Current Affairs in Gujarati 10th October 2026 : Current GK
On 10 Oct 2026
Current Affairs 31st July 2026 : Daily GK Update in English
1. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 was passed by both Houses of Parliament in July 2026. What is the maximum imprisonment it provides for organised examination-related offences?
A) 3 years
B) 5 years
C) 7 years
D) 10 years
Answer: D) 10 years
Explanation: The Bill amends the 2024 Act and increases the maximum jail term to 10 years (with higher fines up to ₹50 lakh for individuals and ₹10 crore for organised groups).
2. Who moved the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Amendment Bill, 2026 in Parliament?
A) Dharmendra Pradhan
B) Jitendra Singh
C) Amit Shah
D) Nirmala Sitharaman
Answer: B) Jitendra Singh
Explanation: Minister of State for Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions Jitendra Singh moved and replied to the debate on the Bill.
3. The Public Examinations Amendment Bill, 2026 was cleared by the Rajya Sabha on:
A) 28 July 2026
B) 29 July 2026
C) 30 July 2026
D) 31 July 2026
Answer: C) 30 July 2026
Explanation: Lok Sabha passed it on 29 July; Rajya Sabha cleared it on 30 July after a long debate, with the Opposition walking out.
4. India’s total exports in FY 2025–26 reached a record high of approximately:
A) US$750 billion
B) US$800 billion
C) US$863.1 billion
D) US$900 billion
Answer: C) US$863.1 billion
Explanation: Merchandise exports were US$441.8 billion and services exports US$421.3 billion, driven by FTAs with UAE, UK, Australia and others.
5. Which of the following is NOT among the five active Payments Banks in India after the winding up of Paytm Payments Bank?
A) Airtel Payments Bank
B) India Post Payments Bank
C) Fino Payments Bank
D) Paytm Payments Bank
Answer: D) Paytm Payments Bank
Explanation: RBI cancelled Paytm Payments Bank’s licence effective April 2026; Delhi High Court ordered its winding up. The remaining five are Airtel, IPPB, Fino, Jio and NSDL.
6. The Supreme Court recently quashed a 2021 Office Memorandum related to:
A) Retrospective environmental clearances
B) GST compensation
C) Farm laws
D) Electoral bonds
Answer: A) Retrospective environmental clearances
Explanation: The SC held that ex-post facto environmental clearances cannot be granted merely through an Office Memorandum; a proper statutory mechanism is required.
7. ILO Convention No. 193, on which India abstained, primarily deals with:
A) Child labour
B) Decent work in the platform (gig) economy
C) Occupational safety
D) Migrant workers
Answer: B) Decent work in the platform (gig) economy
Explanation: Adopted in June 2026, it is the first binding global treaty setting standards for platform/gig workers, including algorithmic management transparency. India abstained citing the need for domestic legal conformity first.
8. The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2026 proposes that assets of NGOs whose FCRA registration ceases will vest with:
A) The State Government
B) A Designated Authority (and ultimately the Consolidated Fund of India)
C) The original donors
D) A new trust formed by the NGO
Answer: B) A Designated Authority (and ultimately the Consolidated Fund of India)
Explanation: The Bill creates a centralised Designated Authority to take over, manage and dispose of foreign-funded assets when registration is cancelled, surrendered or not renewed.
9. PM-Vidyalaxmi Scheme provides:
A) Free coaching for competitive exams
B) Collateral-free and guarantor-free education loans to meritorious students
C) Scholarships only for girls
D) Hostel facilities in IITs
Answer: B) Collateral-free and guarantor-free education loans to meritorious students
Explanation: Approved in November 2024, it supports students admitted to designated Quality Higher Education Institutions with interest subvention benefits.
10. From August 2026, the European Union mandates labelling of AI-generated content under which framework?
A) GDPR
B) EU Artificial Intelligence Act (Article 50)
C) Digital Services Act
D) AI Liability Directive
Answer: B) EU Artificial Intelligence Act (Article 50)
Explanation: The EU AI Transparency Code requires clear labels for AI-generated or manipulated content to help users distinguish it from human-created material.
11. Australia was the first country in the world to introduce polymer banknotes in:
A) 1988
B) 1999
C) 2011
D) 2020
Answer: A) 1988
Explanation: Australia introduced the world’s first polymer banknote (A$10) in 1988. Around 60 countries now use them.
12. India’s gig workforce is projected by NITI Aayog to reach approximately how many by 2029–30?
A) 10 million
B) 15 million
C) 23.5 million
D) 30 million
Answer: C) 23.5 million
Explanation: From about 7.7 million in 2020–21, it is expected to grow to 2.35 crore (23.5 million), forming a significant part of the non-agricultural workforce.
13. The India–UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA) came into force on:
A) 1 January 2026
B) 15 July 2026
C) 26 January 2026
D) 1 April 2026
Answer: B) 15 July 2026
Explanation: It is one of the key FTAs contributing to India’s record export performance in FY 2025–26.
14. Which company launched ‘Axis Finance Drishti’, an in-house Business Rules Engine for credit operations?
A) HDFC Bank
B) Axis Finance Limited
C) ICICI Bank
D) SBI
Answer: B) Axis Finance Limited
Explanation: It is a digital platform for faster, data-driven credit decisions in retail and MSME lending.
15. OmniCard introduced India’s first UPI-based Flexi Benefits Wallet primarily for:
A) Farmers
B) Employee tax-efficient benefits
C) Students
D) Senior citizens
Answer: B) Employee tax-efficient benefits
Explanation: It allows employees to manage meal, fuel, telecom and other tax-saving benefits through a single UPI wallet.
16. The RBI has proposed that Securitisation Notes must be issued and held only in:
A) Physical form
B) Dematerialised (demat) form
C) Bearer form
D) Hybrid form
Answer: B) Dematerialised (demat) form
Explanation: Draft amendments aim to improve transparency and efficiency while retaining the ₹1 crore minimum investment limit.
17. Who was appointed Official Liquidator for the winding-up of Paytm Payments Bank?
A) A sitting High Court judge
B) Shri Girikumar M. Nair (former SBI CGM)
C) An RBI Deputy Governor
D) A SEBI official
Answer: B) Shri Girikumar M. Nair (former SBI CGM)
Explanation: Delhi High Court appointed him to oversee the orderly liquidation process.
18. The maximum fine for individuals under the Public Examinations Amendment Bill, 2026 is:
A) ₹10 lakh
B) ₹25 lakh
C) ₹50 lakh
D) ₹1 crore
Answer: C) ₹50 lakh
Explanation: Fines have been significantly enhanced from the earlier ₹10 lakh limit to deter organised cheating networks.
19. Which of the following statements about polymer banknotes is correct?
A) India plans to completely replace paper currency with polymer notes
B) They will circulate alongside existing paper notes
C) They are made of cotton paper
D) Field trials are only for ₹100 notes
Answer: B) They will circulate alongside existing paper notes
Explanation: The government has clarified there is no plan for complete replacement; polymer notes are an additional, more durable option.
20. ASEAN was India’s largest merchandise export destination among FTA partners in FY 2025–26 with exports worth approximately:
A) US$25 billion
B) US$30 billion
C) US$38.42 billion
D) US$45 billion
Answer: C) US$38.42 billion
Explanation: Followed by UAE (US$37.36 billion) and SAFTA countries.
21. The FCRA Amendment Bill, 2026 reduces the maximum imprisonment for certain statutory violations from 5 years to:
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) 3 years
Answer: B) 1 year
Explanation: While reducing the jail term, it mandates prior Central Government approval before criminal investigation.
22. India’s first commercial launch vehicle Vikram-1 is associated with which company/mission window?
A) ISRO’s Gaganyaan
B) Skyroot Aerospace / Mission Aagaman (July–August 2026 window)
C) Agnikul Cosmos
D) DRDO
Answer: B) Skyroot Aerospace / Mission Aagaman (July–August 2026 window)
Explanation: Successful launch would validate India’s indigenous commercial launch capability.
23. Only about what percentage of Indian gig workers currently have access to any social security?
A) 5%
B) 15%
C) 30%
D) 50%
Answer: B) 15%
Explanation: Leaving nearly 85% without accident cover, sick pay or pensions, highlighting the need for better protection.
24. The India–Oman CEPA has shown early positive results with exports to Oman increasing by how much year-on-year in June 2026?
A) 50%
B) 100%
C) 189.6%
D) 250%
Answer: C) 189.6%
Explanation: Along with a 7% month-on-month rise, indicating strong initial utilisation of the agreement.
25. Which Act was originally enacted in 2024 and is now being amended by the 2026 Public Examinations Bill?
A) Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
B) National Testing Agency Act
C) University Grants Commission Act
D) Right to Education Act
Answer: A) Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024
Explanation: The 2026 Amendment strengthens the original anti-paper-leak framework with tougher penalties and faster processes.