D
New Development Bank
Question 35Single Answer
In May 2023, which of the following banks launched a new brand campaign with the slogan Life ko Banao Rich ?
A
ICICI Bank
B
State Bank of India
C
Yes Bank
D
Axis Bank
Question 36Single Answer
The first Metro Railway Service in Kolkata began in the year
A
1984
B
1981
C
1975
D
1979
Question 37Single Answer
Kolkata - Mumbai National Highway via Agra is known as
A
NH-5
B
NH-8
C
NH-3
D
NH-6
Question 38Single Answer
Bongaon and Kolkata is connected by
A
NH-35
B
NH-02
C
NH-06
D
NH-32
Question 39Single Answer
The headquarter of the Eastern Railway is located at
A
Ranchi
B
Kharagpur
C
Dispur
D
Kolkata
Question 40Single Answer
Which is the longest national highway in India ?
A
NH-27
B
NH-30
C
NH-44
D
NH-53
Question 41Single Answer
Which is the official Flower of West Bengal ?
A
Lotus
B
Palash
C
Shephali
D
Rhododendron
Question 42Single Answer
Which is the official bird of West Bengal ?
A
Green Imperial Pigeon
B
White-throated King Fisher
C
Koel
D
Emerald Dove
Question 43Single Answer
When did West Bengal become a state ?
A
August 15, 1947
B
August 15, 1948
C
November 26, 1949
D
January 26, 1950
Question 44Single Answer
What was the old name of Bengal ?
A
Bhokardan
B
Patalipura
C
Kalpi
D
Ganaridai
Question 45Single Answer
Who founded the independent Bengal ?
A
Ilians Shah
B
Murshid Quli Khan
C
Hussain Shah
D
Alivardi Khan
Question 46Single Answer
Who was the founder of Pala dynasty in Kamrupa
A
Brahma Pala
B
Ratna Pala
C
Indra Pala
D
Jaya Pala
Question 47Single Answer
Why did Harshavardhana vow to kill Sasanka, the King of Bengal ?
A
Sasanka treacherously killed his brother Rajya Vardhana
B
Sasanka treacherously defeated him in a battle
C
Sasanka treacherously killed his father Prabhakar Vardhana
D
All of the above
Question 48Single Answer
Where was the capital of Sasanka ?
A
Samatata
B
Tamralipta
C
Karna Suvarna
D
Lakhnawati
Question 49Single Answer
The first ruler of Pala dynasty was
A
Dharmapala
B
Bhaskaravarman
C
Gopala
D
None of these
Question 50Single Answer
Which Dynasty supplanted the Palas in Bengal ?
A
Rai Dynasty
B
Hoysala Dynasty
C
Sen Dynasty
D
Kakatiya Dynasty
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Pharmacy
Question 51Single Answer
Creaming is a ________ process.
A
Reversible
B
Irreversible
C
Downward
D
Both (a) and (c)
Question 52Single Answer
o/w emulsions normally cream in _______ direction.
A
Downward
B
Upward
C
First up and then down
D
First down then up
Question 53Single Answer
______ is an example of non-ionic polymer.
A
Cellulose
B
Pectin
C
Glucose
D
Methyl cellulose
Question 54Single Answer
Electrolytes are added in suspensions to _____ the zeta potential.
A
Neutralize
B
Decrease
C
Increase
D
Stabilize
Question 55Single Answer
The sedimentation volume of an ideal suspension should be _____
A
One
B
Greater than one
C
Zero
D
Less than one
Question 56Single Answer
Which combination correctly describes a flocculated pharmaceutical suspension?
A
Particles form loose aggregates and the supernatant becomes clear
B
Particles form a compact hard cake and the supernatant remains turbid
C
Sedimentation is negligible and particles remain completely dispersed
D
Redispersion becomes progressively impossible
Question 57Single Answer
Which law is commonly used to describe the sedimentation velocity of spherical particles in a dilute pharmaceutical suspension?
A
Stokes' law
B
Henry's law
C
Raoult's law
D
Beer-Lambert law
Question 58Single Answer
According to the phase-volume concept, approximately what maximum volume fraction of monodisperse spherical droplets corresponds to close packing before severe instability becomes likely?
A
0.26
B
0.50
C
0.74
D
0.90
Question 59Single Answer
Which among the following is the chief ingredient of anti-diarrhoeal mixture?
A
Charcoal
B
Kaolin
C
Calamine
D
Aluminum Hydroxide
Question 60Single Answer
Which rheological test applies a constant stress and measures time-dependent deformation of a semisolid material?
A
Creep test
B
Pycnometry
C
Nephelometry
D
Refractometry
Question 61Single Answer
Compared with its continuous aqueous phase, the apparent viscosity of an oil-in-water emulsion is generally?
A
Higher
B
Always lower
C
Exactly identical
D
Always zero
Question 62Single Answer
According to Stoke's equation, the creaming of emulsion will take place in _____ direction, if the density of the dispersed phase is more than that of the dispersion medium.
A
Downward
B
Upward
C
Centre
D
Both (a) and (b)
Question 63Single Answer
____ of an emulsion occurs when the distributions is of globules is not uniform.
A
Caking
B
Breaking
C
Creaming
D
Coalescence
Question 64Single Answer
The commercial method for the preparation of emulsions is ______
A
Homogenization
B
Lyophilization
C
Centrifugation
D
Both (a) and (c)
Question 65Single Answer
According to Stokes' law, which change most directly reduces the rate of creaming in an emulsion?
A
Decreasing globule size
B
Increasing globule size
C
Decreasing continuous-phase viscosity
D
Increasing the density difference between phases
Question 66Single Answer
The ratio of oil : water : gum, used for the preparation of a primary emulsion containing a fixed oil is ____
A
4 : 4 : 2
B
4 : 2 : 1
C
1 : 2 : 4
D
2 : 4 : 4
Question 67Single Answer
The percentage of sucrose in simple syrup I.P is ___
A
66.7% w/w
B
85% w/w
C
56% w/w
D
33% w/w
Question 68Single Answer
Commonly used solvent in throat paint is ____
A
Castor Oil
B
Sucrose Syrup
C
Glycerin
D
Alcohol
Question 69Single Answer
Lugol's solution is an aqueous solution containing iodine together with which substance to enhance iodine solubility?
A
Potassium iodide
B
Sodium bicarbonate
C
Calcium chloride
D
Magnesium sulfate
Question 70Single Answer
Which of the following processes is used for the extraction of volatile oils from plants?
A
Simple Distillation
B
Steam Distillation
C
Extraction
D
Soxhlation
Question 71Single Answer
In atherosclerosis, the serum level of____decreases.
A
Triglycerides
B
VLDL
C
HDL
D
LDL
Question 72Single Answer
Which drug can significantly increase plasma digoxin concentrations and thereby increase the risk of digitalis toxicity?
A
Quinidine
B
Potassium chloride
C
Lidocaine
D
Magnesium sulfate
Question 73Single Answer
When quinidine is initiated in a patient receiving digoxin, which measure is particularly important?
A
Monitor digoxin concentration and adjust its dose when necessary
B
Routinely double the digoxin dose
C
Discontinue all potassium intake
D
Administer digoxin only intramuscularly
Question 74Single Answer
Name a substitute of enalapril.
A
Losartan
B
Rosiglitazone
C
Omeprazole
D
Famotidine
Question 75Single Answer
Antihypertensive drugs Mode of action
1. Methyldopa (A) Ganglion blocker
2. Hydralazine (B) Depletion of catecholamines
3. Reserpine (C) Direct action on arterioles
4. Mecamylamine (D) False neurotransmitter
A
1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
B
1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
C
1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
D
1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
Question 76Single Answer
Match the cardiovascular drug with its principal pharmacological action:
1. Papaverine – Vasodilator
2. Verapamil – Calcium-channel blocker
3. Hydralazine – Direct arteriolar vasodilator
4. Dobutamine – β₁-adrenergic agonist
Which matching sequence is correct?
A
1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched
B
Only 1 and 2 are correctly matched
C
Only 2 and 3 are correctly matched
D
Only 3 and 4 are correctly matched
Question 77Single Answer
Which of the following are the potential targets for designing antihypertensive drugs?
(A) H2-receptors
(B) Proton pump
(C) - adrenergic receptors
(D) Calcium channel proteins
A
A and B
B
C and D
C
B and D
D
A and D
Question 78Single Answer
Hypotensive agents Mode of action
1. Clonidine (A) Direct action on blood vessels
2. Captopril (B) - adrenoceptor antagonist
3. Prazosin (C) Decreases sympathetic activity through brain
4. Minoxidil (D) Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor
A
1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
B
1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
C
1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
D
1-C 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
Question 79Single Answer
Which statement about digoxin is correct?
A
Its elimination half-life in adults with normal renal function is approximately 36–48 hours
B
It is metabolized almost completely by the liver
C
It primarily accelerates AV nodal conduction
D
Its principal elimination pathway is pulmonary excretion
Question 80Single Answer
Digitalis glycosides are used in congestive heart failure as they increase the____.
A
Force of myocardial contraction
B
Cardiac filling pressure
C
Heart rate
D
Venous pressure
Question 81Single Answer
Digitalis is used in congestive heart failure. It acts by ____.
A
Decreasing the intracellular sodium levels
B
Activating adenylyl cyclase to produce cAMP
C
Decreasing the release of calcium from sarcoplasmic reticulum
D
Inhibiting the action of Na+ -K+ -ATPase enzyme
Question 82Single Answer
Concomitant administration of ____ increases the risk of digitalis toxicity.
A
Lidocaine
B
Triamterene
C
Hydrochlorothiazide
D
Captopril
Question 83Single Answer
___is a cardioselective -blocker with vasodilatory action.
A
Atenolol
B
Bisoprolol
C
Nebivolol
D
Pindolol
Question 84Single Answer
___is specifically indicated for the treatment of supraventricular tachyarrhythmias.
A
Mexiletine
B
Diltiazem
C
Propranolol
D
Nifedipine
Question 85Single Answer
Which angiotensin-II receptor blocker is used in hypertension?
A
Valsartan
B
Amlodipine
C
Atenolol
D
Enalapril
Question 86Single Answer
Why may metoprolol be preferred over propranolol when β₁-selectivity is clinically desirable?
A
Metoprolol is relatively selective for β₁-adrenoceptors
B
Metoprolol is an irreversible α-blocker
C
Metoprolol is a calcium-channel blocker
D
Metoprolol stimulates β₂-adrenoceptors
Question 87Single Answer
Which cardiac drug exerts its positive inotropic action primarily by stimulating β₁-adrenoceptors and increasing intracellular cAMP?
A
Dobutamine
B
Digitoxin
C
Nicardipine
D
Sotalol
Question 88Single Answer
Which antianginal drug may produce reflex tachycardia because of marked vasodilation?
A
Nitroglycerin
B
Timolol
C
Atenolol
D
Ivabradine
Question 89Single Answer
Which drug is particularly useful in vasospastic or Prinzmetal angina because it blocks L-type calcium channels and relaxes coronary vascular smooth muscle?
A
Nifedipine
B
Timolol
C
Digoxin
D
Hydrochlorothiazide
Question 90Single Answer
Sublingual nitroglycerine tablet has a duration of action of___.
A
3-5 mins
B
10-30 mins
C
1-2 hours
D
8-10 hours
Question 91Single Answer
Which antihypertensive drug inhibits the renin angiotensin-aldosterone system?
A
Propranolol
B
Methyldopa
C
Reserpine
D
Enalapril
Question 92Single Answer
Terazosin lowers blood pressure primarily by blocking which receptors?
A
α₁-adrenoceptors
B
β₁-adrenoceptors
C
β₂-adrenoceptors
D
H₂-receptors
Question 93Single Answer
Clonidine lowers blood pressure predominantly by stimulating which central receptors?
A
α₂-adrenoceptors
B
β₁-adrenoceptors
C
H₂-receptors
D
D₂-receptors
Question 94Single Answer
Which condition is an important contraindication to the use of a nonselective β-blocker such as propranolol?
A
Bronchial asthma with bronchospasm
B
Essential hypertension
C
Migraine prophylaxis
D
Stable angina pectoris
Question 95Single Answer
Which one of the following sentence is true for nitrates?
A
They have diuretic effect
B
They are drugs of choice in hypertension
C
Glyceryl trinitrates is used in the rapid relief from angina
D
Tolerance is developed only to adverse effects but not to antianginal effect.
Question 96Single Answer
Furosemide is an example of____.
A
Potassium-sparing diuretic
B
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
C
Thiazide diuretic
D
Loop diuretic
Question 97Single Answer
Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?
A
Clonidine
B
Losartan
C
Acebutalol
D
Amlodipine
Question 98Single Answer
Which direct-acting arteriolar vasodilator relaxes vascular smooth muscle and is used in the treatment of hypertension?
A
Hydralazine
B
Physostigmine
C
Pilocarpine
D
Pralidoxime
Question 99Single Answer
Thiazide diuretics do not cause which of the following adverse effect?
A
Hypokalaemia
B
Hyperuricaemia
C
Hypoglycaemia
D
Hypercalcaemia
Question 100Single Answer
____ is the most commonly used diuretic along with antihypertensive drugs.
A
Acetazolamide
B
Mannitol
C
Spironolactone
D
Hydrochlorothiazide
Question 101Single Answer
Enalapril maleate is an____.
A
Antihistaminic agent
B
Antihypertensive agent
C
Antiseptic
D
Antibiotic
Question 102Single Answer
Guanethidine is an_____drug.
A
Antiemetic
B
Anticonvulsant
C
Antimalarial
D
Antihypertensive
Question 103Single Answer
Diazoxide used for rapid reduction of blood pressure in a hypertensive emergency was historically administered by which route?
A
Oral route
B
Intramuscular route
C
Intravenous route
D
Subcutaneous route
Question 104Single Answer
Spironolactone exerts its diuretic activity by inhibiting_____.
A
Histamine
B
Aldosterone
C
Insulin
D
Glucagon
Question 105Single Answer
___develops due to irrational use of digitalis.
A
Addiction
B
Habituation
C
Tolerance
D
Cumulative poisoning
Question 106Single Answer
____ions increase the action of digitalis.
A
Ca2+
B
Na+
C
K+
D
Mg2+
Question 107Single Answer
Lozenges are primarily designed to dissolve slowly in the mouth to produce which effect?
A
Local action in the mouth or throat
B
Drug release exclusively in the stomach
C
Drug release exclusively in the intestine
D
Intramuscular drug delivery
Question 108Single Answer
Vaginal suppositories are called as____
A
Pessaries
B
Implants
C
Enema
D
Douches
Question 109Single Answer
Turpentine liniment is used topically as ____.
A
Protective
B
Counter Irritant
C
Local Anesthetic
D
Antidandruff
Question 110Single Answer
_____ is a semisolid preparation with high concentration of powdered solids.
A
Ointment
B
Paste
C
Gel
D
Jelly
Question 111Single Answer
creams are biphasic _____.
A
Emulsions
B
Magmas
C
Jellies
D
Suspensions
Question 112Single Answer
Which among the following is used as an emulsifying agent for the preparation of a cream containing stearic acid, water, potassium hydroxide and glycerine?
A
Lanolin
B
Potassium Stearate
C
Magnesium Stearate
D
Bees Wax
Question 113Single Answer
The commonly used preservative in ophthalmic drops is ____.
A
Propyl Paraben
B
Methyl Paraben
C
Benzalkonium Chloride
D
Phenol
Question 114Single Answer
The essential components of an effervescent powder are ____.
A
Potassium Citrate and Sodium Bicarbonate
B
Tartaric Acid and Lactic Acid
C
Calciumcarbonate, Potassium Citrate and Tartaric Acid
D
Citric Acid, Tartaric Acid and Sodium Bicarbonate
Question 115Single Answer
liquid oral preparation containing concentrated aqueous solution of sucrose is called ___.
A
Elixir
B
Tincture
C
Syrup
D
Liniment
Question 116Single Answer
___ is an example of natural emulsifying agent.
A
Acacia
B
Cetrimide
C
Lactose
D
Stearic Acid
Question 117Single Answer
The approximate weight of rectal suppositories for adult use is ____.
A
3 g
B
2 g
C
4 g
D
5 g
Question 118Single Answer
Which lubricant is commonly used for suppository molds when preparing cocoa-butter suppositories by the fusion method?
A
Liquid paraffin
B
Cocoa butter
C
Sodium chloride
D
Lactose
Question 119Single Answer
According to Stokes' law, the rate of creaming of an emulsion is inversely proportional to which factor?
A
Viscosity of the continuous phase
B
Square of globule radius
C
Difference in density between the phases
D
Gravitational acceleration
Question 120Single Answer
An insufflation is best described as a finely divided medicated powder introduced into which site?
A
A body cavity
B
The stomach as a tablet
C
The skin as an ointment
D
A vein as an injection
Question 121Single Answer
Which polyol can be incorporated into pharmaceutical syrups to help reduce sucrose crystallization?
A
Sorbitol
B
Sodium chloride
C
Calcium carbonate
D
Magnesium oxide
Question 122Single Answer
What is the approximate concentration of sucrose in Simple Syrup BP expressed as percentage w/w?
A
66.7% w/w
B
85% w/w
C
60% w/w
D
40% w/w
Question 123Single Answer
Which artificial sweetener is approximately 180–200 times sweeter than sucrose and generally has a more sugar-like taste than saccharin?
A
Aspartame
B
Sorbitol
C
Cyclamate
D
Mannitol
Question 124Single Answer
The hydroalcoholic preparation for oral use containing a flavor and medicinal agent is called as ___.
A
Elixir
B
Syrup
C
Gargle
D
Enema
Question 125Single Answer
What is the traditional oil : water : gum ratio used to prepare a primary emulsion of a volatile oil with acacia?
A
2 : 2 : 1
B
4 : 2 : 1
C
3 : 2 : 1
D
1 : 1 : 2
Question 126Single Answer
Which ingredient gives conventional throat paints their high viscosity and helps prolong contact with the mucous membrane?
A
Glycerol
B
Purified water
C
Ethanol alone
D
Liquid paraffin
Question 127Single Answer
The most common adverse effect with reserpine is _____.
A
Constipation
B
Depression
C
Diuresis
D
Nausea and Vomiting
Question 128Single Answer
The predominant adverse effect of adrenergic blocking agents used in hypertension is____.
A
Renal toxicity
B
Haemolytic anaemia
C
Hypersensitivity reactions
D
Orthostatic hypotension
Question 129Single Answer
The semisolid preparations for external use which are applied by spreading on a suitable backing material are called _____.
A
Pastes
B
Plasters
C
Liniments
D
Ointments
Question 130Single Answer
Which statement best describes digitoxin compared with digoxin?
A
Digitoxin has a longer elimination half-life
B
Digitoxin is eliminated exclusively unchanged by the lungs
C
Digitoxin has no cardiac glycoside activity
D
Digitoxin is a β-adrenoceptor antagonist
Question 131Single Answer
The medicated preparations which are used to cleanse, deodorize and soothe the body orifices are called ____
A
Enemas
B
Douches
C
Liniments
D
Insufflations
Question 132Single Answer
The emulsifying agent carrageenan is a ____
A
Seed Extract
B
Sea Weed
C
Gum Exudate
D
Collagen
Question 133Single Answer
One among the following is not an ointment base.
A
Bees Wax
B
Tocopherols
C
Paraffins
D
Wool Fat
Question 134Single Answer
Clonidine produces its antihypertensive effect predominantly through stimulation of which receptors in the central nervous system?
A
α₂-adrenoceptors
B
β₁-adrenoceptors
C
H₁-receptors
D
H₂-receptors
Question 135Single Answer
An alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solution containing volatile substances is traditionally known as a?
A
Spirit
B
Infusion
C
Decoction
D
Poultice
Question 136Single Answer
Which serious toxicity limits prolonged or high-dose administration of sodium nitroprusside?
A
Cyanide toxicity
B
Severe constipation
C
Irreversible hyperglycemia
D
Ototoxicity
Question 137Single Answer
Mechanism of action of digitalis is____.
A
Activation of Na+ -K+ -ATPase enzyme
B
Inhibition of Na+ -K+ -ATPase enzyme
C
Inhibition of phosphodiesterases
D
Stimulation of xanthine oxidase
Question 138Single Answer
Which concomitant therapy can increase the risk of digitalis toxicity by causing hypokalemia?
A
Thiazide diuretics
B
Potassium supplements
C
Potassium-sparing diuretics
D
Magnesium supplements
Question 139Single Answer
Alcoholic preparations containing the active principles of vegetable drugs are known as ____
A
Infusions
B
Sprits
C
Tinctures
D
Oxymal
Question 140Single Answer
Which ACE inhibitor is administered in its active form rather than as an ester prodrug?
A
Captopril
B
Ramipril
C
Quinapril
D
Benazepril
Question 141Single Answer
A preparation containing honey and vinegar is traditionally known as?
A
Oxymel
B
Tincture
C
Infusion
D
Spirit
Question 142Single Answer
Which combination is particularly associated with increased risk of QT prolongation because CYP3A4 inhibition markedly increases terfenadine exposure?
A
Terfenadine and itraconazole
B
Terfenadine and neomycin
C
Terfenadine and amoxicillin
D
Terfenadine and calcium carbonate
Question 143Single Answer
Which of the following preparations should be sterile when dispensed?
A
Ophthalmic Solutions
B
Syrups
C
Tinctures
D
Spirits
Question 144Single Answer
Which major cardiac glycoside occurs in *Digitalis purpurea* and is formed from purpurea glycoside A?
A
Digitoxin
B
Digoxin
C
Ouabain
D
Scillaren A
Question 145Single Answer
Egg yolk is used as ___
A
Binding Agent
B
Suspending Agent
C
Emulsifying Agent
D
Preservative
Question 146Single Answer
Which statement about β-blockers used in hypertension is false?
A
They characteristically increase blood pressure
B
They may reduce heart rate
C
Some reduce renin release by blocking β₁-adrenoceptors
D
They may be combined with a diuretic
Question 147Single Answer
Apart from vasodilatory activity____is also used to stimulate the growth of hair.
A
Sodium nitroprusside
B
Hydralazine
C
Diazoxide
D
Minoxidil
Question 148Single Answer
The process of extraction of vegetable drugs using cold or boiling water for a short period of time is known as ___.
A
Infusion
B
Maceration
C
Soxhlation
D
Percolation
Question 149Single Answer
Which drug combination particularly increases the risk of hyperkalemia because both agents reduce aldosterone-mediated potassium excretion?
A
Captopril and spironolactone
B
Captopril and mannitol
C
Captopril and hydrochlorothiazide
D
Captopril and furosemide
Question 150Single Answer
A hypertensive patient also has bronchial asthma. Which β-blocker, if a β-blocker is specifically required, is relatively preferable to a nonselective agent such as propranolol because of β₁-selectivity?